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AnaChem Part 3- 2022 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What is the scientific notation of 0.0078 ug/ml of compound A?
    A. 7.8 x 10-1 gg/mL
    B. 7.8 x 10-2 gg/mL
    C. 7.8 x 10-3 gg/mL
    D. 7.8 x 10-4 gg/mL
A

C. 7.8 x 10-3 gg/mL

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following is an extensive property of matter?
    A. Density
    B. Viscosity
    C. Freezing point
    D. Number of moles
A

D. Number of moles

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2
Q
  1. Which does NOT indicate a chemical change?
    A. change in color
    B. change in size
    C. change in shape
    D. change in color
A

C. change in shape

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3
Q
  1. Mothballs are used as deodorizer and as pesticides. Upon exposing them in air for a few hours, they disappeared. Which of the following best explains the scenario?
    A. The mothballs underwent sublimation.
    B. The mothballs underwent melting then vaporization.
    C. The mothballs reacted with some component in the air.
    D. None of the above.
A

A. The mothballs underwent sublimation.

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following is described as having components that can be physically separated?
    A. mixture
    B. solution
    C. suspension
    D. compound
A

A. mixture

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE for C-13 isotope?
    A. It has 6 neutron and 7 protons.
    B. It has 6 protons and 7 neutrons.
    C. It has 6 neutron and 13 protons.
    D. It has 6 protons and 13 neutrons.
A

B. It has 6 protons and 7 neutrons.

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following substances is not basic?
    A. Baking soda
    B. Apple Juice
    C. Borax
    D. Seawater
A

B. Apple Juice

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a possible set of quantum numbers?
    A. n = 3, l = 1, ml = -1, ms = -1/2
    B. n = 3, l = 0, ml = 0, ms = -1/2
    C. n = 3, l = 0, ml = -1, ms = -1/2
    D. n = 3, l = 1, ml = 0, ms = -1/2
A

C. n = 3, l = 0, ml = -1, ms = -1/2

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4
Q
  1. A certain radioisotope has a half-life of 9 days. What percentage of an initial mass of this
    isotope remains after 25 days?
    A. 14.58
    B. 0.57
    C. 73.05
    D. 85.41
A

A. 14.58

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4
Q
  1. Which will cause the mass of a metal block to increase?
    A. putting it in a freezer
    B. heating it
    C. measure in Jupiter
    D. none of the above
A

D. none of the above

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4
Q
  1. Which is the correct arrangement for increasing affinity for electrons?
    A. K < Na < Cl < Ne
    B. Na < K < Cl < Ne
    C. Ne < K < Na < Cl
    D. Ne < Na < K < Cl
A

C. Ne < K < Na < Cl

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4
Q
  1. Chromium is a member of which of the following?
    A. Actinides
    B. Lanthanides
    C. Alkali metals
    D. Transition metals
A

D. Transition metals

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4
Q
  1. It is the statement that contains the result of the experiment and checks if the hypothesis is
    correct or not.
    A. axiom
    B. conclusion
    C. theory
    D. verse
A

B. conclusion

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following atoms is the largest?
    A. Cs
    B. Sr
    C. Ga
    D. As
A

A. Cs

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5
Q
  1. What is the most common isotope of hydrogen?
    A. H has only one isotope
    B. Protium
    C. Deuterium
    D. Tritium
A

B. Protium

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5
Q
  1. An 30.2-g soil sample is dried to a constant mass of 23.3 g in a water content determination
    procedure. Determine the weight % of water in the sample.
    A. 77.15%
    B. 12.96%
    C. 22.85%
    D. 29.61%
A

D. 29.61%

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5
Q
  1. Which element is a pale-yellow gas that reacts with water?
    A.H2
    B. F2
    C. Cl2
    D. Br2
A

B. F2

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5
Q
  1. Fluorine is capable of forming covalent bonds with which of the following element?
    A. Zinc
    B. Boron
    C. Lithium
    D. Calcium
A

B. Boron

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following is commonly used as components in pesticides? This
    group is also characterized as having seven valence electrons.
    A. Pnictogens
    B. Chalcogens
    C. Halogens
    D. Noble gases
A

C. Halogens

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following oxides is likely to be basic in aqueous solution?
    A. SO2
    B. CO2
    D. MgO
    D. P2O5
A

D. MgO

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT an indication of strong IMFA?
    A. high viscosity
    B. high volatility
    C. high boiling point
    D. high melting point
A

B. high volatility

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following does NOT describe a nonpolar bond?
    A. It is a bond between similar nonmetals.
    B. It is a bond between different nonmetals.
    C. It has a dipole moment.
    D. All describes a nonpolar bond.
A

C. It has a dipole moment.

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following is a polar molecule?
    A. CO2
    B.SF4
    C. CCl4
    D. XeF4
A

B.SF4

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5
Q
  1. Polar molecules include which of these?
    l. CO2
    ll. COCl2
    Ill. CH2Cl2
    A. I only
    B. I and II only
    C. I and III only
    D. II and III only
A

D. II and III only

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
    A. Double bonds are shorter than triple bonds.
    B. Double bonds are stronger than triple bonds.
    C. Single bonds have lower energy than double bonds.
    D. None of the statements above is true.
A

C. Single bonds have lower energy than double bonds.

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5
Q
  1. A salt solution of which metal produces a bright red color in a flame test?
    A. Ba
    B. Na
    C. Ca
    D. Ra
A

D. Ra

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5
Q
  1. What is the chemical formula of plumbous oxide?
    A. PbO
    B. Pb2O2
    C. PbO2
    D. PbO4
A

A. PbO

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5
Q
  1. How many significant figures are there in the 3.400 g?
    A. Infinite
    B. 2
    C. 3
    D. 4
A

D. 4

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5
Q
  1. Which compound has the strongest intermolecular force of attraction?
    A. CO
    B. CH4
    C. CH3OH
    D. CH3OCH3
A

C. CH3OH

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following covalent compounds has a tetrahedral geometry?
    A. CH4
    B. NH3
    C. H2O
    D. BF
A

A. CH4

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5
Q
  1. At 25oC a gas expands from 30 kPa and 5.0 L to 70oC and 10 kPa. calculate its final volume.
    A. 17 L
    B. 24 L
    C. 42L
    D. 71 L
A

A. 17 L

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5
Q
  1. Predict the products of the following acid-base reaction:
    NH3(aq) + HNO3(aq) →
    A. NH2OH(aq) + HNO2(aq)
    B. NH4NO3(aq)
    c. NH4OH(aq)
    D. no reaction takes place
A

B. NH4NO3(aq)

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5
Q
  1. What is the name of the compound PCl3?
    A. Phosphorus chloride
    B. Phosphorus trichloride
    C. Phosphorus chloride(lll)
    D. Phosphorus trichloride(lll)
A

B. Phosphorus trichloride

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5
Q
  1. What is the chemical formula of mercurous chloride?
    A. HgCl
    B. Hg2Cl
    c. HgCl2
    D. Hg2Cl2
A

D. Hg2Cl2

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5
Q
  1. What is the density of oxygen at 1 atm and 25oC?
    A. 1.31 g/mL
    B. 1.31 g/L
    C. 15.6 g/mL
    D. 15.6g/L
A

B. 1.31 g/L

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5
Q
  1. Liquid A has lower boiling point than liquid B. Which of the following is true about the
    boiling point of the solution formed upon mixing A and B?
    A. less than that of A
    B. greater than that of B
    C. average of A and B
    D. between A and B
A

D. between A and B

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5
Q
  1. What happens to the volume of a fully inflated balloon when it is taken outside on a cold
    day?
    A. Its volume decreases
    B. It remains the same
    C. Its volume increases
    D. Its volume becomes equal to zero
A

A. Its volume decreases

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6
Q
  1. It is the temperature at which solid and liquid coexist.
    A. melting point of liquid
    B. freezing point of liquid
    C. freezing point of solid
    D. all of the above
A

B. freezing point of liquid

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7
Q
  1. Determine the actual volume contained in a 50.0 mL volumetric flask given the following
    data:
    Mass of water: 50.1227 g
    Density of water at 25’C: 0.99707 g/mL
    A. 50.45mL
    B. 50.27mL
    C. 50.37mL
    D. 50.17 mL
A

B. 50.27mL

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7
Q
  1. How many atoms does a kilogram of copper (63.55 g/mol) metal have?
    A. 9.5x1021
    B. 9.5x1024
    C. 3.8x1021
    D. 3.8x1024
A

B. 9.5x1024

8
Q
  1. A solution is if more solute can dissolve in it.
    A. saturated
    B. supersaturated
    C. unsaturated
    D. concentrated
A

C. unsaturated

9
Q
  1. An analysis of a compound shows 62.04% C, 10.41% H, and 27.55% O. Which of the
    following is the most probably identity of the compound?
    A. C2H4O
    B. C2H4O2
    C. C3H6O
    D. C3H6O2
A

C. C3H6O

10
Q
  1. How many grams of KCI can be formed from 2.73 grams of KClO3?
    A. 1.66
    B. 1.33
    C. 2.73
    D. 2.66
A

A. 1.66

10
Q
  1. Consider the complete combustion of glucose. If 25 g of glucose was burnt with 40 g of
    oxygen, how many grams of the excess reactant remained unreacted?
    C6H12O6+O2 —->
    CO2+H2O

A. 8
B. 13
C. 17
D. 20

A

B. 13

11
Q
  1. see question below.
    MnO4+I+H <—> Mn+IO3+H2O
    When the equation is balanced, which of the following ratios is TRUE?
    A. 2H+: I-
    B. 3I-: IO3-
    C. 6MnO4-: 5 I-
    D. 3MnO4-:
A

C. 6MnO4-: 5 I-

12
Q
  1. What is the pH of 1M HCI?
    A.1
    B. 2
    C. 0
    D. 3
A

C. 0

12
Q
  1. Ethanoic acid (MM = 60.05 g/mol) and ethanol (MM = 46.07 g/mol) reacts to form ethyl ethanoate (88.11 g/mol) and water. Twenty grams of ethanoic acid reacted with 10 grams of ethanol, and 17 grams of ethyl ethanoate was obtained. What is the percentage yield of the
    reaction?
    A. 89%
    B. 153%
    C. 57%
    D. 104%
A

A. 89%

13
Q
  1. See question below.
    How to balance: H2O → O2 + H2
    A. Change the coefficient of O2 to 2
    B. Change the coefficient of H2 to 2
    C. Change the coefficients of both H2O and H2
    D. Change the coefficients of both H2O and O2 to ½
A

C. Change the coefficients of both H2O and H2

13
Q
  1. Determine the molality of 6 M sulfuric acid solution with specific gravity equal to 1.34.
    A. 8m
    B. 12m
    C. 6 m
    D. 10m
A

A. 8m

14
Q
  1. Determine the weight of calcium chloride needed to make 0.5 L of 0.5 M solution.
    A. 18.9 g
    B. 75.55 g
    C. 27.7 g
    D. 111 g
A

C. 27.7 g

14
Q
  1. A solution has been prepared by transferring 60 mL from Ortho-phosphoric acid 85 % (v/v)
    H3PO4 and diluting it to 1.0 L, what is the concentration of the new solution?
    A. 10.10%
    B. 9.25%
    C. 12.2%
    D. 5.10%
A

D. 5.10%

15
Q
  1. A 2.4 L of HNO3 solution reacts with 63 mL of 1.9 N Ba(OH)2 to produce a neutral solution. What is the molar concentration of the original HN03 solution?
    A. 0.05 M
    B. 0.12 M
    C. 0.24 M
    D. 0.50 M
A

A. 0.05 M

16
Q
  1. A solution is prepared by adding 0.1 M H2CO3 and 0.1 M NaHCO3. 0.01 mole HCI is added
    to 1 liter of the prepared solution. The pH of the resulting is close to? The pKa of H2CO3 is 6.37.
    A. 6.28
    B. 4.90
    C. 5.21
    D. 6.37
A

A. 6.28

17
Q
  1. The Kjeldahl method is the worldwide standard for calculating the protein content in a wide
    variety of materials ranging from human and animal food, fertilizer, wastewater and fossil fuels. It consists of three steps: digestion, distillation, and titration. What element is being analyzed in
    Kjeldahl method?
    A. Carbon
    B. Nitrogen
    C. Sulfur
    D. Oxygen
A

B. Nitrogen

17
Q
  1. Which of the following is false about PH indicators?
    A. Wider pH range indicate that the indicator is sensitive to pH changes.
    B. Narrow pH range indicate that the indicator is sensitive to pH changes.
    C. An indicators pH range is the range of pH values over which the indicator changes colors
    from its acid and base forms
    D. An indicator that changes color close to the pH of the equivalence point must be used when
    titrating.
A

A. Wider pH range indicate that the indicator is sensitive to pH changes.
B. Narrow pH range indicate that the indicator is sensitive to pH changes

17
Q
  1. In a galvanic cell, reduction occurs in the while in an electrolytic cell, oxidation occurs in the
    A. anode, anode
    B. cathode, cathode
    C. cathode, anode
    D. anode, cathode
A

C. cathode, anode

17
Q
  1. This part of an electrochemical cell maintains electrical neutrality.
    A. salt bridge
    B. electrodes
    C. voltmeter
    D. electrolytes
A

A. salt bridge

18
Q
  1. What type of cell converts chemical to electrical energy?
    A. Electrolytic Cell and Galvanic Cell
    B. Electrolytic Cell and Voltaic Cell
    C. Voltaic Cell and Galvanic Cell
    D. Electrolytic Cell only
A

C. Voltaic Cell and Galvanic Cell

18
Q
  1. When NH4Cl hydrolyzes, the resulting solution is
    A. acidic
    B. basic
    C. neutral
    D. none of the above
A

A. acidic

19
Q
  1. Which statement is true?
    A. The value of the equilibrium constant increases with the addition of a catalyst.
    B. A catalyst speeds up both the forward and reverse reaction rates.
    C. The greater the activation energy, the faster the rate of reaction.
    D. A catalyst increases the rate of reaction by decreasing the number of collisions
A

B. A catalyst speeds up both the forward and reverse reaction rates.

20
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE?
    A. TC pipet has colored band and the liquid in it must be blown out by aspirator.
    B. TD pipet has colored band and the liquid in it must be blown out by aspirator.
    C. TC pipet has colored band while the liquid in a TD pipet must be blown out by aspirator.
    D. TD pipet has colored band while the liquid in a TC pipet must be blown out by aspirator.
A

A. TC pipet has colored band and the liquid in it must be blown out by aspirator.

20
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a proper laboratory practice?
    A. wearing of masks and gloves
    B. drying of glassware after washing
    C. tying or braiding long hairs
    D. adding water to strong acid
A

D. adding water to strong acid

20
Q
  1. When water is heated in a beaker, bubbles of air form on the side of the glas before the water
    boils. This shows that
    A. the solubility of gases in water decreases with increasing temperature
    B. the solubility of gases in water increases with increasing temperature
    C. the solubility of gases in water decreases with decreasing temperature
    D. the solubility of gases in water increases with decreasing temperature
A

A. the solubility of gases in water decreases with increasing temperature

20
Q
  1. A student wants to improve the accuracy of a 9.40 ml- liquid using a 100 rnL graduated
    cylinder. Which of the following should he do?
    A. take the average of multiple
    measurements
    B. add an additional significant figure
    C. use 25 mL graduated cylinder instead
    D. use 10 mL graduated cylinder instead
A

D. use 10 mL graduated cylinder instead

21
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most appropriate container for hexane?
    A. glass bottle
    B. amber bottle
    C. plastic bottle
    D. none of these
A

B. amber bottle

22
Q
  1. Which of the following is a treatment for HF burns?
    A. water
    B. Epsom salt
    C. 25% brine solution
    D. calcium gluconate
A

D. calcium gluconate

23
Q
  1. Which of the following shows the correct arrangement of the regions of the electromagnetic
    spectrum in terms of wavelength?
    A. Infrared > ultraviolet > visible > microwave > radio waves
    B. Microwave > infrared > visible > ultraviolet > radio waves
    C. Radio waves > microwave > infrared > visible > ultraviolet
    D. Ultraviolet > visible > infrared > microwave > radio waves
A

C. Radio waves > microwave > infrared > visible > ultraviolet

23
Q
  1. This type of glass is commonly used for laboratory glassware at relatively low temperatures
    because green impurities can be produced from it if heated at very high temperatures.
    A. Amber
    B. Quartz
    C. Fused Silica
    D. Borosilicate
A

D. Borosilicate

24
Q
  1. A 3.52 x 10-4 M solution of KMnO4 in a 1.00-cm cell has an absorbance of 0.855 at 525 nm.
    Calculate the molar extinction coefficient for the permanganate ion.
    A. 2.43 x 103 M-1cm-1
    B. 2.43 x 10-3 M-1cm-1
    C. 4.15 x 104 M cm
    D. 3.01 x 10-4 M cm
A

A. 2.43 x 103 M-1cm-1

24
Q
  1. Why is it generally preferable to use absorbance as a measure of absorption rather than %
    transmittance?
    A. because %T cannot be measured as accurately as absorbance
    B. because %T is dependent on the power of the incident radiation
    C. because absorbance is proportional to the concentration of the analyte, whereas %T is not
    D. none of the above
A

C. because absorbance is proportional to the concentration of the analyte, whereas %T is not

25
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is correct?
    A. The lesser the polarity of solute, more strongly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface.
    B. The greater the polarity of solute, more weakly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface.
    C. The greater the polarity of solute, more strongly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface.
    D. None of the above.
A

C. The greater the polarity of solute, more strongly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface.

25
Q
  1. The components of the mixture in column chromatography are eluted in order of
    A. increasing polarity and decreasing distribution ratio
    B. increasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio
    C. decreasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio
    D. decreasing polarity and decreasing distribution ratio
A

B. increasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio

25
Q
  1. The height equivalent of a theoretical plate (HETP) has all of the following characteristics
    EXCEPT
    A. It is defined by the van Deemter equation.
    B. Equilibrium is attained at each height equivalent.
    C. The smaller the value is, the better the separation attainable.
    D. The inverse of this quantity times the total column length is equal to the number of theoretical
    plates in the column.
A

B. Equilibrium is attained at each height equivalent.

25
Q
  1. Column chromatography is based on the principle of
    A. Exclusion
    B. Absorption
    C. Ion exchange
    D. Differential adsorption
A

D. Differential adsorption

25
Q
  1. Type of analysis where the amounts of all constituents in the samples are determined.
    A. Complete (or ultimate) analysis
    B. Partial analysis
    C. Elemental analysis
    D. Proximate analysis
A

A. Complete (or ultimate) analysis

26
Q
  1. Which of the following focuses on Quality Management Systems?
    A. ISO 9001
    B. ISO 17025
    C. ISO 15189
    D. GLP
A

A. ISO 9001

26
Q
  1. If a fire extinguisher has a red body and a blue band, what is its content?
    A. Foam type
    B. Dry chemical type
    C. Carbon dioxide
    D. Halon substitute
A

A. Foam type

27
Q
  1. A solution has a pH of 3.72 with an absolute certainty of ±0.03. Determine the H+
    concentration of the solution and its corresponding absolute certainty.
    A. 1.9 (±0.1) x10-4 M
    B. 1.90 (±0.13) x10-4 M
    C. 1.91 (±0.10) x10-4M
    D. 1.91 (±0.13) x10-4 M
A

A. 1.9 (±0.1) x10-4 M

27
Q
  1. The following are proper practices in storing materials and equipment EXCEPT ONE.
    A. Avoid storing materials and equipment on top of cabinets.
    B. Label all materials properly.
    C. Store hazardous chemicals inside the fumehood.
    D. Do not expose stored chemicals to heat or direct sunlight.
A

C. Store hazardous chemicals inside the fumehood.

27
Q
  1. Method consisting a set of instructions issued by a national standards body.
    A. Standard method
    B. Primary method
    C. Regulatory method
    D. Validated method
A

A. Standard method

27
Q
  1. It accounts for all the other components in the mixture that are not under
    investigation.
    A. Analyte
    B. Matrix
    C. Measurand
    D. Test
A

B. Matrix

27
Q
  1. It is a detailed written instruction to achieve uniformity in the performance of a specific
    function.
    A. Standard method
    B. Protocol
    C. Standard operating procedure
    D. Analytical procedure
A

C. Standard operating procedure

28
Q
  1. In the determination of weight percent content of iron in an iron ore by gravimetric method,
    which of following statement/s is/are true?
    l. The iron ore is the analyte.
    ll. Other minerals present in the ore are collectively called the matrix.
    Ill. Gravimetric method is the analytical method that will be employed in the analysis.
    IV. The process of determination of the concentration of iron present in the matric is called analysis.
    A. I only
    B. land Il
    C. Il and Ill
    D. II, III and IV
A

D. II, III and IV

28
Q
  1. When qualifying a working standard, what is the best type of reagent to use?
    A. Reagent grade
    B. Technical grade
    C. Primary standard
    D. Analytical grade
A

C. Primary standard

29
Q
  1. Requirements of a primary standard.
    A. High Purity, 99.9% or better
    B. Stability in air
    C. Absence of hydrate water
    D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

29
Q
  1. Type of quality control sample used to evaluate the effects of sample matrices on the
    performance of an analytical method.
    A. Matrix duplicate
    B. Matrix spike
    C. Method blank
    D. Reagent blank
A

B. Matrix spike

30
Q
  1. Which of the following correctly describe/s the detection limit?
    l. Concentration that gives a readout level that is more than the electrical noise level inherent in
    the baseline.
    ll. It is the smallest concentration that can be determined with a reasonable degree of precision.
    Ill. A qualitative parameter in the sense that it is the minimum concentration that can be detected,
    but not precisely determined.
    IV. It would tell the analyst that the element is present, but not necessarily at a precisely
    determinable concentration level.
    A. II and Il
    B. I, III and IV
    C. II, III and IV
    D. III only
A

C. II, III and IV

30
Q
  1. Which of the following are possible routes of exposure of the hazardous effects
    of waste?
    A. Inhalation
    B. Dermal
    C. Ingestion
    D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

30
Q
  1. An analysis of ore assays about 1.5% iron. What minimum sample mass should
    be taken if the relative error resulting from a 0.5-mg loss is not to exceed -0.2%?
    A. 16.7 mg
    B. 17 mg
    c. 17 g
    D.16 g
A

c. 17 g

30
Q
  1. It is a part of quality system that includes laboratory operations whose objective is to ensure that the data generated by the laboratory are of known accuracy to some stated, quantitative
    degree of probability.
    A. Quality Management
    B. Quality Assurance
    C. Quality Control
    D. Quality Manual
A

C. Quality Control

31
Q
  1. The quantity of material which is assumed to represent a single population for sampling
    purposes.
    A. Bulk material
    B. Lot
    C. Segment
    D. Batch
A

B. Lot

31
Q
  1. Locating the adulterated portion of the lot for sampling is an example Of
    A. random sampling
    B. selective sampling
    C. composite sampling
    D. stratified sampling
A

B. selective sampling

32
Q
  1. What is the name of RA 6969?
    A. Toxic Substances Control Act
    B. Toxic Substances and Hazardous Wastes Control Act
    C. Toxic Substances and Hazardous and Nuclear Wastes Control Act
    D. Toxic Substances and Hazardous and Nuclear Wastes Management Control Act
A

C. Toxic Substances and Hazardous and Nuclear Wastes Control Act

33
Q

For numbers 95-96. See question below.
For a concentration technique, the relationship between the measure signal, Smeas and the analyte’s concentration, CA, is given by equation Smeas = kCA + Sb .Given the Smeas is 24.37 ± 0.02, Sb, is
0.96 ± 0.02, and k is 0.186 ± 0.003 ppm-1

  1. Calculate for the percent relative uncertainty for the analyte’s concentration.
    A. 0.0162
    B 1.6
    C. 0.0264
    D 2.6
A

B 1.6

34
Q
  1. Report the absolute uncertainty together with the analyte’s concentration.
    A. (125.9±3.3) ppm
    B. (126±3) ppm
    C. (125.9±2.0) ppm
    D. (126±2) ppm
A

D. (126±2) ppm

35
Q
  1. A solid waste management practice which refers to the controlled decomposition or organic matter by microorganisms, mainly bacteria and fungi, into a humus-like product.
    A. Composting
    B. Recycling
    C. Bioremediation
    D. Reducing
A

A. Composting

36
Q
  1. What type of container should be used when handling or storing hydrogen fluoride?
    A. Glass
    B. Polyethylene
    C. Cast iron
    D. Alloys containing silica
A

B. Polyethylene

37
Q
  1. In handling diethyl and other ethers, the following practices are correct except for one.
    A. Distill these substances to dryness to remove peroxides that were possibly formed from air
    autoxidation.
    B. Ferrous salts or sodium bisulfite can be used to decompose peroxides formed by these
    substances.
    C. Passage over basic active alumina can remove most of the peroxidic material.
    D. Dispose old or expired ethers
A

A. Distill these substances to dryness to remove peroxides that were possibly formed from air
autoxidation.

38
Q
  1. The responsibilities of chemists and chemical technicians embodied in the Code of Ethics
    include all EXCEPT
    A. They are expected to be stewards of the environment by following the laws, rules and
    regulations pertaining to chemical wastes management and disposal.
    B. They shall undertake the professional practice of Chemistry only when in possession of a
    valid COR and ID issued by the Board and the Commission.
    C. All Chemistry practitioners are obliged to maintain active membership in the Accredited
    Professional Organization (APO) for the Chemistry profession, and to participate in the activities
    of the latter.
    D. None of the above
A

D. None of the above

asd (9 decks)

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