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OrgChem Part 1&2 - 2022 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following LEAST describes an organic compound?
    A. It always comes from a living source.
    B. It is composed of covalently bonded carbon atoms.
    C. Light molecular weight compounds are combustible.
    D. None of the above.
A

A. It always comes from a living source.

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2
Q
  1. The vital force theory was disproved by the synthesis of which compound?
    A. ethanol
    B. cyanide
    C. urea
    D. ammonia
A

C. urea

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following is/are characteristics of an aromatic compound?
    I. It is cyclic and planar.
    II. It is completely conjugated.
    III. It is composed of even- numbered carbon atoms.
    A. I only
    B. I and II
    C. I and Ill
    D. l, Il, and Ill
A

B. I and II

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3
Q
  1. What is the hybridization of the carbonyl carbon in acetone?
    A. sp
    B. sp2
    C. sp3
    D. sp3d2
A

B. sp2

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following is a pair of stereoisomers?
    A. 2-octene and 3-octene
    B. D-glucose and L-gulose
    C. cis-2-butene and trans-2-butene
    D. hexanoic acid and heptanoic acid
A

C. cis-2-butene and trans-2-butene

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following solvents will butyric acid be most soluble?
    A. CCl4
    B. water
    C. hexane
    D. CH2Cl2
A

B. water

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a constitutional isomer with the others? (???)
    A. cyclohexene
    B. 3-methylpentene
    C. 2-hexyne
    D. 1-hexene
A
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4
Q
  1. What is the common name for ethenylbenzene?
    A. styrene
    B. cumene
    C. xylene
    D. limonene
A

A. styrene

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4
Q
  1. Among the Ortho, meta and para isomers of xylene, which has the highest boiling point?
    A. ortho-xylene
    B. meta-xylene
    C. para-xylene
    D. Ortho-xylene and para-xylene
A

A. ortho-xylene

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4
Q
  1. Which functional group is directly responsible for the flavors present in wine?
    A. ester
    B. ether
    C. alcohol
    D. anhydride
A

A. ester

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT an aliphatic compound?
    A. neopentane
  2. cycloheptane
    C. 3-heptyne
    D. xylene
A

D. xylene

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following is arranged in order of increasing boiling point?
    A. 2-methylbutane < n-pentane < butanone < butanol
    B. n-pentane < 2-methylbutane butanone < butanol
    C. 2-methylbutane < n-pentane < butanol < butanone
    D. n-pentane 2-methylbutane butanol < butanone
A

A. 2-methylbutane < n-pentane < butanone < butanol

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5
Q
  1. Which is the most acidic among the following compounds?
    A. CH3OH
    B. C6H5OH
    C. CH3COOH
    D. (CH3)3COH
A

C. CH3COOH

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following is used commonly as refrigerants?
    A. alkyl ethers
    B. alkyl esters
    C. alkyl alcohols
    D. alkyl halides
A

D. alkyl halides

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5
Q
  1. Which alkyl halide will most readily react in SN1 reactions?
    A. primary
    B. secondary
    C. tertiary
    D. can be any
A

C. tertiary

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following compounds is NOT produced from oxidation of alkenes?
    A. ester
    B. ketone
    C. carboxylic acid
    D carbon dioxide
A

A. ester

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5
Q
  1. An unknown alcohol was reacted with the Lucas reagent and the observation was the
    immediate appearance of turbidity.
    A. primary
    B. secondary
    C. tertiary
    D. can be any
A

C. tertiary

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a reagent for hydrogenation of an alkyne?
    A. H2/Pd-c
    B. H2/Lindlar
    C. Na/NH3
    D. BH3/H2O2, NaOH
A

D. BH3/H2O2, NaOH

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5
Q
  1. Acid chlorides are highly reactive derivatives of carboxylic acids that can
    A. react with themselves to form ketones.
    B. react with amines and alcohols to give amides and esters.
    C. be made from alkyl alcohols by reaction with thionyl chloride.
    D. be reduced to ketones with hydrogen and a platinum catalyst.
A

B. react with amines and alcohols to give amides and esters.

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a step in addition polymerization?
    A. initiation
    B. substitution
    C. propagation
    D. termination
A

B. substitution

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5
Q
  1. Pyridinium cholorochromate (PCC) is a mild oxidizing agent. What is the product formed
    when 1 -butanol reacts with PCC?
    A. butanal
    B. 2-butanone
    C. butanoic acid
    D. tert-butanol
A

A. butanal

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5
Q
  1. What is the product when an aldehyde reacts with a Grignard reagent?
    A. a secondary alcohol
    B. an aldehyde
    C. a ketone
    D. an alkene
A

A. a secondary alcohol

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following indicates a positive observation for the iodoform test?
    A. appearance of silver mirror
    B. appearance of purple oily layer
    C. appearance of yellow precipitate
    D. appearance of colorless crystals
A

C. appearance of yellow precipitate

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5
Q
  1. What is the funnel used in suction filtration?
    A. filter funnel
    B. dropping funnel
    C. thistle funnel
    D. Büchner funnel
A

D. Büchner funnel

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5
Q
  1. This method of distillation is suitable when the components of a mixture to be separated are thermal-sensitive and could decompose at high temperatures.
    A. steam distillation
    B. simple distillation
    C. fractional distillation
    D. none of the above
A

A. steam distillation

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following can be done to purify a synthesized solid product?
    A. extraction
    B. distillation
    C. recrystallization
    D. chromatography
A

C. recrystallization

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5
Q
  1. In a calibration curve, absorbance is plotted against the _______ of an analyte.
    A. pH
    B. volume
    C. concentration
    D. redox potential
A

C. concentration

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5
Q
  1. This is done during liquid-liquid extraction to release the pressure build up inside the separatory funnel during shaking.
    A- stirring
    B. venting
    C. drawing
    D. salting out
A

B. venting

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6
Q
  1. In this chromatographic method, the sample may be gas or liquid injected into a gaseous
    mobile phase.
    A. gas chromatography
    B. affinity chromatography
    C. thin layer chromatography
    D. high pressure liquid chromatography
A

A. gas chromatography

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7
Q
  1. It is the more common form of high pressure liquid chromatography (HPLC) where the
    stationary phase is nonpolar and the mobile phase is polar.
    A. HPLC-MS
    B. HPLC-NMR
    C. normal-phase
    D. reversed-phase
A

D. reversed-phase

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7
Q
  1. It is the highest concentration of a substance in the air that will produce a fire or explosion
    when source of ignition such as heat, spark or flame is present.
    A. lower flammable limit
    B. upper flammable limit
    C. reactivity limit
    D. flash limit
A

B. upper flammable limit

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7
Q
  1. What is the most appropriate type of container to be used for acid and base wastes?
    A. metal drums
    B. fiber drums
    C. polyethylene drums
    D. tightly-sealed glass container
A

C. polyethylene drums

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7
Q
  1. water is a suitable solvent for the recrystallization of benzoic acid. HOW should be addition of
    the solvent?
    A. Add benzoic acid to minimum amount of hot water with stirring.
    B. Add room temp water to benzoic acid while stirring until benzoic acid dissolves.
    C. Add maximum amount Of hot water to benzoic acid while stirring.
    D. Add small portions of hot water to benzoic acid while stirring until benzoic acid dissolves.
A

D. Add small portions of hot water to benzoic acid while stirring until benzoic acid dissolves.

7
Q
  1. In an MSDS Data Sheet, which of the following color symbolizes reactivity?
    A. blue
    B. red
    C. yellow
    D. white
A

C. yellow

7
Q
  1. Sample preparation technique used prior to instrumental analysis of metals.
    A. sieving
    B. clean-up
    C. acid digestion
    D. liquid-liquid extraction
A

C. acid digestion

7
Q
  1. According to the GHS, which of the following is referred to by this symbol?
    A. oxidizers
    B. flammable materials
    C. explosives
    D. corrosives
A

A. oxidizers

7
Q
  1. The organic liquid in steam distillation vaporizes at
    A. a lower temperature than its boiling point
    B. a higher temperature than its boiling point
    C. its boiling point
    D. none of the above
A

A. a lower temperature than its boiling point

7
Q
  1. During electroplating of silver, the silver ions are reduced at the
    A. anode
    B. cathode
    C. electrolyte solution
    D. none of the above
A

B. cathode

7
Q
  1. A simple fractional tube is packed with which of the following?
    A. wooden beads
    B. plastic beads
    C. metal beads
    D. glass beads
A

D. glass beads

7
Q
  1. The chromaplate or thin layer chromatography plate is made up of
    A. glass
    B. wood
    C. fiber
    D. metal
A

A. glass

7
Q
  1. According to the GHS, which of the following is not under the pictogram “Gas Cylinder”?
    A. compressed gas
    B. dissolved gas
    C. liquefied gas
    D. explosive gas
A

D. explosive gas

8
Q
  1. Which of the following is FALSE regarding galvanic cells?
    A. TO set up this cell, a salt bridge is used.
    B. The reactions taking place are non-spontaneous.
    C. It converts chemical energy into electrical energy.
    D. The electrolytes used in the compartments are different.
A

B. The reactions taking place are non-spontaneous.

8
Q
  1. A cell is prepared by dipping a copper rod in 1 M cuS04 solution and an iron rod in 2 M
    FeS04 solution. Identify the anode and cathode.
    A. anode-copper; cathode-iron
    B. anode-iron; cathode-copper
    C. anode-copper; cathode-copper
    D. anode-iron; cathode-iron
A

B. anode-iron; cathode-copper

8
Q
  1. The different types of energies associated with a molecule are
    A. Electronic energy
    B. Vibrational energy
    C. Rotational energy
    D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

8
Q
  1. Retardation factor is the ratio of
    A. distance moved by substance from base line to distance moved by the solvent from base line
    B. distance moved by solvent from base line to distance moved by the substance from base line
    C. distance moved by substance from top line to distance moved by the solvent from top line
    D. distance moved by solvent from top line to distance moved by the substance from top line
A

A. distance moved by substance from base line to distance moved by the solvent from base line

8
Q
  1. Beer’s Law states that
    A. absorbance is proportional to both the path length and concentration of the
    absorbing species
    B. absorbance is proportional to the log of the concentration of the absorbing species
    C. absorbance is equal to PO/P
    D. none of the above
A

A. absorbance is proportional to both the path length and concentration of the
absorbing species

8
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about mass spectroscopy is(are) correct?
    l. Analyte molecules are converted to gaseous ions.
    ll. The ions are separated according to their mass to charge ratio.
    Ill. The addition of compound identification mass spectra can be utilized to determine precise isotopic masses and isotopic ratios.
    A. Il only
    B. land Ill
    C. Il and Ill
    D. I, Il, and Ill
A

D. I, Il, and Ill

8
Q
  1. Which of the following is the principle of Atomic Absorption spectroscopy?
    A. Color is measured.
    B. Color is simply observed.
    C. Medium absorbs radiation and transmitted radiation is measured.
    D. Radiation is absorbed by non-excited atoms in vapor state and are excited to higher states.
A

D. Radiation is absorbed by non-excited atoms in vapor state and are excited to higher states.

9
Q
  1. The region of electromagnetic spectrum for NMR is
    A. IR
    B. UV-Vis
    C. Microwave
    D. Radio frequency
A

D. Radio frequency

9
Q
  1. IR spectroscopy is useful for determining certain aspects of the structure of organic
    compounds because
    A. All molecular bonds absorb IR radiation.
    B. IR peak intensities are related to molecular mass.
    C. Each element absorbs at a characteristic wavelength.
    D. Most organic functional groups absorb in characteristic region of IR spectrum.
A

D. Most organic functional groups absorb in characteristic region of IR spectrum.

10
Q
  1. Determine which compound will have the following IR peaks: 3020-3100 and 1650-1670
    cm-1
    A. cyclohexane
    B. cyclohexene
    C. 3-hexyne
    D. n-hexane
A

B. cyclohexene

11
Q
  1. Which list below gives only spin active nuclei?
    A. 1^H, 2^H, 12^C
    B. 1^H, 12^C, 19^F
    C. 1^H, 13^C, 19^F
    D. 2^H, 12^C, 19^F
A

C. 1^H, 13^C, 19^F

12
Q
  1. Which of the following is widely used for the separation/purification of specific
    biomolecules? This relies on the highly specific binding between an analyte and its counterpart.
    A. Chiral chromatography
    B. Affinity chromatography
    C. Ion exchange chromatography
    D. Ion exclusion chromatography
A

B. Affinity chromatography

12
Q
  1. Which of the following is(are) application(s) of ion exchange chromatography?
    A. Softening Of hard water
    B. Demineralization of water
    C. Separation and determination of anions
    D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

12
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT an ideal characteristic of a detector used in gas
    chromatography?
    A. high reliability
    B. short response time
    C. linear response to the solutes
    D. sensitive to the changes in the flow rate of a carrier gas
A

D. sensitive to the changes in the flow rate of a carrier gas

13
Q
  1. What must be done to the solid samples for it to be introduced into the column without using
    solid injection syringes in gas chromatography?
    A. dissolved in volatile liquids
    B. introduced using sampling loops
    C. introduced using rotary sample valve
    D. introduced in hot-zone of the column
A

A. dissolved in volatile liquids

14
Q
  1. Which of the following detectors is widely used to detect environmental samples like
    chlorinated pesticides and polychlorinated biphenyls?
    A. Flame ionization detector
    B. Electron capture detector
    C. Thermionic specific detector
    D. Thermal conductivity detector
A

B. Electron capture detector

14
Q
  1. Electrophiles are
    A. electron-poor species
    B. electron-rich species
    C. positively charged ions
    D. electrically neutral species
A

A. electron-poor species

14
Q
  1. Which compound is different among the other compounds?
    A. CH3CH2OCH2CH3
    B. CH3COCH2CH3
    C. C6H5OCH2CH3
    D.C6H5 CH2OCH3
A

B. CH3COCH2CH3

15
Q
  1. Which of the following columns are not used in liquid or high performance liquid
    chromatography?
    A. guard column
    B. capillary column
    C. analytical column
    D. separation column
A

B. capillary column

16
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT true about the guard column used in liquid chromatography?
    A. It extends the lifespan of the separation column.
    B. It filters particles that clog the separation column.
    C. The size of packing varies with the type of protection needed.
    D. It allows entry of particles that cause precipitation upon contact with stationary or mobile
    phase.
A

D. It allows entry of particles that cause precipitation upon contact with stationary or mobile
phase.

17
Q
  1. Chlorination of alkanes is what type of reaction?
    A. elimination
    B. rearrangement
    C. electrophilic addition
    D. free-radical substitution
A

D. free-radical substitution

17
Q
  1. Which compound will rapidly decolorize Br2 in CHCl3?
    A. Hexane
    B. benzene
    C. 1-hexene
    D. cyclohexane
A

C. 1-hexene

17
Q
  1. Which of these compounds exist as cis and trans isomers?
    A. dichlorobenzene
    B. 1-chloropropene
    C. dichloroethyne
    D. 1,2-dichloropropane
A

B. 1-chloropropene

17
Q
  1. Baeyer’s reagent is used to characterize alkenes. Which of the following is Baeyer’s reagent?
    A. Neutral solution of HCI
    B. Alcoholic solution of carbonate
    C. Ammoniacal solution of silver nitrate
    D. Aqueous solution of potassium permanganate
A

D. Aqueous solution of potassium permanganate

18
Q
  1. In what way does the reactivity of CH3C≡CH differ from CH3CH=CH2?
    A. Propyne is deprotonated by NaNH2, while propene is not.
    B. Propyne does not react with bromine, while propene reacts readily with bromine
    C. Propyne undergoes catalytic hydrogenation over platinum, while propene does
    D. Propyne is readily hydrated at pH = 0, while propene is not.
A

A. Propyne is deprotonated by NaNH2, while propene is not.

18
Q
  1. Which of the following is an aromatic compound?
    A. acetylene
    B. acetone
    C. styrene
    D. polyethylene
A

C. styrene

19
Q
  1. How many 𝜎 and 𝜋 bonds are present in benzene?
    A. 6 𝜎 and 3 𝜋
    B. 3 𝜎 and 6 𝜋
    C. 3 𝜎 and 12 𝜋
    D.12 𝜎 and 3𝜋
A

D.12 𝜎 and 3𝜋

20
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most activating in electrophilic aromatic substitution?
    A. -NO2
    B. -NHCOCH3
    C. -CN
    D. -NH2
A

D. -NH2

20
Q
  1. Which of the following CANNOT be a product of the reaction of benzene with CH3Cl and
    AICl3?
    A. toluene
    B. isopropyl benzene
    C. o-xylene
    D. p-xylene
A

B. isopropyl benzene

20
Q
  1. Which of the following is the rate determining step in electrophilic aromatic substitution?
    A. generation of the electrophile
    B. addition of the electrophile on benzene’s bond to form a carbocation
    C. loss of a proton to re-form the aromatic ring
    D. none of the above
A

B. addition of the electrophile on benzene’s bond to form a carbocation

21
Q
  1. Alkyl halides are very reactive towards nucleophiles because
    A. they have a nucleophilic carbon and a good leaving group.
    B. they have a nucleophilic carbon and a poor leaving group.
    C. they have an electrophilic carbon and a good leaving group.
A

C. they have an electrophilic carbon and a good leaving group.

21
Q
  1. SN2 means
    A. two-step nucleophilic substitution involving both alkyl halide and nucleophile
    B. one-step nucleophilic substitution involving both alkyl halide and nucleophile
    C. two-step nucleophilic substitution involving only the alkyl halide
    D. one-step nucleophilic substitution involving only the nucleophile
A

B. one-step nucleophilic substitution involving both alkyl halide and nucleophile

21
Q
  1. Which compound has the highest boiling point?
    A. CH3CH2CH3
    B. CH3OCH2CH3
    C. CH3COCH3
    D. CH3CH2CH2OH
A

D. CH3CH2CH2OH

21
Q
  1. Which of the following alkyl halides can undergo both SN1 and SN2 reactions?
    A. CH3X
    B. (CH3)2CHX
    C. (CH3)3CX
    D. (CH3)3CCH2X
A

B. (CH3)2CHX

22
Q
  1. Which of the following is a tertiary alcohol?
    A. (CH3)3COH
    B. CH3CH2CH(OH)CH3
    C. CH3CH2(OH)CH3
    D. (CH3CH2)2CHOH
A

A. (CH3)3COH

23
Q
  1. Carbon is found in the highest oxidation state in which of these classes of organic
    compounds?
    A. alkynes
    B. alcohols
    C. aldehydes
    D. carboxylic acids
A

D. carboxylic acids

23
Q
  1. Which of the following reactions will NOT produce aldehydes?
    A. ozonolysis of alkenes
    B. hydration of alkynes
    C. oxidation of primary alcohols
    D. dehydration of secondary alcohols
A

D. dehydration of secondary alcohols

24
Q
  1. Which reaction could occur between acetic acid and ethanol?
    A. addition
    B. esterification
    C. neutralization
    D. oxidation
A

B. esterification

25
Q
  1. Which of the following reagents can be used to distinguish between phenol and carboxylic
    acid?
    A. aqueous NaCl
    B. aqueous NaOH
    C. aqueous FeCl3
    D. Tollens reagent
A

C. aqueous FeCl3
D. Tollens reagent

26
Q
  1. Carboxylic acids are more acidic than phenols and alcohols because of
    A. formation of dimers
    B. highly acidic hydrogen
    C. intermolecular hydrogen bonding
    D. resonance stabilization of their conjugate
    base
A

D. resonance stabilization of their conjugate
base

asd (9 decks)

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