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AnaChem Part 3 - 2023 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. How many significant figures are there in the 3.400 g?
    A. Infinite
    B. 2
    C. 3
    D. 4
A

D. 4

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2
Q
  1. Mass ______.
    A. has the SI unit of pounds.
    B. is the amount of matter that occupies space.
    C. is the quantitative measure of acceleration, a fundamental property of all matter.
    D. constitutes the force exerted on matter by the gravitational attraction of Earth, and so it varies
    slightly from place to place.
A

B. is the amount of matter that occupies space.

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following is an extensive property of matter?
    A. Density
    B. Viscosity
    C. Freezing point
    D. Number of moles
A

D. Number of moles

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3
Q
  1. When two materials that have different densities, like oil and water, encounter one another,
    they will
    A. separate based on their densities
    B. exchange densities
    C. mix uniformly
    D. repel one another
A

A. separate based on their densities

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3
Q
  1. Which does NOT indicate a chemical change?
    A. change in color
    B. increase in temperature
    C. change in shape
    D. evolution of gas
A

C. change in shape

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4
Q
  1. A certain radioisotope has a half-life of 9 days. What percentage of an initial mass of this
    isotope remains after 25 days?
    A. 14.58
    B. 0.57
    C. 73.05
    D. 85.41
A

A. 14.58

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4
Q
  1. It is the statement that contains the result of the experiment and checks if the hypothesis is
    correct or not.
    A. procedure
    B. hypothesis
    C. conclusion
    D. theory
A

C. conclusion

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5
Q
  1. Which will cause the mass of a metal block to increase?
    A. putting it in a freezer
    B. heating it
    C. measure in Jupiter
    D. none of the above
A

D. none of the above

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following is described as having components that can be physically separated?
    A. mixture
    B. solution
    C. suspension
    D. compound
A

A. mixture

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6
Q
  1. Mothballs are used as deodorizer and as pesticides. Upon exposing them in air for a few hours,
    they disappeared. Which of the following best explains the scenario?
    A. The mothballs underwent sublimation.
    B. The mothballs underwent melting then vaporization.
    C. The mothballs reacted with some component in the air.
    D. None of the above.
A

A. The mothballs underwent sublimation.

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE for C-13 isotope?
    A. It has 6 neutron and 7 protons.
    B. It has 6 protons and 7 neutrons.
    C. It has 6 neutron and 13 protons.
    D. It has 6 protons and 13 neutrons.
A

B. It has 6 protons and 7 neutrons.

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7
Q
  1. What is the most common isotope of hydrogen?
    A. H has only one isotope
    B. Protium
    C. Deuterium
    D. Tritium
A

B. Protium

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following atoms is the largest?
    A. Cs
    B. Sr
    C. Ga
    D. As
A

A. Cs

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7
Q
  1. Which is the correct arrangement for increasing affinity for electrons?
    A. K < Na < Cl < Ne
    B. Na < K < Cl < Ne
    C. Ne < K < Na < Cl
    D. Ne < Na < K < Cl
A

C. Ne < K < Na < Cl

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following oxides is likely to be basic in aqueous solution?
    a. SO2
    b. CO2
    c. MgO
    d. P2O5
A

c. MgO

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8
Q
  1. Fluorine is capable of forming covalent bonds with which of the following element?
    A. Zinc
    B. Boron
    C. Lithium
    D. Calcium
A

B. Boron

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8
Q
  1. Chromium is a member of which of the following?
    A. Actinides
    B. Lanthanides
    C. Alkali metals
    D. Transition metals
A

D. Transition metals

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8
Q
  1. What is an alloy?
    A. Solid solution
    B. Liquid solution
    C. Gaseous solution
    D. All of the above
A

A. Solid solution

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9
Q
  1. Which element is a pale-yellow gas that reacts with water?
    A. H₂
    B. F₂
    C. Cl₂
    D. Br₂
A

B. F₂

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9
Q
  1. Which of the following is a chemical equation?
    A. CO₂
    B. C + O₂ ⟶ CO₂
    C. Ice + Heat ⟶ Water
    D. Iron + Oxygen ⟶ Rust
A

B. C + O₂ ⟶ CO₂

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9
Q
  1. What is the name of the compound PCl₃?
    A. Phosphorus chloride
    B. Phosphorus trichloride
    C. Phosphorus chloride(III)
    D. Phosphorus trichloride(III)
A

B. Phosphorus trichloride

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10
Q
  1. What is the chemical formula of mercurous chloride?
    a. HgCl
    b. Hg2Cl
    c. HgCl2
    d. Hg2Cl2
A

d. Hg2Cl2

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following covalent compounds has a tetrahedral geometry?
    A. CH₄
    B. NH₃
    C. H₂O
    D. BF₃
A

A. CH₄

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following does NOT describe a nonpolar bond?
    A. It is a bond between similar nonmetals.
    B. It is a bond between different nonmetals.
    C. It has a dipole moment.
    D. All describes a nonpolar bond.
A

C. It has a dipole moment.

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following is a polar molecule?
    A. CO₂
    B. SF₄
    C. CCl₄
    D. XeF₄
A

B. SF₄

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
    A. Double bonds are shorter than triple bonds.
    B. Double bonds are stronger than triple bonds.
    C. Single bonds have lower energy than double bonds.
    D. None of the statements above is true.
A

C. Single bonds have lower energy than double bonds.

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13
Q
  1. Determine the actual volume contained in a 50.0 mL volumetric flask given the following
    data:
    Mass of water: 50.1227 g
    Density of water at 25°C: 0.99707 g/mL
    A. 50.45 mL
    B. 50.27 mL
    C. 50.37 mL
    D. 50.17 mL
A

B. 50.27 mL

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13
Q
  1. Which compound has the strongest intermolecular force of attraction?
    a. CO
    b. CH4
    c. CH3OH
    d. CH3OCH3
A

c. CH3OH

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13
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT an indication of strong IMFA?
    A. high viscosity
    B. high volatility
    C. high boiling point
    D. high melting point
A

B. high volatility

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13
Q
  1. An analysis of a compound shows 62.04% C, 10.41% H, and 27.55% O. Which of the
    following is the most probably identity of the compound?
    A. C₂H₄O
    B. C₂H₄O₂
    C. C₃H₆O
A

C. C₃H₆O

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14
Q
  1. Liquid A has lower boiling point than liquid B. Which of the following is true about the
    boiling point of the solution formed upon mixing A and B?
    A. less than that of A
    B. greater than that of B
    C. average of A and B
    D. between A and B
A

D. between A and B

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14
Q
  1. Polar molecules include which of these?
    I. CO2
    II. COCl2
    III. CH2Cl2
    A. I only
    B. I and II only
    C. I and III only
    D. II and III only
A

D. II and III only

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15
Q
  1. What is the density of oxygen at 1 atm and 25°C?
    A. 1.31 g/mL
    B. 1.31 g/L
    C. 15.6 g/mL
    D. 15.6 g/L
A

B. 1.31 g/L

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15
Q
  1. When water is heated in a beaker, bubbles of air form on the side of the glass before the
    water boils. This shows that
    A. the solubility of gases in water decreases with increasing temperature
    B. the solubility of gases in water increases with increasing temperature
    C. the solubility of gases in water decreases with decreasing temperature
    D. the solubility of gases in water increases with decreasing temperature
A

A. the solubility of gases in water decreases with increasing temperature

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15
Q
  1. Which procedure produces a 0.2 M solution of Na₂SO₄?
    A. Mixing 500 mL of 0.4 M NaOH with 500 mL of 0.2 M Na₂SO₄
    B. Mixing 300 mL of 1.2 M NaOH with 600 mL of 0.3 M Na₂SO₄
    C. Dissolving 0.2 M solid Na₂SO₄ in 500 mL water
    D. Diluting 400 mL of 0.3 M Na₂SO₄ to a final volume of 1.0 L
A

B. Mixing 300 mL of 1.2 M NaOH with 600 mL of 0.3 M Na₂SO₄

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15
Q
  1. How many atoms does a kilogram of copper (63.55 g/mol) metal have?
    a. 9.5 x 10^21
    b. 9.5 x 10^24
    c. 3.8 x 10^21
    d. 3.8 x 10^24
A

b. 9.5 x 10^24

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15
Q
  1. All solid states are denser than their liquid states. However, water is unique because
    A. It is clear.
    B. It is tasteless.
    C. Its solid form (ice) is less dense than its liquid form.
    D. It can freeze.
A

C. Its solid form (ice) is less dense than its liquid form.

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15
Q
  1. It is the temperature at which solid and liquid coexist.
    A. melting point of liquid
    B. freezing point of liquid
    C. freezing point of solid
    D. all of the above
A

B. freezing point of liquid

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15
Q
  1. What happens to the volume of a fully inflated balloon when it is taken outside on a cold
    day?
    A. Its volume decreases
    B. It remains the same
    C. Its volume increases
    D. Its volume becomes equal to zero
A

A. Its volume decreases

15
Q
  1. Which statement is TRUE?
    A. The value of the equilibrium constant increases with the addition of a catalyst.
    B. A catalyst speeds up both the forward and reverse reaction rates.
    C. The greater the activation energy, the faster the rate of reaction.
    D. A catalyst increases the rate of reaction by decreasing the number of collisions
A

B. A catalyst speeds up both the forward and reverse reaction rates.

15
Q
  1. A 1.00 g sample of which compound will produce the greatest amount of carbon dioxide
    after complete combustion with excess oxygen?
    A. CH₄
    B. C₃H₆
    C. C₆H₁₄
    D. C₈H₁₈
A

B. C₃H₆

15
Q
  1. At 25°C a gas expands from 30 kPa and 5.0 L to 70°C and 10 kPa. Calculate its final volume.
    A. 17 L
    B. 24 L
    C. 42 L
    D. 71 L
16
Q
  1. A solution is _______ if more solute can dissolve in it.
    A. saturated
    B. supersaturated
    C. unsaturated
    D. concentrated
A

C. unsaturated

16
Q
  1. A solution contains 34.0% HClO₄ by mass. HClO₄ has a molar mass of 100.45 g/mol. The
    solution has a density of 1.242 g/mL. What is the molar concentration of this solution?
    A. 5.13 M
    B. 4.20 M
    C. 8.40 M
    D. 0.916 M
17
Q
  1. A solution has been prepared by transferring 60 mL of 85% by volume H₃PO₄ and diluting it
    to 1.0 L. What is the concentration of the new solution?
    A. 10.10%
    B. 9.25%
    C. 12.2%
    D. 5.10%
18
Q
  1. Which of the following substances is not basic?
    A. Baking soda
    B. Apple Juice
    C. Borax
    D. Seawater
A

B. Apple Juice

18
Q
  1. A 2.4 L of HNO₃ solution reacts with 63 mL of 1.9 N Ba(OH)₂ to produce a neutral solution.
    What is the molar concentration of the original HNO₃ solution?
    A. 0.05 M
    B. 0.12 M
    C. 0.24 M
    D. 0.50 M
19
Q
  1. The following statements are TRUE about pH EXCEPT
    A. It is the negative logarithm of hydrogen ions content in a solution.
    B. It is a measure of the acidity or alkalinity of a solution.
    C. It is a measure of the amount or hydrogen ions in solution.
    D. It does not change when there are changes in temperature.
A

D. It does not change when there are changes in temperature.

20
Q
  1. A lab analyst dissolved 4.021 g of NaOH in water and made up the solution to 1L with water.
    He then pipetted 10.00 mL of this solution into a flask and titrated it with 0.050 M HCI solution
    from a burette. A volume of 20.32 mL of acid had been used at the endpoint. Examining this
    result, the lab supervisor could deduce that _____.
    A. the NaOH absorbed H2O from the air after its mass was measured
    B. the burette was rinsed with water instead of HCI
    C. the analysis is as accurate as can be expected using this apparatus
    D. the pipette was rinsed with water instead of NaOH
A

B. the burette was rinsed with water instead of HC

20
Q
  1. When NaCH₃COO hydrolyzes, the resulting solution is
    A. acidic
    B. basic
    C. neutral
    D. none of the above
20
Q
  1. The components of the mixture in column chromatography are eluted in order of
    __________
    A. increasing polarity and decreasing distribution ratio
    B. increasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio
    C. decreasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio
    D. decreasing polarity and decreasing distribution ratio
A

B. increasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio

21
Q
  1. A solution is prepared by adding 0.1 M H₂CO₃ and 0.1 M NaHCO₃. 0.01 mole HCl is added
    to 1 liter of the prepared solution. The pH of the resulting is close to? The pKa of H₂CO₃ is 6.37.
    A. 6.28
    B. 4.90
    C. 5.21
    D. 6.37
21
Q
  1. When a strong acid reacts with a weak base during titration, the pH at the equivalence point
    is
    A. basic
    B. acidic
    C. neutral
    D. none of the above
21
Q
  1. Conductivity is the ability of a substance to
    A. conduct electric current, which is the same as resistivity.
    B. repel electric current.
    C. conduct variable resistance.
    D. conduct electric current, which is the reciprocal of resistivity.
A

D. conduct electric current, which is the reciprocal of resistivity

22
Q
  1. The Kjeldahl method is the worldwide standard for calculating the protein content in a wide
    variety of materials ranging from human and animal food, fertilizer, waste water and fossil fuels.
    It consists of three steps: digestion, distillation, and titration. What element is being analyzed in
    Kjeldahl method?
    A. Carbon
    B. Nitrogen
    C. Sulfur
    D. Oxygen
A

B. Nitrogen

22
Q
  1. In a galvanic cell, reduction occurs in the ____ while in an electrolytic cell, oxidation occurs
    in the ____.
    A. anode, anode
    B. cathode, cathode
    C. cathode, anode
    D. anode, cathode
A

C. cathode, anode

22
Q
  1. Column chromatography is based on the principle of _____________.
    A. Exclusion
    B. Absorption
    C. Ion exchange
    D. Differential adsorption
A

D. Differential adsorption

22
Q
  1. Why is it generally preferable to use absorbance as a measure of absorption rather than %
    transmittance?
    A. because %T cannot be measured as accurately as absorbance
    B. because %T is dependent on the power of the incident radiation
    C. because absorbance is proportional to the concentration of the analyte, whereas %T is not
    D. none of the above
A

C. because absorbance is proportional to the concentration of the analyte, whereas %T is not

23
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is correct?
    A. The lesser the polarity of solute, more strongly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface.
    B. The greater the polarity of solute, more weakly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface.
    C. The greater the polarity of solute, more strongly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface.
    D. None of the above.
A

C. The greater the polarity of solute, more strongly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface.

23
Q
  1. What will you perform to know that atomic absorption spectrometer continues to work
    property?
    A. Calibration check
    B. Blank
    C. QC sample recoveries
    D. Standard addition
A

A. Calibration check

24
Q
  1. A student wants to improve the accuracy of a 9.40 mL liquid using a 100 mL graduated
    cylinder. Which of the following should he do?
    A. take the average of multiple measurements
    B. add an additional significant figure
    C. use 25 mL graduated cylinder instead
    D. use 10 mL graduated cylinder instead
A

D. use 10 mL graduated cylinder instead

24
Q
  1. Statistical test that decides whether a datum from a given set could be rejected or NOT is the
    ______.
    A. t-test
    B. z-test
    C. Q-test
    D. F-test
25
Q
  1. Type of quality control sample used to evaluate the effects of sample matrices on the
    performance of an analytical method.
    A. Matrix duplicate
    B. Matrix spike
    C. Method blank
    D. Reagent blank
A

B. Matrix spike

25
Q
  1. Which of the following focuses on Quality Management Systems?
    A. IS0 9001
    B. ISO 17025
    C. ISO 15189
    D. GLP
A

A. IS0 9001

25
Q
  1. The quantity of material which is assumed to represent a single population for sampling
    purposes.
    A. Bulk material
    B. Lot
    C. Segment
    D. Batch
26
Q
  1. An analysis of ore assays about 1.5% iron. What minimum sample mass should be taken if
    the relative error resulting from a 0.5-mg loss is not to exceed -0.2%?
    A. 16.7 mg
    B. 17 mg
    C. 17 g
    D. 16 g
26
Q
  1. It is a part of quality system that includes laboratory operations whose objective is to ensure
    that the data generated by the laboratory are of known accuracy to some stated, quantitative
    degree of probability.
    A. Quality Management
    B. Quality Assurance
    C. Quality Control
    D. Quality Manual
A

C. Quality Control

27
Q
  1. Locating the adulterated portion of the lot for sampling is an example of _____.
    A. random sampling
    B. selective sampling
    C. composite sampling
    D. stratified sampling
A

B. selective sampling

27
Q
  1. Method consisting a set of instructions issued by a national standards body.
    A. Standard method
    B. Primary method
    C. Regulatory method
    D. Validated method
A

A. Standard method

28
Q
  1. What is the name of RA 6969?
    A. Toxic Substances Control Act
    B. Toxic Substances and Hazardous Wastes Control Act
    C. Toxic Substances and Hazardous and Nuclear Wastes Control Act
    D. Toxic Substances and Hazardous and Nuclear Wastes Management Control Act
A

C. Toxic Substances and Hazardous and Nuclear Wastes Control Act

28
Q
  1. The responsibilities of chemists and chemical technicians embodied in the Code of Ethics
    include all EXCEPT
    A. They are expected to be stewards of the environment by following the laws, rules and
    regulations pertaining to chemical wastes management and disposal.
    B. They shall undertake the professional practice of Chemistry only when in possession of a
    valid COR and ID issued by the Board and the Commission.
    C. All Chemistry practitioners are obliged to maintain active membership in the Accredited
    Professional Organization (APO) for the Chemistry profession, and to participate in the activities
    of the latter.
    D. None of the above.
28
Q
  1. Type of analysis where the amounts of all constituents in the samples are determined.
    A. Complete (or ultimate) analysis
    B. Partial analysis
    C. Elemental analysis
    D. Proximate analysis
A

A. Complete (or ultimate) analysis

29
Q
  1. Which of the following correctly describe/s the detection limit?
    I. Concentration that gives a readout level that is more than the electrical noise level inherent in
    the baseline.
    II. It is the smallest concentration that can be determined with a reasonable degree of precision.
    III. A qualitative parameter in the sense that it is the minimum concentration that can be
    detected, but not precisely determined.
    IV. It would tell the analyst that the element is present, but not necessarily at a precisely
    determinable concentration level.
    A. II and III
    B. I, III, and IV
    C. II, III, and IV
    D. III only
A

B. I, III, and IV

29
Q
  1. According to Revised DAO 04-36, the appropriate waste labels shall Include
    A. Generator ID Number
    B. Volume of Waste
    C. Container Material
    D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

29
Q
  1. It is a detailed written instruction to achieve uniformity in the performance of a specific
    function.
    A. Standard method
    B. Protocol
    C. Standard operating procedure
    D. Analytical procedure
A

C. Standard operating procedure

29
Q
  1. Analytical methods or instruments’ performance aim for
    A. Low signal-to-noise ratio
    B. High variability
    C. Low dynamic range
    D. High signal-to-noise ratio
A

D. High signal-to-noise ratio

29
Q
  1. It accounts for all the other components in the mixture that are not under investigation.
    A. Analyte
    B. Matrix
    C. Measurand
    D. Test
29
Q
  1. When qualifying a working standard, what is the best type of reagent to use?
    A. Reagent grade
    B. Technical grade
    C. Primary standard
    D. Analytical grade
A

C. Primary standard

30
Q
  1. Requirements of a primary standard.
    A. High Purity, 99.9% or better
    B. Stability in air
    C. Absence of hydrate water
    D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

30
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most appropriate container for hexane?
    A. glass bottle
    B. amber bottle
    C. plastic bottle
    D. none of these
A

B. amber bottle

30
Q
  1. The following acids and acid mixtures can be collected and placed in glass containers
    EXCEPT for
    A. Sulfuric acid
    B. Hydrofluoric acid
    C. Aqua regia
    D. Hydrochloric acid
A

B. Hydrofluoric acid

30
Q
  1. What type of container should be used when handling or storing hydrogen fluoride?
    A. Glass
    B. Polyethylene
    C. Cast iron
    D. Alloys containing silica
A

B. Polyethylene

31
Q
  1. Glass container is NOT suitable for
    A. oil and grease determination
    B. microbiological analyses
    C. all of the choices
    D. inorganic trace analyses
A

D. inorganic trace analyses

32
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a proper laboratory practice?
    A. wearing of masks and gloves
    B. drying of glassware after washing
    C. tying or braiding long hairs
    D. adding water to strong acid
A

D. adding water to strong acid

33
Q
  1. Which of the following is a treatment for HF burns?
    A. water
    B. Epsom salt
    C. 25% brine solution
    D. calcium gluconate
A

D. calcium gluconate

33
Q
  1. Ammonia solution can be stored with the following chemicals EXCEPT
    A. cyclohexane solution
    B. acetic acid solution
    C. 2-propanol solution
    D. sodium hydroxide solution
A

B. acetic acid solution

33
Q
  1. The following are proper practices in storing materials and equipment EXCEPT ONE.
    A. Avoid storing materials and equipment on top of cabinets.
    B. Label all materials properly.
    C. Store hazardous chemicals inside the fumehood.
    D. Do not expose stored chemicals to heat or direct sunlight.
A

C. Store hazardous chemicals inside the fumehood.

34
Q
  1. When working with concentrated acids except hydrofluoric acid, which of the following
    statements are TRUE?
    I.
    II.
    III.
    Gloves covering the whole arm or nitrile gloves should be worn.
    Half- or full-faced masks with gas- and/or vapor removing respirators should be worn
    Wearing safety boots or foot covering is optional as long as tie person is working under
    the hood.
    IV. Wearing of apron is optional as long as laboratory gown is worn.
    A. I and II
    B. II and III
    C. All of the choices
A

A. I and II

35
Q
  1. If a fire extinguisher has a red body and a blue band, what is its content?
    A. Foam type
    B. Dry chemical type
    C. Carbon dioxide
    D. Halon substitute
A

A. Foam type

36
Q
  1. Which of the following are possible routes of exposure of the hazardous effects of waste?
    A. Inhalation
    B. Dermal
    C. Ingestion
    D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

36
Q
  1. A solid waste management practice which refers to the controlled decomposition or organic
    matter by microorganisms, mainly bacteria and fungi, into a humus-like product.
    A. Composting
    B. Recycling
    C. Bioremediation
    D. Reducing
A

A. Composting

37
Q
  1. In handling ethers, the following practices are correct except for one.
    A. Distill these substances to dryness to remove peroxides that were possibly formed from air
    autoxidation.
    B. Ferrous salts or sodium bisulfite can be used to decompose peroxides formed by these
    substances.
    C. Passage over basic active alumina can remove most of the peroxidic material.
    D. Dispose old or expired ethers
A

A. Distill these substances to dryness to remove peroxides that were possibly formed from air
autoxidation.

38
Q
  1. What is the type of chemical that can cause an allergic reaction in the airways following
    inhalation?
    A. Corrosive
    B. Respiratory sensitizer
    C. Oxidizer
    D. Carcinogen
A

B. Respiratory sensitizer

39
Q
  1. In order to property maintain chemical laboratory equipment one should perform the
    following EXCEPT
    A. place the equipment in hot humid location
    B. regular calibration of equipment
    C. regular Inspection of operational components
    D. thorough cleaning with the proper materials
A

A. place the equipment in hot humid location

40
Q
  1. It is a hazardous waste characteristic which applies to wastes that have the potential to
    contaminate groundwater if improperly disposed of. These materials are regulated as hazardous
    waste due to their potential to leach out specific toxic substances in a landfill.
    A. Reactivity
    B. Corrosivity
    C. Toxicity
    D. Ignitability
A

C. Toxicity

asd (9 decks)

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