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AnaChem Part 1&2 - 2023 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following is an extensive property of matter?
    A. density
    B. viscosity
    C. freezing point
    D. number of moles
A

D. number of moles

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2
Q
  1. Metals and solutions of electrolytes are _____.
    A. insulators
    B. polar
    C. negative
    D. conductors
A

D. conductors

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3
Q
  1. Mothballs are used as deodorizers and as pesticides. Upon exposing them in the air for a few
    hours, they disappeared. Which of the following best explains the scenario?
    A. The mothballs underwent sublimation.
    B. The mothballs underwent melting then vaporization.
    C. The mothballs reacted with some component in the air.
    D. None of the above.
A

A. The mothballs underwent sublimation

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following is described as having components that CANNOT be physically
    separated?
    A. mixture
    B. solution
    C. suspension
    D. pure substance
A

D. pure substance

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE for C-13 isotope?
    A. It has 6 neutron and 7 protons.
    B. It has 6 protons and 7 neutrons.
    C. It has 6 neutron and 13 protons.
    D. It has 6 protons and 13 neutrons.
A

B. It has 6 protons and 7 neutrons.

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5
Q
  1. Express the number 0.051065 to four significant figures.
    A. 0.051
    B. 0.051
    C. 0.05106
    D. 0.0511
A

C. 0.05106

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5
Q
  1. A prediction or a possible explanation to the question or problem which can be tested in an
    experiment is called
    A. hypothesis
    B. procedure
    C. graph
    D. data
A

A. hypothesis

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6
Q
  1. From left to right in a periodic table
    A. atomic radius increases
    B. ionization energy decreases
    C. electronegativity increases
    D. none of the above
A

C. electronegativity increases

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following does NOT describe a nonpolar bond?
    A. It is a bond between similar nonmetals.
    B. It is a bond between different nonmetals.
    C. It has a dipole moment.
    D. All describes a nonpolar bond.
A

C. It has a dipole moment.

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7
Q
  1. Noble gases are inert because they have completed outer electron shells. Which of these
    elements is NOT a noble gas?
    A. Chlorine
    B. Krypton
    C. Helium
    D. Argon
A

A. Chlorine

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7
Q
  1. The volume of a liquid is 20.5 mL. Which of the following sets of measurement represents the
    value with good accuracy?
    A. 19.2 mL, 19.3 mL, 18.8 mL, 18.6 mL
    B. 18.9 mL, 19.0 mL, 19.2 mL, 18.8 mL
    C. 18.6 mL, 17.8 mL, 19.6 mL, 17.2 mL
    D. 20.2 mL, 20.5 mL, 20.3 mL, 20.1 m
A

D. 20.2 mL, 20.5 mL, 20.3 mL, 20.1 m

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8
Q
  1. What is the most common isotope of Hydrogen?
    A. Hydrogen only has one isotope
    B. Deuterium
    C. Tritium
    D. Protium
A

D. Protium

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9
Q
  1. Under the Lewis concept of acid and bases, an acid is
    A. an electron pair donor
    B. a proton acceptor
    C. a proton donor
    D. an electron pair acceptor
A

D. an electron pair acceptor

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following is the correct composition of aqua regia?
    A. 1 HNO3 : 3 HCl
    B. 3 HNO3 : 1 HCl
    C. 2 HNO3 : 3 HCl
    D. 3 HNO3 : 2 HCl
A

A. 1 HNO3 : 3 HCl

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10
Q
  1. Sodium carbonate is also known as?
    A. baking soda (NaHCO3)
    B. soda ash (Na2CO3)
    C. caustic potash (KOH)
    D. caustic soda (NaOH)
A

B. soda ash (Na2CO3)

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10
Q
  1. When ammonium chloride (NH₄Cl) hydrolyzes, the resulting solution is ____.
    A. acidic
    B. basic
    C. neutral
    D. none of the choices
A

A. acidic

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following is the closest to being an ideal gas?
    A. Oxygen
    B. Nitrogen
    C. Helium
    D. Hydrogen
A

C. Helium

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT an acid?
    A. milk of magnesia
    B. apple juice
    C. milk
    D. gastric juice
A

A. milk of magnesia

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11
Q

D. caustic soda (NaOH)
22. The standard pressure of the atmosphere at sea level is
A. 1 atm
B. 760 mm Hg
C. 760 torr
D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

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12
Q
  1. What is the molar mass or an unknown gas if 1.60 grams of that gas occupies a volume of
    2.24 L at STP?
    A. 35.8 g/mol
    B. 160 g/mol
    C. 16.0 g/mol
    D. 81.0 g/mol
A

C. 16.0 g/mo

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12
Q
  1. What happens to the volume of a fully inflated balloon when it is taken outside on a cold
    day?
    A. its volume decreases
    B. its volume increases
    C. it remains the same
    D. its volume becomes equal to zero
A

A. its volume decreases

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13
Q
  1. What is the molarity of a solution containing 72.9 grams of HCI in enough water to make
    500 mL of solution?
    A. 2.0 mol/L
    B. 4.05 g/L
    C. 5.0 mol/L
    D. 4.05 mol/L
A

D. 4.05 mol/L

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14
Q
  1. When Chromium changes from an oxidation state of +3 to +6, Cr³⁺ or Cr(III) must
    A. gain 6 electrons
    B. lose 6 electrons
    C. lose 3 electrons
    D. gain 3 electrons
A

C. lose 3 electrons

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15
Q
  1. During the electroplating of silver, silver ions in solution _____.
    A. are oxidized at the anode
    B. are oxidized at the cathode
    C. are reduced at the cathode
    D. remain in solution unchanged
A

C. are reduced at the cathode

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16
Q
  1. In an electrolytic cell, oxidation occurs
    A. at the anode
    B. between the cathode and the anode
    C. at either the cathode or the anode
    D. at the cathode
A

A. at the anode

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16
Q
  1. Which is also equivalent to 0.01% percent by weight?
    A. 100 ppm
    B. 10 ppt
    C. 1 ppt
    D. 1 ppb
A

A. 100 ppm

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16
Q
  1. Determine the actual volume contained in a 50.0 mL volumetric flask given the following
    data. Mass of water 50.1227 g, Density of water at 25C 0.99707 g/mL
    A. 50.27 mL
    B. 50.37 mL
    C. 50.17 mL
    D. 50.45 mL
A

A. 50.27 mL

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17
Q
  1. For the reaction Mg + H₂O ⟶ MgO + H₂ which is FALSE?
    a. H is the oxidizing agent
    b. Mg lost electrons
    c. Mg is the oxidizing agent
    D. H gained electrons
A

c. Mg is the oxidizing agent

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17
Q
  1. What volume of 4M HCl is needed to prepare 1L of a 0.5 M dilute solution?
    A. 0.0125 L
    B. 0.125 L
    C. 0.0875 L
    D. 0.875 L
A

B. 0.125 L

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18
Q
  1. The water content of an 875.4-mg sample of cheese was determined with a moisture
    analyzer. What is the %w/w H₂O in the cheese if the final mass was found to be 545.8 mg?
    A. 35.23%
    B. 30.69%
    C. 31.45%
    D. 37.65%
A

D. 37.65%

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19
Q
  1. The maximum holding time for acid preserved samples that will be subjected to
    determination of metals is
    A. 48 hours
    B. 3 months
    C. 6 months
    D. 1 week
A

C. 6 months

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19
Q
  1. What is the normality of a 5.0 M sulfuric acid?
    A. 2.5 N
    B. 5.0 N
    C. 7.5 N
    D. 10.0 N
A

D. 10.0 N

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20
Q
  1. Which of the following is a primary standard for use in standardizing bases?
    A. Acetic acid
    B. Sulfuric acid
    C. Potassium hydrogen phthalate
    D. Ammonium hydroxide
A

C. Potassium hydrogen phthalate

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21
Q
  1. Glass container is NOT suitable for
    A. oil and grease determination
    B. microbiological analyses
    C. all of the choices
    D. inorganic trace analyses
A

D. inorganic trace analyses

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22
Q
  1. According to Revised DAO 04-36, the appropriate waste labels shall Include
    A. Generator ID Number
    B. Volume of Waste
    C. Container Material
    D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

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22
Q
  1. What Is the main ISO Standard used by testing and calibration laboratories to gain
    accreditation and formal of their competence to carry out tests and/or calibrations, including
    sampling?
    A. ISO/IEC 17025
    B. EURACHEM
    C. AOAC
    D. ISO 9000:2000
A

A. ISO/IEC 17025

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23
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most accurate apparatus in measuring 8.55 mL of liquid?
    A. 1 mL graduated cylinder
    B. 100 mL graduated cylinder
    C. 10 mL pipet
    D. 50 mL beaker
A

C. 10 mL pipet

24
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a proper laboratory practice?
    A. wearing of masks and gloves
    B. drying of glassware after washing
    C. tying or braiding long hairs
    D. adding water to strong acid
A

D. adding water to strong acid

25
Q
  1. Minimum concentration of a substance that can be measured and reported with confidence at
    the analyte concentration is greater than zero refers to _________.
    A. Lower Warning Limit
    B. Method Detection Limit
    C. Control Limit
    D. Limit of Quantitation
A

B. Method Detection Limit

25
Q
  1. How many electrons can fit in the fourth main shell?
    A. 4
    B. 8
    C. 16
    D. 32
A

D. 32

26
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most appropriate container for hexane?
    A. glass bottle
    B. amber bottle
    C. plastic bottle
    D. none of these
A

B. amber bottle

27
Q
  1. The fire triangle consists of which of the following?
    A. Oxygen, Heat, Material
    B. Air, Heat. Fire
    C. Air, Fuel, Spark
    D. Oxygen, Heat, Fuel
A

D. Oxygen, Heat, Fuel

27
Q
  1. Which of the following focuses on Quality Management Systems?
    A. IS0 9001
    B. ISO 17025
    C. ISO 15189
    D. GLP
A

A. IS0 9001

28
Q
  1. Which Is TRUE about laboratory hoods?
    A. Provides further protection by diluting low of flammable gases below explosion limits.
    B. It protects you from being exposed in chemical fume.
    C. Must always be on
    D. All of the above.
A

D. All of the above.

29
Q
  1. There is a definite correlation between orderliness and level of safety in the laboratory. In
    addition, a disorderly laboratory can hinder or endanger emergency response personnel. Which
    of the following housekeeping rules should NOT be adhered to?
    A. Never obstruct access to exits and emergency equipment.
    B. Properly label and store all chemicals.
    C. Store chemical containers on the floor.
    D. Clean work areas, including floors, regularly.
A

C. Store chemical containers on the floor.

29
Q
  1. Consider that you are working with vitamin C table production, to which standard’s should
    your quality management should subscribe?
    A. GMP
    B. HACCP
    C. ISO 9001:2008
    D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

29
Q
  1. How many significant figures does the universal gas constant (R = 0.0821 L⋅atm/mol⋅K)?
    A. 3
    B. 4
    C. 5
    D. infinite
A

D. infinite

30
Q
  1. Which does NOT correspond to the electron configuration below?
    1s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^2 3p^6
    A. K⁺
    B. Cl⁻
    C. S²⁻
    D. None of the above.
A

D. None of the above.

31
Q
  1. Which of the following elements has greater electron affinity than oxygen?
    A. sulfur
    B. carbon
    C. neon
    D. fluorine
A

D. fluorine

32
Q
  1. Which molecular geometry has the greatest bond angle?
    A. linear
    B. tetrahedral
    C. octahedral
    D. trigonal bipyramidal
A

A. linear

33
Q

A. linear
Pb(CIO)4
A. plumbous perchlorate
B. plumbic perchlorate
C. plumbous hypochlorite
D. plumbic hypochlorite

A

D. plumbic hypochlorite

34
Q
  1. What is the chemical formula of nitrous acid?
    A. HN₃
    B. HNO₂
    C. HNO₃
    D. H₂NO₃
A

B. HNO₂

35
Q
  1. From left to right across the periodic table
    A. atomic radius increases
    B. ionization energy decreases
    C. electronegativity decreases
    D. atomic radius decreases
A

D. atomic radius decreases

35
Q
  1. What is the other name for oil of vitriol?
    A. paraffin
    B. olefin
    C. sulfuric acid
    D. wax
A

C. sulfuric acid

35
Q
  1. From top to bottom down the periodic table
    A. change in atomic radius cannot be predicted
    B. ionization energy increases
    C. electronegativity decreases
    D. atomic radius decreases
A

C. electronegativity decreases

36
Q
  1. Alcohols and carboxylic acids have –OH groups. What type of chemical bonding occurs
    between the oxygen and hydrogen atoms?
    A. ionic
    B. polar covalent
    C. hydrogen
    D. non-polar covalent
A

B. polar covalent

36
Q
  1. It is a result of instantaneous dipole in a non-polar molecule?
    A. Van der Waals forces
    B. Dipole-dipole interaction
    C. Ion-dipole interaction
    D. Hydrogen bonding
A

A. Van der Waals forces

37
Q
  1. Which among the following compounds has the lowest boiling point?
    A. decanol
    B. lauric acid
    C. toluene
    D. benzene
A

D. benzene

37
Q
  1. What IMFA is/are present in the compound indicated below?
    H3C(CH2)3CHO
    A. Van der Waals forces only
    B. Dipole-dipole interactions only
    C. Van der Waals and dipole-dipole interactions
    D. Van der Waals, dipole-dipole interactions, and hydrogen bonding
A

C. Van der Waals and dipole-dipole interactions

37
Q
  1. A 30-L gas initially has 110 kPa and 147°C. If its volume become 40 L and the pressure
    increased to 120 kPa, what is the new temperature (°C)?
    A. 65
    B. 214
    C. 338
    D. 611
A

C. 338

37
Q
  1. A cylinder containing a gas is compressed to half its original volume. What will happen to its
    pressure at constant temperature?
    A. doubled
    B. halved
    C. no effect
    D. cannot be determined
A

A. doubled

38
Q
  1. Based on the previous problem, how many grams of water vapor will be formed?
    A. 48.4 g
    B. 22.6 g
    C. 32.3 g
    D. 21.4 g
A

B. 22.6 g

38
Q

For numbers 18-19. Nitrogen gas can be prepared by passing gaseous ammonia over solid copper (II) oxide at high temperatures. The other products of the reaction are solid copper and water vapor as shown in the reaction below:
NH3(g)+CuO(s) —->
N2(g)+Cu(s)+H2O(g)

  1. If 30.5 g of NH3 is reacted with 99.7g of CuO, how much excess reactant will remain?
    A. 16.3 g
    B. 14.2 g
    C. 7.9 g
    D. 9.1 g
A

A. 16.3 g

38
Q
  1. What is the pressure (atm) of hydrogen if it has 0.412 mol at 16°C in a 3.25 L?
    A. 1
    B. 2
    C. 3
    D. 4
A

C. 3

38
Q
  1. What is the molarity of 37% w/w hydrochloric acid? The density of 37% w/w HCl is 1.18
    g/mL.
    A. 10 M
    B. 37 M
    C. 12 M
    D. 8 M
A

C. 12 M

39
Q
  1. Which of the following is a chemical reaction?
    A. an air conditioner cooling the air
    B. none of these choices
    C. bleaching your clothes
    D. melting of ice
A

C. bleaching your clothes

39
Q
  1. A polar solute usually dissolves in a polar solvent and a nonpolar solute usually dissolves in a
    nonpolar solvent. This is
    A. the solubility rule
    B. the “like dissolves like” rule
    C. Henry’s law
    D. Hund’s rule
A

B. the “like dissolves like” rule

40
Q
  1. A white powder is analyzed and found to contain 43.64% phosphorus and 56.36% oxygen by
    mass. The compound has a molar mass of 283.88 g. What is the molecular formula of the
    a. P2O5
    b. P4O10
A

b. P4O10

41
Q
  1. How much of a 2.0 M stock solution do you need to prepare 50 mL of a 1.0 M solution?
    A. 75 mL
    B. 30 mL
    C. 25 mL
    D. 50 mL
A

C. 25 mL

41
Q
  1. How many grams of potassium dichromate is required to prepare 250 mL of 0.1 M solution
    of potassium dichromate? This is solution is an oxidizing agent used in organic chemistry.
    A. 1.18 g
    B. 7.35 g
    C. 6.38 g
    D. 2.94 g
A

B. 7.35 g

41
Q
  1. Under the Brønsted-Lowry concept of acids and bases, a base is a/an
    A. proton donor
    B. proton acceptor
    C. electron pair donor
    D. electron pair acceptor
A

B. proton acceptor B. proton acceptor

41
Q
  1. Determine the concentration of H+ ions in apple cider vinegar if the pH was measured to
    3.57.
    a. 2.7 x 10 -4 M
    b. 3.7 x 10 -3 M
    c. 5.5 x 10 -1 M
    d. 1.3 x 10 -1 M
A

a. 2.7 x 10 -4 M

41
Q
  1. The synthesis of ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen is an exothermic reaction. Which of the following will favor the formation of ammonia?
    A. Decrease in temperature
    B. Increase in temperature
    C. Removal of nitrogen
    D. Addition of ammonia
A

A. Decrease in temperature

42
Q
  1. The following statements are true about pH EXCEPT
    A. it is the negative logarithm of hydrogen ions content in a solution
    B. a measure of the acidity or alkalinity of a solution
    C. a measure of the amount or hydrogen ions in solution
    D. does not change when there are changes in temperature
A

D. does not change when there are changes in temperature

43
Q
  1. In which of the following titrations does pH = 7.0 occur at the equivalence point?
    I. Strong acid/strong base
    II. Weak acid/strong base
    III. Strong acid/weak base
    A. II and III only
    B. III only
    C. I only
    D. II only
A

C. I only

43
Q
  1. A type of analysis in terms of sample size that can resolve fine-scale variations in chemical
    elements, as well as determine the presence and distribution of different phases in materials.
    A. Macro
    B. Semi-macro
    C. Micro
    D. Ultra-micro
A

C. Micro

44
Q
  1. An analyst determines that the analytical balance he used in a given analytical test is wrongly
    calibrated. Determine what type of error is represented.
    A. Systematic error
    B. Random error
    C. Gross error
    D. Cannot be determined
A

A. Systematic error

44
Q
  1. It is a plot of an instrument’s readout vs. concentration, the data for which are the results of measuring a series of standard solutions prepared for the experiment.
    A. Linear range
    B. Calibration curve
    C. Dynamic range
    D. Linear dynamic range
A

B. Calibration curve

44
Q
  1. It is a written program developed and implemented by the employer which sets forth
    procedures, equipment, PPE, and work practices that are capable of protecting employees from the health hazard presented by hazardous chemicals used in the workplace.
    A. Safety Manual
    B. Chemical Hygiene Plan
    C. Safety Rules and Policies
    D. Safety Plan
A

B. Chemical Hygiene Plan

45
Q
  1. It describes the policies and procedures the laboratory has to manage in relation to quality, or
    references where those procedures can be found. An essential requirement of ISO 9000 series of
    standards and ISO 17025.
    A. Quality Assurance
    B. Quality Control
    C. Quality Manual
    D. Documentation
A

C. Quality Manual

46
Q
  1. What is the pH of an acidic waste?
    A. pH ≤ 2
    B. pH ≤ 3
    C. pH ≥ 12.5
    D. pH = 7
A

A. pH ≤ 2

47
Q
  1. It is a hazardous waste characteristic which applies to waste liquids with a flash point less
    than 140°C or solids capable of spontaneous combustion under normal temperature and pressure.
    A. Ignitability
    B. Reactivity
    C. Corrosivity
    D. Toxicity
A

A. Ignitability

47
Q
  1. This type of method consists of a set of instructions about how to carry out a method issued
    by a national standards body and legislated by the national government to become mandatory.
    A. Standard method
    B. Regulatory method
    C. Reference method
    D. Validated method
A

B. Regulatory method

47
Q
  1. In starting-up laboratory operations, the following should be observed except.
    A. Turning on the hoods, vents, and exhaust fans.
    B. Turning the equipment and instruments on.
    C. Performing analysis immediately.
    D. Monitoring operating parameters.
A

C. Performing analysis immediately.

47
Q
  1. The following groups are known to be peroxide-forming compounds EXCEPT
    A. Ethers with primary and/or secondary alkyl groups.
    B. Hydrocarbons with allylic, benzylic, or propargylic hydrogens.
    C. Conjugated dienes, eneynes, and diynes.
    D. All are peroxide-formers.
A

D. All are peroxide-formers.

48
Q
  1. What hazards are represented by a GHS pictogram with a flame over circle symbol?
    A. Flammable and self-reactive substances
    B. Oxidizers, organic peroxides
    C. Carcinogens
    D. Explosives
A

B. Oxidizers, organic peroxides

48
Q
  1. The following are good sampling practices EXCEPT
    A. Take several increments and composite them to form the sample.
    B. If possible, mix the material before getting the sample.
    C. Collect the sample in a container made of material that will chemically react with the sample.
    D. Sample frequently enough to allow for the identification of process cycles.
A

C. Collect the sample in a container made of material that will chemically react with the sample.

48
Q
  1. It is a graph showing the time-dependent change in the results of an analysis that is used to
    monitor whether an analysis is in a state of statistical control.
    A. Calibration curve
    B. Standard Curve
    C. QC chart
    D. Monitoring chart
A

C. QC chart

48
Q
  1. This refers to a person who produces hazardous wastes, through any institutional,
    commercial, industrial, or trade activities.
    A. Waste generator
    B. Waste treater
    C. Waste transporter
    D. Pollution Control Officer
A

A. Waste generator

48
Q
  1. A clean sample (e.g. distilled water) processed through the instrumental steps or the
    measurement process to determine instrument contamination.
    A. Method blank
    B. Instrumental blank
    C. Surrogate
    D. Reagent blank
A

B. Instrumental blank

49
Q
  1. An exposure limit that indicates the maximum average concentration to which workers can
    safely be exposed for a normal 8-hr workday or 48-hr workweek.
    A. Time weighted average (TWA)
    B. Short-term exposure limit (STEL)
    C. Ceiling (C)
    D. Immediately dangerous to life or health (IDLH)
A

A. Time weighted average (TWA)

49
Q
  1. This refers to a single sample or measurement taken at specific time or over a short period as
    feasible.
    A. Grab sample
    B. Composite sample
    C. Laboratory sample
    D. None of the above
A

A. Grab sample

asd (9 decks)

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