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JC - ADI ORAL > ORAL Sheet > Flashcards

ORAL Sheet Flashcards

1
Q

What services does an Aerodrome Control unit provide?

A
  • Aerodrome Control Service
  • Basic Service
  • Alerting Service
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2
Q

What does Aerodrome Control issue to aircraft under its control?

A

Information and instructions

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3
Q

Who does Aerodrome Control prevent collisions between?

A
  • Aircraft flying in the vicinity of the ATZ
  • Aircraft taking-off and landing
  • Aircraft and vehicles, obstructions, and other aircraft on the manoeuvring area
  • Aircraft on the apron
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4
Q

What are the two divisions of Aerodrome Control?

A
  • Air Control
  • Ground Movement Control
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5
Q

What are specific responsibilities of an Aerodrome Controller?

A
  • Notifying emergency services as per local instructions
  • Informing aircraft of depletion of emergency services
  • Providing Approach Control Service when delegated
  • Supplying pertinent data to Approach Control
  • Informing the Aerodrome Operator of deterioration in aerodrome conditions
  • Initiating overdue action at aerodromes without Approach Control
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6
Q

True or False: Aerodrome Control may issue instructions that reduce separation established by Approach Control.

A

False

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7
Q

What does Aerodrome Control coordinate with Approach Control?

A
  • Departing IFR flights
  • Arriving aircraft making their first call on the tower frequency
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8
Q

What does Approach Control coordinate with Aerodrome Control?

A
  • Aircraft approaching to land
  • Arriving aircraft cleared to visual holding points
  • Aircraft routeing through the traffic circuit
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9
Q

When is the responsibility for control of a departing aircraft transferred from Aerodrome to Approach?

A
  • VMC – prior to leaving the aerodrome vicinity or entering IMC
  • IMC – immediately after airborne
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10
Q

When may VFR clearance no longer be given in Class D airspace?

A

Ground visibility less than 5km and/or cloud ceiling of less than 1500ft

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11
Q

Where can a comprehensive list of LVP procedures be found?

A

CAP 168

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12
Q

True or False: Controllers must inform pilots when LVPs are no longer in place.

A

True

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13
Q

When is traffic information passed?

A

Whenever necessary for safety or when requested by a pilot

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14
Q

What traffic information is provided?

A
  • Generic traffic information for VFR pilots
  • Specific traffic information for the stage of flight
  • Timely instructions to prevent collisions
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15
Q

What significant changes must aircraft be made aware of?

A
  • Met and runway conditions
  • Essential aerodrome information
  • Operational status of approach and landing aids
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16
Q

What is Essential Aerodrome Information?

A

Information concerning the state of the manoeuvring area that may constitute a hazard

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17
Q

What is included in Essential Aerodrome Information?

A
  • Construction work on the manoeuvring area
  • Rough or broken portions of the manoeuvring area
  • Failure of the aerodrome lighting system
  • Failure of approach aids
  • Aircraft parked near runways
  • Water, snow, slush, ice, or frost on surfaces
  • Information on anti-icing or de-icing chemicals
  • Bird formations on the manoeuvring area
  • Local status of arrestor gear installation
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18
Q

What should be done to all ground movement if emergency vehicles need to attend a situation?

A

Movement of surface traffic should be halted until it’s determined that emergency vehicles can proceed

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19
Q

What defines the protected area of a surface for aircraft take-off and landing?

A

The existence and location of the runway strip, clear area, obstacle free zone, and ILS sensitive areas

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20
Q

What information is given when an aircraft requests start-up or taxi clearance?

A
  • Runway in use
  • Surface wind
  • QNH
  • Outside air temperature (turbine)
  • Significant met conditions
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21
Q

True or False: Heavy aircraft may be cleared for immediate take-off.

A

False

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22
Q

Can a stop bar remain off if giving a conditional line-up to an aircraft departing from the same holding point as the preceding aircraft?

A

Yes

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23
Q

When may multiple line-ups from different holding points be used?

A
  • During daylight
  • All aircraft visible to the controller
  • All aircraft on the same RTF frequency
  • Pilots advised of the departure sequence
  • Runway characteristics do not obscure visibility
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24
Q

What word must feature in the response when a pilot requests the instant wind?

A

Instant

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25
Q

What shall revised clearance or post-departure instructions be prefixed with when an aircraft is lined up on the runway?

A

Hold position

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26
Q

When giving the instruction ‘immediate take-off’, what is expected from the pilot?

A
  • Taxi immediately onto the runway and commence take-off without stopping
  • If already lined up, take-off without delay
  • Advise controller if not possible
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27
Q

If take-off clearance has to be cancelled after the take-off run has commenced, what should the pilot do?

A

Stop immediately and acknowledge

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28
Q

At what height shall an overhead join take place?

A

2000ft above aerodrome elevation, in VMC

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29
Q

When can land after clearances be issued?

A
  • Runway long enough for safe separation
  • During daylight
  • Preceding aircraft not required to backtrack
  • Controller satisfied that landing aircraft can see preceding aircraft
  • Pilot of following aircraft warned
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30
Q

What may the ATM be used for?

A
  • Determining landing order and spacing
  • Assisting in longitudinal separation of departing aircraft
  • Confirming initial track of departing aircraft
  • Providing information on position of other aircraft
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31
Q

If approved by CAA, what else might an ATM be used for?

A
  • Validating SSR codes of departing aircraft
  • Monitoring overflying aircraft to avoid conflicts
  • Establishing separation between departing aircraft
  • Passing traffic information
  • Establishing separation during missed approaches
  • Taking corrective action when separation is less than prescribed minima
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32
Q

What is required for specific ATM uses?

A
  • Controller has undertaken specific training
  • Controller is providing an Air Control Service
  • Procedures detailed in MATS 2
33
Q

When is runway-in-use selected with light and variable wind?

A

2000ft wind

34
Q

What is taken into consideration when selecting a runway-in-use?

A
  • Traffic pattern
  • Length of runway
  • Approach aids available
  • Met conditions
  • Noise abatement
35
Q

When is noise abatement not the determining factor in runway notification?

A
  • Crosswind component exceeds 15kt
  • Tailwind component exceeds 5kt
36
Q

What is the phraseology used when there is a tailwind?

A
  • (Callsign) tailwind (XX) knots, report your intentions
  • (Callsign) caution tailwind, report your intentions
37
Q

Who is informed about a runway change?

A
  • Approach Control
  • Aircraft under control
  • Aerodrome Fire Service
  • Contractors affected by the change
  • Other agencies according to local instructions
38
Q

What should be done when an operational occurrence causes an obstruction in the runway vicinity?

A
  • Withhold take-off and landing clearance if obstruction is within cleared area
  • Advise pilots of reason for withholding clearance if there’s doubt
39
Q

Who is responsible for continuing operations if an obstruction is outside the cleared area?

A

The pilot

40
Q

When must a runway inspection take place?

A

Following any incident involving tyre failure, structural failure, or engine malfunction

41
Q

Where can you find the requirements for aerodrome lighting?

A

CAP 168

42
Q

When may runway lighting not be temporarily switched off if RVR reference lights are in use?

A
  • While an aircraft is taking off
  • After an aircraft has reported completing a final procedure turn
  • After an aircraft has reached 5nm from touchdown
43
Q

When should controllers be alert to the possibility of windshear?

A
  • Presence of frontal/squall/thunderstorm activity
  • Low-level inversions causing significant wind differences
  • Local terrain or buildings causing windshear
44
Q

What should a controller expect if a pilot executes a missed approach due to windshear?

A
  • Aircraft exceeding missed approach altitude
  • Enhanced traffic information to be provided
45
Q

What happens when a pilot reports windshear?

A

Information shall be relayed to subsequent inbound and outbound aircraft until condition no longer exists

46
Q

How are RWYCC designated?

A

0-6

47
Q

Which helicopters are exempt from VFR weather restrictions?

A
  • Police
  • Helimed
  • SAR
  • Power lines or Electricity
48
Q

What is a runway incursion?

A

Any occurrence at an aerodrome involving the incorrect presence of an aircraft, vehicle, or person on a designated surface

49
Q

What are the uses of Surface Movement Radar?

A
  • To monitor movements of aircraft and vehicles on the manoeuvring area
  • To provide advice for safe and efficient movement
50
Q

How can identification be achieved on SMR?

A
  • Correlating position of visually observed aircraft/vehicle to SMR
  • Correlating identified SMR position from another ATS source
  • Correlating SMR position complying with ATC instruction
  • Correlating SMR position to reported aircraft/vehicle
  • Correlating displayed SMR position to aircraft/vehicle position
51
Q

What are the appropriate periods of display for aerodrome lighting during the day?

A

Whenever visibility is less than 5km and/or cloud base is less than 700ft

52
Q

What action should be taken upon receipt of a report of a laser attack?

A
  • Acknowledge the report
  • Seek information including time, altitude, and position
  • Anticipate need for pilot to adopt maneuvers
  • Inform the police
  • Warn pilots of laser in vicinity
  • Record details in ATC watch log and complete MOR
53
Q

What is prevailing visibility?

A

The visibility value reached or exceeded within at least half the horizon circle or surface of the aerodrome

54
Q

When shall minimum visibility be reported?

A

Where visibility in any direction is less than prevailing visibility and less than 1500m or less than 50% of prevailing visibility

55
Q

How many surface inspections should take place per day?

A

At least one

56
Q

What is the phraseology for windshear?

A

(Callsign), a landing (A/C Type) at (time of report) reported windshear at 300ft with loss of 10kts and strong left drift

57
Q

What is the definition of a DRY runway?

A

The surface is not affected by water, slush, snow, or ice

58
Q

What is the definition of a DAMP runway?

A

The surface shows a change of colour due to moisture

59
Q

What is the definition of a WET runway?

A

The surface is soaked but no significant patches

60
Q

What is the definition of WATER PATCHES?

A

Significant patches of standing water reported when more than 25% of the area is covered by water more than 3mm deep

61
Q

What is the definition of FLOODED?

A

Extensive patches of standing water reported when more than 50% of the area is covered by water more than 3mm deep

62
Q

How is braking action reported?

A
  • Good
  • Good-Medium
  • Medium
  • Medium-Poor
  • Poor
63
Q

What are the departure separations from the runway?

A
  • 1 Minute – tracks diverging by 45 degrees or more immediately after take-off
  • 2 Minutes – Preceding aircraft has filed a TAS 40kts or more faster
  • 5 Minutes – Preceding aircraft is 20kts or more faster
  • 10 Minutes
64
Q

What are the two methods of assessing RVR?

A
  • Instrumented RVR
  • Human Observer Method
65
Q

What are Wake Turbulence separations following a Super arrival?

A
  • Heavy – 6 miles
  • LM/UM – 7 miles
  • Small – 7 miles
  • Light – 8 miles
66
Q

What are the different flight priorities?

A
  • A: Emergencies
  • B: SAR, post-accident flights, police
  • C: Royal flights/heads of state
  • D: Heads of government or senior ministers
  • E: Calibration flights
  • NORMAL: Normal flight plan flights
  • Z: Training
67
Q

What are the VMC Minima for Class D by day?

A
  • Above FL100: 1500m horizontal, 1000ft vertically, visibility 8km
  • Below FL100 and above 3000ft AMSL or 1000ft terrain: 1500m horizontal, 1000ft vertically, visibility 5km
  • At and below 3000ft AMSL or 1000ft terrain: 1500m horizontal, 1000ft vertical, visibility 5km
68
Q

What is the validity period of CAS(T)?

A

15 minutes before ETD to 30 minutes after ETA

ETD stands for Estimated Time of Departure and ETA stands for Estimated Time of Arrival.

69
Q

When are surface inspections carried out? List at least three scenarios.

A
  • Daylight/before flying commences
  • Cessation of WIP
  • Following an accident

WIP stands for Work In Progress.

70
Q

What is a Visual Approach?

A

An IFR flight flying with visual reference to the surface

71
Q

When may a Visual Approach be allowed? List the conditions.

A
  • Reported cloud ceiling is at or above the level of the beginning of the initial approach segment
  • Pilot reports visibility will permit a visual approach and landing

IFR stands for Instrument Flight Rules.

72
Q

What are the Special VFR Minima in Class D airspace?

A
  • Cloud ceiling not below 600ft
  • Remain COCSIS
  • IAS of 140kts or less
  • Visibility of 1500m fixed wing and 800m helicopters

COCSIS stands for Clear Of Clouds, Surface In Sight. IAS stands for Indicated Airspeed.

73
Q

What are the RWYCC codes for runway conditions? What does a code of 6 indicate?

A

6 = Dry

RWYCC stands for Runway Condition Code.

74
Q

What are the RWYCC codes from 0 to 6?

A
  • 6 = Dry
  • 5 = Wet up to 3mm
  • 4 = -15 degrees compacted snow
  • 3 = Slippery wet
  • 2 = Standing water more than 3mm
  • 1 = Ice
  • 0 = Wet Ice
75
Q

What are the main reasons for a diversion? List at least three.

A
  • Weather is below Aircraft Operator minima
  • Obstructions on the landing area
  • Failure of airborne equipment

Aircraft Operator minima refer to the minimum weather conditions set by the operator for safe landing.

76
Q

What are the VMC Minima for Class D airspace at and below 3000ft AMSL?

A
  • 1500m horizontal
  • 1000ft vertical
  • Visibility 5km
77
Q

What are the VMC Minima for Class D airspace at Above FL100?

A
  • 1500m horizontal
  • 1000ft vertical
  • Visibility 8km
78
Q

What are the VMC Minima for Class D airspace below FL100 and above 3000ft AMSL?

A
  • 1500m horizontal
  • 1000ft vertical
  • Visibility 5km
79
Q

What is the maximum IAS for aircraft flying in specific conditions?

A

140kts or less

COCSIS applies, with helicopters having a visibility requirement of 1.5km.

JC - ADI ORAL (14 decks)

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