Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

DEN 2027 - Disease Mechanisms > Oral Manifestations > Flashcards

Oral Manifestations Flashcards

1
Q

Describe 4 types of oral manifestation of syphilis

A
  1. Primary
  2. Secondary
  3. Tertiary
  4. Congenital
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What bacterium is responsible for syphilis?

A

Treponema pallidum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is used to treat syphilis?

A

Penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe oral manifestations of primary syphilis

A
  • Primary chancre in mouth
  • Infectious lesion
  • Heals in under 5 weeks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe oral manifestations of secondary syphilis

A
  • Systemic
  • Snail track ulcers
  • Mucosal changes
  • Very infectious
  • Lymphadenopathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe oral manifestations of tertiary syphilis

A
  • Occurs if bacteria present and untreated for long time

- Gumma occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is gumma?

A

Necrotising ulcerative lesion, usually found in the heart palate, which can cause perforation into nasal cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe oral manifestations of congenital syphilis

A
  • Teeth are affected (deciduous teeth usually spared)
  • Smaller teeth than usual
  • Abnormal occlusal surfaces of permanent molars
  • Hutchinson’s incisors (notched)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the main way syphilis is diagnosed?

A

Serology (may need follow up due to short window of primary infection)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Why is dark ground microscopy not used to identify syphilis in the mouth?

A

Commensal treponemes will lead to a false positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What serological technique is used to identify syphilis in the mouth?

A

PCR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What bacterium causes gonorrhoea?

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe the oral manifestations of gonorrhoea

A
  • Oral infection
  • Variable presentation (can be asymptomatic)
  • Can cause pharyngitis and cervical lymphadenopathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How is gonorrhoea diagnosed?

A

PCR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What bacterium is responsible for chlamydia?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How does chlamydia present?

A
  • Long lasting throat discomfort

- Can be asymptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How is chlamydia diagnosed?

A

PCR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How is chlamydia treated?

A

Single dose of azithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What bacterium is responsible for TB?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe the manifestations of TB

A
  • Painful ulcers (esp on tongue) with cervical lymphadenopathy
  • Primary infection usually in lungs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Name 2 methods of diagnosing TB

A
  • Biopsy

- Ziehl-Neelsen staining

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How is TB treated?

A

Antibiotic combination (usually 3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Why is TB treated using several antibiotics?

A

It quickly becomes resistant to antibiotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is an example of an atypical mycobacteria?

A

Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Name 3 oral manifestations of staphylococcus aureus?

A
  • Oral discomfort
  • Mucosal inflammation
  • Mucosal bleeding
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

In what 2 groups of patients is staphylococcus aureus most likely to be found?

A
  1. Elderly

2. Immunocompromised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Name 2 treatments of staphylococcus aureus

A
  1. Oral lavages

2. Antibiotics (flucloxacillin)

28
Q

Name 4 general patterns of viral infections

A
  1. Slow chronic infection
  2. Acute infection - Chronic infection
  3. Acute infection - Latency - Reactivation
  4. Acute infection - Viral clearane
29
Q

Name 5 examples of Herpes viruses

A
  1. Herpes simplex virus
  2. Epstein-Barr virus
  3. Varicella zoster virus
  4. Cytomegalovirus
  5. Human Herpes virus
30
Q

What pattern of viral infections do Herpes Simplex viruses follow?

A

Acute infection - Latency - Reactivation

31
Q

What family do Herpes viruses belong to?

A

Herpesviridae

32
Q

Name 3 subfamilies of Herpes viruses

A
  1. Alpha
  2. Beta
  3. Gamma
33
Q

Name 3 viruses in the α subfamily of Herpes viruses

A
  1. HSV-1
  2. HSV-2
  3. VZV
34
Q

Name 3 viruses in the β subfamily of Herpes viruses

A
  1. CMV
  2. HHV-6
  3. HHV-7
35
Q

Name 2 viruses in the γ subfamily of Herpes viruses

A
  1. EBV

2. HHV-8

36
Q

Name 3 properties of Herpes viruses

A
  1. Spherical enveloped capsid
  2. dsDNA
  3. Replicated in nucleus
37
Q

What is the major difference between HSV-1 and HSV-2?

A

HSV-1 causes both oral and genital infections whereas HSV-2 causes genital infections only

38
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of HSV-1 in the oral cavity

A
  • Primary infection presenting as gingivostomatitis
  • Latency where the virus ascends into the trigeminal ganglion
  • Reactivation presenting as cold sores
39
Q

What is herpes labalis?

A

Recurrent cold sores

40
Q

Where does the HSV-2 virus lie dormant?

A

Sacral ganglion

41
Q

Describe the transmission of HSV-1

A
  • Not very infectious
  • Close contact required
  • Shed for long periods in saliva by people with no symptoms
42
Q

Describe vesicle formation in HSV-1

A
  • Found in mucous membrane or skin
  • Ballooning degeneration of epithelial cells in the prickle cell layer
  • Leads to vesicle formation
43
Q

Name 3 ways in which HSV-1 may present outside the oral cavity

A
  1. Whitlow
  2. Genital
  3. Asymptomatic
44
Q

Name 3 areas outside the oral cavity where HSV reactivation can occur

A
  1. Genital
  2. Herpes keratitis
  3. Encephalitis
45
Q

Name 4 factors which could trigger Herpes labialis

A
  1. Menstruation
  2. Sun exposure
  3. Febrile illness
  4. Stress
46
Q

What is Herpes keratitis?

A

HSV reactivation which infects the cornea of the eye

47
Q

Name 2 primary complications of HSV infections

A
  1. Neonatal infection is often fatal (congenital transmission)
  2. Eczema herpeticum
48
Q

How is the diagnosis of HSV carried out?

A
  • Swab or vesicle fluid

- PCR

49
Q

Name 2 ways gingivostomatitis is treated

A
  1. Supportive measures (fluids, analgesics)

2. Oral aciclovir

50
Q

Name 2 ways in which cold sores are treated

A
  1. Topical aciclovir / penciclovir

2. Prophylactic oral aciclovir (cases of frequent recurrence)

51
Q

Name the way in which severe infections of HSV are treated i.e. immunocompromised or encephalitis

A

High dose IV aciclovir

52
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of VZV

A
  • Primary infection presenting as chicken pox
  • Latency where the virus moves into sensory ganglion
  • Reactivation presenting as shingles
53
Q

What antibodies are detected if a person has been infected with VZV?

A

ZVG IgG

54
Q

Give 2 reasons why VZV is very infectious

A
  • It can be spread by droplet transmission

- A person is infectious 2 days before onset of rash

55
Q

Describe 4 types of lesions

A
  1. Macule (flat)
  2. Papule (raised)
  3. Vesicle (fluid filled)
  4. Pustule (pus filled)
56
Q

Name 2 complications of VZV in children

A
  1. Septic skin complications including cellulitis

2. CNS disease

57
Q

Name a complication of VZV in neonates / immunocompromised

A

Generalised infection

58
Q

Name 3 complications of VZV in adults

A
  1. Pneumonia
  2. Encephalitis
  3. Zoster
59
Q

Describe the epidemiology of EBV

A
  • Everyone IgG positive by age 25
  • Salivary transmission
  • Asymptomatic infection in children
  • Infectious mononucleosis in teenagers
60
Q

Describe the presentation of infectious mononucleosis

A
  • Fatigue / Headache
  • Rash
  • Enlarged tonsils
  • White fibrinous exudate confined to tonsils
  • Petechial lesions on the palate
61
Q

Name 2 ways in which EBV may be diagnosed

A
  1. Heterophile antibodies

2. Specific EBV IgM test

62
Q

What is a potential presentation of EBV in a very immunocompromised patient?

A

Oral hairy leukoplakia

63
Q

Describe hand foot and mouth disease

A
  • Enteroviruses
  • Mostly in children
  • Usually not dangerous
64
Q

Describe oral manifestation of measles

A

Koplic’s spots (clustered, white lesions on buccal mucosa)

65
Q

What is the main presentation of papilloma virus infections?

A

Warts

DEN 2027 - Disease Mechanisms (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions