Opportunistic Infections Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What is primary prophylaxis?

A

Therapy given to a patient in order to prevent a first episode of an OI

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2
Q

What is secondary prophylaxis?

A

Therapy given to a patient after having already received treatment for an active OI in order to prevent a second occurrence

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3
Q

What is the CD4 count that puts pts at risk for Candidiasis?

A

CD4 <200 cells/mm^3

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4
Q

Primary prophylaxis for Candidiasis

A
  • Not recommended
  • Very minimal morbidity and mortality is associated with infections
  • Acute treatment is often highly effective
  • Routine prophylaxis may lead to development of drug resistant species
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5
Q

Secondary prophylaxis for Candidiasis

A
  • Only recommended in patient who have frequent or severe recurrences
  • Fluconazole 100-200 mg by mouth once daily
  • Can be stopped when CD4 increases above 200 cells/mm^3
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6
Q

Treatment for Candidiasis

A

Fluconazole 100 mg-200 mg by mouth once daily for 7-14 days

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7
Q

What is the CD4 count that puts pts at risk for Pneumocystis Pneumonia?

A

CD4 <200 cells/mm^3

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8
Q

Primary prophylaxis for Pneumocystis Pneumonia

A
  • Should be started in all patients with a CD4 count <200 cells/mm^3, CD4% <14%, or history of an AIDS-defining illness.
  • Preferred Therapy: Bactrim 160/800 mg PO once daily; Can cause allergic reactions, rash, pancytopenia, nausea and vomiting
  • Alternative Therapy: Dapsone 100 mg PO once daily, Atovaquone 1500 mg PO once daily with food (Poor adherence)
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9
Q

Secondary prophylaxis for Pneumocystis Pneumonia

A
  • Same as primary prophylaxis unless patient experienced an episode of PJP with a CD4 >200 cells/mm^3, in which case
    prophylaxis should be continued for life.
  • Start prophylaxis with preferred drug regimen when CD4 <200 cells/mm^3 (14%) and can discontinue once CD4 >200 cells/mm^3 (14%) for greater than 3 months
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10
Q

Treatment for Pneumocystis Pneumonia

A
  • TMP-SMX dosed based off TMP 15–20 mg/kg/day IV or PO divided into 3 to 4 daily doses for 21 days
  • Adjunctive steroid treatment in patient with PaO2 <70mmHg on room air:
    + Prednisone 40 mg PO BID days 1 - 5
    + Prednisone 40 mg PO Daily days 6 – 10
    + Prednisone 20 mg PO Daily days 11 – 21
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11
Q

When can Primary and Secondary prophylaxis for Pneumocystis Pneumonia be discontinued?

A
  • Can be discontinued when CD4 count increased to ≥200 cells/mm^3 (14%) for at least 3 months in response to HIV treatment.
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12
Q

What is the CD4 count that puts pts at risk for Toxoplasmic Encephalitis?

A

CD4 <100 cells/mm^3

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13
Q

Primary prophylaxis for Toxoplasmic Encephalitis

A
  • Should be started in patients with anti-toxoplasma IgG antibodies and CD4 counts <100 cells/mm^3
  • Preferred Therapy: Bactrim 160/800 mg PO once daily
  • Alternative Therapy: Atovaquone 1500 mg PO once daily with food
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14
Q

Secondary prophylaxis for Toxoplasmic Encephalitis

A

Pyrimethamine 25–50 mg PO daily + sulfadiazine 2000–4000 mg PO daily (in 2 to 4 divided doses) + leucovorin 10–25 mg PO daily

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15
Q

Treatment for Toxoplasmic Encephalitis

A
  • Pyrimethamine 200 mg PO once, followed by dose based on body weight:
  • Body weight ≤60 kg: pyrimethamine 50 mg PO daily + sulfadiazine 1000 mg PO q6h + leucovorin 10–25 mg PO daily (can increase to 50 mg daily or BID)
  • Body weight >60 kg: pyrimethamine 75 mg PO daily + sulfadiazine 1500 mg PO q6h + leucovorin 10–25 mg PO daily (can increase to 50 mg daily or BID)
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16
Q

When can Primary prophylaxis for Toxoplasmic Encephalitis be discontinued?

A

when CD4 count increased to ≥200 cells/mm^3 (14%) for at least 3 months in response to HIV treatment

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17
Q

When can Secondary prophylaxis for Toxoplasmic Encephalitis be discontinued?

A

when CD4 count increased to ≥200 cells/mm^3 (14%) for at least 6 months in response to HIV treatment and the patient no longer has any signs or symptoms

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18
Q

What is the CD4 count that puts pts at risk for Mycobacterium avium Complex Disease?

A

CD4 <50 cells/mm^3

19
Q

Primary prophylaxis for Mycobacterium avium Complex Disease

A
  • Should be started in all patients with a CD4 count <50 cells/mm^3
  • Azithromycin 1200 mg by mouth once weekly or 600 mg by mouth twice weekly
  • Main side effects are nausea and diarrhea
20
Q

Secondary prophylaxis for Mycobacterium avium Complex Disease

A

Secondary prophylaxis consists of the same medications as the treatment regimens

21
Q

Treatment for Mycobacterium avium Complex Disease

A
  • Azithromycin 500–600 mg by mouth daily with ethambutol 15 mg/kg by mouth daily (generally preferred based on ease of administration and drug interactions)
  • Azithromycin 500–600 mg by mouth daily with ethambutol 15 mg/kg by mouth daily with rifabutin 300 mg by mouth daily
22
Q

When can Primary prophylaxis for Mycobacterium avium Complex Disease be discontinued?

A

when CD4 count increased to ≥100 cells/mm^3 for at least 3 months in response to HIV treatment

23
Q

When can Secondary prophylaxis and treatment for Mycobacterium avium Complex Disease be discontinued?

A

once they have completed at least 12 months of therapy, have no signs and symptoms of MAC, and have a CD4 count >100 cells/mm^3 for 6 months in response to ART

24
Q

What is the CD4 count that puts pts at risk for Cytomegalovirus?

A

CD4 <50 cells/mm^3

25
Q

Primary prophylaxis for Cytomegalovirus

A
  • Main recommendation for preventing disease is initiation of ART
  • Routine primary prophylaxis in not recommended
26
Q

Treatment for Cytomegalovirus

A
  • Most treatment is individualized based on site of infection
  • CMV retinitis:
    + Intravitreal injections of ganciclovir (2 mg/injection) followed by
    + Valganiciclovir 900 mg PO BID for 14-21 days followed by maintenance therapy / secondary prophylaxis
27
Q

Secondary prophylaxis for Cytomegalovirus

A
  • Valganciclovir 900 mg PO daily

- Can cause pancytopenia, insomnia, nausea

28
Q

When can Secondary prophylaxis for Cytomegalovirus be discontinued?

A
  • Pt received treatment for 3-6 months
  • CD4 count >100 cells/mm^3 for 3-6 months in response to ART
  • Clearance by an ophthalmologist
29
Q

Which medications are CI in pts who have a CD4 < 200 cells/mm^3?

A
  • varicella-zoster
  • herpes-zoster
  • measles, mumps, rubella vaccines
30
Q

Influenza in HIV patients

A
  • All HIV positive patients should receive an annual flu vaccine
  • Patients should receive the inactivated injection
31
Q

Hepatitis A and B

A
  • Recommended in all HIV patients
  • Test for immunity at initial visit
  • May need to repeat vaccination in CD4 < 500 cells/µL
32
Q

Human Papilloma Virus

A
  • Some debate over vaccination as many HIV patients are likely already exposed
  • Must weigh cost vs. benefit
33
Q

Tetanus, diphtheria, pertussis

A
  • regardless of CD4 count

- Td booster every 10 years (one time dose of Tdap for pertussis booster)

34
Q

Varicella

A
  • only in those whose CD4 count is >200 cells/mm^3

- 2 doses

35
Q

Herpes Zoster (zoster vaccine live)

A
  • CI in those whose CD4 count is < 200 cells/mm^3

- No recommendation

36
Q

Herpes Zoster (recombinant zoster vaccine)

A

No recommendation

37
Q

HPV

A
  • regardless of CD4 count

- 3 doses through age 26

38
Q

Measles, mumps, rubella

A
  • CI in those whose CD4 count is < 200 cells/mm^3

- in those whose CD4 count is >200 cells/mm^3 -> 1 or 2 doses

39
Q

Pneumococcal polysaccharide (PPSV23)

A
  • regardless of CD4 count

- 1 dose followed by booster at 5 years

40
Q

Pneumococcal 13-valent conjugate (PCV-13)

A
  • regardless of CD4 count

- 1 dose

41
Q

Meningococcal

A
  • regardless of CD4 count

- 1 dose or more

42
Q

Hepatitis A

A
  • regardless of CD4 count

- 2 doses

43
Q

Hepatitis B

A
  • regardless of CD4 count

- 3 doses