Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Cat & Dog > Ophthalmology (1-9) > Flashcards

Ophthalmology (1-9) Flashcards

1
Q

name the spaces of the orbit

A
  1. intraconal space
  2. extraconal space
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

name 7 possible clinical signs of orbital disease in dog

A
  1. exophthalmos
  2. incr. resistance to digital retropulsion
  3. Strabismus
  4. pain on opening mouth
  5. TEL protrusion
  6. Lagophthalmos & exposure keratopathy
  7. Conj. hyperaemia/chemosis/congestion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

name the term

protrusion of a normal sized globe

A

exophthalmos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

name the term

deviation of the gobe

A

strabismus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

name 2 common differential diagnoses of exophthalmos

A
  1. retrobulbar cellulitis or abscess
  2. retrobulbar neoplasia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is the most common retrobulbar neoplasm?

A

nasal adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the mean age of dogs with masticatory myositis

A

3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how to treat masticatory myositis

A

corticosteroids systemically (weeks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what 2 breeds are most typically affected by extraocular polymyositis

A
  1. labradors
  2. golden retrievers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

name the condition

exophthalmos but NO 3rd eyelid protrusion;
no pain;
swollen & hyperechoic extraocular mm on U/S;
respond to corticosteroids

A

extraocular polymyositis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

name the condition

protrusion of the globe with eyelids behind equator of globe;
caused by trauma

A

traumatic proptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

name 2 positive prognostic indicators for vision following traumatic proptosis

A
  1. brachycephalic conformation
  2. positive direct or indirect pupillary light reflexes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

name 4 negative prognostic indicators for vision following traumatic proptosis

A
  1. cats
  2. severe intraocular trauma
  3. rupture of multiple extraocular muscles
  4. obvious optic nerve damage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

name the 2 steps of replacement of proptosed globe

A
  1. preparation and canthotomy
  2. closure - temporary tarsorrhaphy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is done during replacement of proptosed globe to release tension on the eyelids and allow them to be drawn forward over the cornea

A

lateral canthotomy (scissors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

sutures should be left in place for at least this long following replacement of a proptosed globe

A

at least 2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

name 4 indications for enucleation

A
  1. a non-visual eye with intractable pain
  2. irreparable damageto the globe or optic nerve
  3. proptosis with optic nerve transection
  4. neoplasia that cannot be removed without sacrificing the globe
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

name 4 major disadvantages of loupes

A
  1. lack of variability in magnification
  2. limited magnification
  3. small field of view
  4. limited depth of field
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the ideal product for patient positioning for an enucleation?
keeps patient insulated from cold table; resistant to commonly used disinfectants; radiolucent; vacu-support shaped to fit patient

A

Kruuse - Buster pillows
(vacuum positioning)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the main consideration during enucleation of a cat or brachycephalic bulb

A

short optic nerve
(do NOT clamp or ligate - risk injury to other nerve via optic chiasm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the main consideration during enucleation of a rabbit

A

large orbital venous sinus
(risk for hemorrhage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

name the procedure

removal of globe, eyelids and conj. sacs in one unit ;
eyelids sutured together or held by Allis tissue forceps

A

transpalpebral enucleation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what part of the eye should NOT be penetrated during a transpalpebral enucleation?

A

conjunctival sac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

describe the 7 steps of a transpalpebral enucleation

A
  1. elliptical incision around eyelid margins
  2. blunt dissection around globe
  3. posterior sclera reached beyond conj. reflection
  4. dissect under EOM insertions and cut
  5. ensure all conjunctival tissue removed
  6. close subcuticular layer (vicryl - watertight)
  7. close skin layer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

name 5 possible complications of enucleation

A
  1. excessive bruising
  2. infection
  3. retention of conjunctiva
  4. orbital emphysema
  5. contralateral blindness optic nerve traction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

name the condition

eyes sinking deeper in eye socket

A

enophthalmos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

name 4 causes of enophthalmos

A
  1. ocular pain causing globe retraction
  2. conformation
  3. atrophy of orbital tissue (cachexia, muscle loss)
  4. Horner’s syndrome (loss of smooth muscle tone in the orbit)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

name the term

the protective and supporting structures of the eyeball (globe) and optic nerve

A

adnexa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what 5 things make up the adnexa of the eye

A
  1. external eyelids
  2. third eyelids
  3. conjunctiva
  4. lacrimal system
  5. orbit
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what 3 things does the middle layer of the eyelids contain

A
  1. glands
  2. muscles
  3. connective tissue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what does the inner layer of the eyelid contain

A

palpebral conjunctiva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

this is a small pink nodule at the medial canthus of the eye;
it is external to the third eyelid and can bear fine hairs

A

caruncle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

name the tendon

short, tethers the medial canthus to the frontal bone

A

medial canthal tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

name the tendon

longer, attaching the lateral canthus to the orbital ligament

A

lateral canthal tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what muscle closes the eyelids

A

orbicularis oculi mm (VII)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what dye is applied topically to detect any corneal ulceration and to check for nasolacrimal patency;
can highlight distichiasis or facial hairs in contact with the pre-ocular tear-film

A

fluorescein dye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

name 3 conditions involving eyelid cilia

A
  1. distachiasis
  2. conjunctival cilia (ectopic cilia)
  3. trichiasis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

name the condition

very common in dogs;
cilia emerge from lid margin;
bother some dogs more than others;
treat those with evidence of discomfort

A

distichiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

name 3 signs of discomfort with distichiasis

A
  1. lacrimation
  2. incr. blink rate
  3. blepharospasm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

name the condition

uncommon (young dogs);
hair emerges through conjunctiva of upper lid;
really painful;
cornea frequently ulcerated opposite hair

A

conjunctival/ectopic cilium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

name the condition

normally located hairs which are abnormally directed to contact and irritate/damage the ocular surface

A

trichiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

this is when the lid margin turns inward towards the cornea, so the upper and lower lid margins do not meet perfectly when blinking;
skin hairs in contact with the cornea causes PAIN

A

entropion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

name 4 signs of ocular pain

A
  1. blepharospasm
  2. lacrimation
  3. globe retraction
  4. photosensitivity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

name 6 things that might cause a patient to have entropion

A
  1. excessively long eyelids
  2. abnormal canthal attachments
  3. excess skin folds
  4. painful process causing globe retraction
  5. loss of retrobulbar contents
  6. loss of skin elasticity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

this is typically seen in brachycephalic dogs with a misdirected/tight medial canthal ligament ;
generally not in pain and cornea does not usually ulcerate, but chronic irritation causes corneal pigmentation ;
may be tear overflow by functional obstruction of the lower lacrimal punctum

A

medial canthal entropion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

name 7 eye troubles with brachycephalics

A
  1. prominent globes cannot readily retract
  2. macropalpebral fissure & lagophthalmos
  3. medial canthal entropion
  4. hairy caruncle
  5. nasal folds with hair contacting cornea
  6. tear film evaporation
  7. reduced corneal sensation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

this is a surgical procedure usually done for brachycephalics which shortens the length of the palpebral aperture and reduces corneal exposure

A

medial canthoplasty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what does entropion often cause?
severity is variable & most will heal uneventfully on medical management

A

corneal ulceration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what dog breed is predisposed to entropion;
puppies present with pain almost as soon as the lid open - must address promptly with temporary tacking procedure

A

sharpei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

this is a simple technique that corrects entropion only while sutures are in place;
protects the cornea, giving time for problem to be self corrected (or a safe delay in performing permanent procedure)

A

temporary tacking with vertical mattress sutures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

this is the definitive surgical correction of entropion;
involves the removal of an ellipse of skin below the lid margin at the affected site and the wound closed with simple interrupted sutures

A

Hotz-Celsus repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

this affects the lower lid and is only a cosmetic concern so NO treatment is needed;
it can, however, be responsible for repeated exposure conjunctivitis and should be treated with simple lid shortening

A

ectropion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

this is upper and lower entropion laterally and ectropion of mid lower lid so it kinks in upper and lower lids

A

“diamond eye” conformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

name the term

face lift

A

rhyditectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

name the term

inflammation of the eyelids

A

blepharitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

this is the rupture of meibomian gland → release of lipid meibum into tissues → pyogranulomatous response ;
warm compress may be useful in the early stages ;
topical antibiotics 7-10 days

A

chalazion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what is the 2 most common eyelid tumours in older dogs

A
  1. tarsal gland adenoma or adenocarcinoma
  2. melanoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what are the 2 most common eyelid tumours in younger dogs

A
  1. viral papilloma
  2. histiocytoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

name the eyelid tumour

very common in dogs;
warty/cauliflower appearance;
evert lid, may see thickened ridge/bulge on conjunctival surface over tarsal gland;
may obstruct meibomian gland opening

A

tarsal gland adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what closure should be used for eyelid mass excision?
allows knot to be placed at safe distance from cornea & align lid margin accurately

A

figure 8 suture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what is the normal appearance of the ocular surface

A
  1. moist
  2. clear cornea
  3. uninterrupted reflection of light
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

this is a fold of conjunctiva, supported internally by T shaped cartilage;
lots of lymphoid tissue;
nictitans glad at base of cartilage contributes to aqueous portion of tear film

A

third eyelid
(nictitating membrane/nictitans)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

name 5 causes of third eyelid prominence

A
  1. orbital mass lesions (extraconal)
  2. retraction of globe
  3. reduction in globe size
  4. reduction in orbital contents
  5. alteration to nervous control
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

this is the common name for a prolapsed nictitans gland

A

cherry eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

this is plasma cell infiltration of the third eyelid (GSD and collies);
‘depigmentation’ appearance due to pink/tan fleshy tissue covering the pigment;
treated with long-term topical cyclosporine;
UV exposure exacerbates

A

nictitans plasmacytic conjunctivitis/plasmoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

name the 4 layers of the cornea

A
  1. epithelium
  2. stroma
  3. descemet’s membrane
  4. endothelium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

name the corneal layer

sheets of collagen in a glycoprotein matrix

A

stroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

name the corneal layer

the basement membrane for the endothelium

A

Descemet’s membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

name the corneal layer

monolayer of cells, in contact with the aqueous

A

endothelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

name the term

full thickness defect of the epithelium, exposing underlying stroma

A

corneal ulceration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

name the type of corneal ulcer

only the epithelium is lost

A

superficial ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

name the type of corneal ulcer

the ulcer is deeper than just the epithelium, with varying degrees of stromal loss

A

stromal ulcer / deep ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

name the type of corneal ulcer

an ulcer that reaches Descemet’s membrane

A

Descemetocoele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

name the type of corneal ulcer

full thicknes corneal defect!

A

perforated/ruptured ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

name 6 signs of corneal ulceration

A
  1. pain
  2. conjunctival hyperaemia
  3. localised corneal oedema
  4. irregularity of surface contour
  5. neovascularization and cellular infiltration
  6. reflex uveitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

what 2 tests should be performed to assess a corneal ulcer

A
  1. STT Test (Schirmer Tear Test)
  2. Fluorescein stain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

name 8 causes of corneal ulcers

A
  1. trauma/foreign body
  2. hair/lash trauma
  3. infection (secondary)
  4. tear film abnormalities
  5. SCCED/’Boxer’ ulcer
  6. exposure keratopathy
  7. rupture of bullae secondary to endothelial dysfunction
  8. erosion by cholesterol or calcium deposits
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

will fuoroscein staining be more or less intense for a corneal ulcer when there is corneal oedema

A

less intense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

what is the most common cause of a ventromedial corneal ulceration

A

foreign body under third eyelid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

what is the most common cause of a dorsal, vertically orientated corneal ulceration

A

ectopic cilium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

what medication potentiate enzymatic degradation of corneal ulcers - resulting in progressive stromal loss

A

topical corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

what causes progressive stromal loss causing the corneal ulcer to deepen?

A

enzymatic degradation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

what medication should be given to an animal with a “melting” ulcer (extreme stromal ulcer)

A

broad spectrum antibiotics

(assume infected)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

what is the treatment for a superficial ulcer (epithelial loss only)

A
  1. topical broad spectrum antibiotic
    (+/- systemic NSAID for analgesia & atropine if reflex uveitis)

(reassess to ensure healing - heals quickly)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

name the type of corneal ulcer

superficial ulcers;
rarely infected;
failure of adhesion of epithelium to underlying stroma;
underrun edges;
middle aged to older dogs

A

spontaneous chronic corneal epithelial defect (SCCED)

(“Boxer ulcer”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

name 4 medical treatment options for a SCCED (spontaneous chronic corneal epithelial defect)

A
  1. analgesia
  2. topical antibiotics
  3. atropine if reflex uveitis
  4. autologous serum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

name 5 surgical treatment options for a SCCED (spontaneous chronic corneal epithelial defect)

A
  1. debride with cotton buds
  2. keratotomy (grid or punctate)
  3. diamond burr debridement
  4. phenol cautery
  5. superficial keratectomy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

name the SCCED (spontaneous chronic corneal epithelial defect) treatment

25G needle used to produce superficial scratches in a grid pattern;
scarring may result

A

superficial grid keratotomy

(NOT IN CATS!!!!)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

name the SCCED (spontaneous chronic corneal epithelial defect) treatment

23G needle used to produce superficial scratches;
less likely to cause scarring

A

superficial punctate keratotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

what are the only corneal ulcers you can treat with debridement

A

SCCED (spontaneous chronic corneal epithelial defect)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

name the 6 steps of treatment for a stromal or malacic corneal ulcer

A
  1. cytology +/- C&S
  2. topical antibiotics
  3. autologous serum
  4. systemic NSAIDs
  5. +/- atropine
  6. re-assess q25-48h
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

name 4 features of a corneal ulcer that indicate it is a SCCED and can be debrided

A
  1. middle aged-older dog
  2. superficial
  3. no obvious inciting cause or infection
  4. loose epithelial edges/under-running of fluorescein
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

name 6 causes of corneal opacities

A
  1. oedema
  2. cells (‘infiltrate’)
  3. blood vessels
  4. pigment
  5. scarring (fibrosis)
  6. lipid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

this occurs mostly in German Shepherd Dogs;
a typically rough, fleshy looking infiltrate of inflammatory tissue, vessels and sometimes pigment;
advances towards the central cornea from the lateral limbus

A

Chronic Superficial Keratitis (CSK)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

name the part of the eye

this is the structures in front of and including the lens

A

anterior segment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

name the part of the eye

the anterior and posterior chambers are both within what segment of the eye

A

anterior segment

98
Q

what two structures make up the anterior uvea of the eye

A
  1. iris
  2. ciliary body
99
Q

what is the posterior uvea of the eye known as

A

choroid

100
Q

name the part of the eye

determines the amount of light passing through the pupil

A

iris

101
Q

name the part of the eye

supports the lens, produces aqueous and contains smooth muscle controlling accommodation

A

ciliary body

102
Q

what sort of lighting should be used to examine the iris

A

in the dark using a focal light source and some magnification

103
Q

what sort of lighting should be used to assess the pupil

A

room light

104
Q

name the term

pupils of two different sizes

A

anisocoria

105
Q

name the term

dilation of the pupil

A

mydriasis

106
Q

name the term

constriction of the pupil

A

miosis

107
Q

what can you use in order to assess the ciliary body of the eye

A

ocular ultrasound

108
Q

name the term

embryological remnants in the form of strands of tissue arising from the iris collarette, and attaching to the cornea, or lens, or across the pupil to the iris

A

persistent pupillary membranes

109
Q

name the term

this is common in dogs;
often seen as senile atrophy in elderly dogs;
pupil edges look irregular;
iris thins;
PLRs are slow/incomplete;
no treatment

A

iris atrophy

110
Q

name the term

flat pigmented area on the iris, progression uncommon and slow;
must be carefully distinguished from a melanoma

A

iris melanosis

111
Q

where do most primary tumours of the eye arise from?

A

iris and ciliary body

(usually benign in dogs)

112
Q

this is the most common primary ocular neoplasm;
typically affects older dogs;
most commonly appears as pigmented mass

A

anterior uveal melanoma

113
Q

name the primary ocular neoplasm

relatively uncommon;
non-pigmented mass protruding behind the pupil

A

iridocilliary adenoma / adenocarcinoma

114
Q

name the ocular neoplasm

generalised lymphadenopathy usually found on physical exam;
infiltration with thickenin of the iris;
accumulation of cells and blood in the anterior chamber;
discomfot often only mild

A

lymphoma

115
Q

name 8 signs of acute anterior uveitis

A
  1. pain
  2. variable visual loss
  3. red eye
  4. corneal oedema
  5. swelling of the iris
  6. breakdown of the blood/aqueous barrier
  7. miosis
  8. reduced IOP
116
Q

name the term

this is when the iris sticks to the lens, blocking flow of aqueous humor from posterior to anterior chamber ;
common with inflammation of the iris

A

posterior synechia

117
Q

name the term

focal accumulations of inflammatory cells that adhere to the inner surface of the cornea;
“mutton fat” appearance;
may be obscured by the third eyelid

A

keratotic precipitates

118
Q

name 7 possible complications of anterior uveitis

A
  1. synechiae formation
  2. glaucoma
  3. iris colour changes
  4. vitreal opacities
  5. cataract formation
  6. lens luxation
  7. phthisis bulbi
119
Q

name the possible complication of anterior uveitis

posterior synechiae through 360° causes this ;
iris plane is “ballooned” forward by trapped aqueous ;
causes pupil block glaucoma and deep corneal vascularisation

A

iris bombe

120
Q

name the possible complication of anterior uveitis

ciliary body production of aqueous ceases as a result of severe intraocular damage;
eye blind and shrunken

A

phthisis bulbi

121
Q

name 4 local causes of anterior uveitis

A
  1. corneal ulceration
  2. blunt and penetrating trauma
  3. release of antigenic lens protein
  4. intraocular neoplasia
122
Q

name 5 systemic causes of anterior uveitis

A
  1. septicaemia
  2. bacteraemia
  3. toxaemia
  4. infectious diseases
  5. lymphoma/leukaemia
123
Q

what immediate therapy is always indicated in treatment of intra-ocular inflammation

A

anti-inflammatory therapy

124
Q

what is most often used immediately to treat intra-ocular inflammation

(ensure cornea is intact first)

A

topical corticosteroids

(ex 1% prednisolone acetate)

125
Q

name the term

an elevation in intraocular pressure (IOP) incompatible with normal function of the eye

A

glaucoma

126
Q

at what two locations in the eye can flow of aqueous be obstructed and lead to a glaucoma

A
  1. level of pupil
  2. iridocorneal angle
127
Q

name 5 signs of a glaucoma

A
  1. red eye
  2. ocular pain
  3. unexplained visual loss
  4. poorly responsive pupils
  5. diffuse corneal oedema
128
Q

why is glaucoma a neurological emergency?

A

elevated IOP can cause irreversible damage to ganglion cells of neuroretina and ischaemic damage w/in hours

129
Q

name the term

glaucoma that arises as a result of primary abnormalities in the drainage apparatus NOT associated with any other ocular disease

A

primary glaucoma

130
Q

name the term

glaucoma occurs as a complication of pre-existing ocular disease

A

secondary glaucoma

131
Q

this can be used to asses the iridocorneal drainage angle to aid in glaucoma diagnosis

A

goniolens

132
Q

what are the 3 medical treatment options for a glaucoma

A
  1. carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
  2. beta-adrenergic blockers
  3. prostaglandin analogues
133
Q

name the medical treatment for glaucoma

reduce aqueous production;
dorzolamide or brinzolamide topical solutions most commonly used;
safe drugs in most cases of primary and secondary glaucoma but may not be potent enough to drop IOP sufficiently

A

carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

134
Q

name the medical treatment for glaucoma

potent miotics;
increase uveoscleral outflow, leading to rapid reduction in IOP;
used most often in treatment of acute primary glaucoma (do NOT use in secondary glaucoma to ALL or uveitis);
valuable emergency drug;
latanoprost most frequently used

A

prostaglandin analogues

135
Q

what is the function of the lens of the eye

A

focus light on the retina

136
Q

name the 4 layers of the lens

A
  1. capsule
  2. epithelium
  3. cortex
  4. nucleus
137
Q

name the layer of the lens

elastic envelope;
impermeable to large molecules;
thicker at the front (anterior)

A

capsule

138
Q

name the layer of the lens

produces lens fibres through life

A

epithelium

139
Q

name the layer of the lens

clear lens fibres;
fibres meet at suture lines;
Y at front, upside down Y at back

A

cortex

140
Q

name the layer of the lens

forms as an embryo;
increased density with age

A

nucleus

141
Q

name the part of the eye

collagenous fibres;
suspend the lens behind the pupil;
originate from the ciliary body;
insert on the lens capsule

A

zonules

142
Q

name the part of the eye

changing the lens shape (accommodation);
muscle relaxation increases the tension exerted on the zonules to flatten the lens;
innervated by Cn III; parasympathetic

A

ciliary body muscle

143
Q

what are the 2 techniques for examining the lens

A
  1. distant direct ophthalmoscopy
  2. close direct ophthalmoscopy
144
Q

name the technique for examination of the lens

visualise the tapetal reflection;
detection of lens opacities;
light source positioned next to the eye

A

distant direct ophthalmoscopy

145
Q

name the technique for examination of the lens

detailed assessment of the lens structure;
ophthalmoscope setting at +10 to 15 Dioptres

A

close direct ophthalmoscopy

146
Q

name 2 opacities that may occur on the lens

A
  1. nuclear sclerosis
  2. cataracts
147
Q

name the lens disease

normal ageing change from increased lens density;
hazy grey-blue appearance to lens;
transparent on distant direct ophthalmoscopy ;
no obvious change in vision

A

nuclear sclerosis

148
Q

name the lens disease

opacity of the lens, loss of transparency;
effect on vision determined by size, density and site of opacity;
disruption of fibre arrangement and accumulation of insoluble proteins

A

cataract

149
Q

name the 4 stages of cataract maturity

A
  1. incipient
  2. immature
  3. mature
  4. hypermature
150
Q

name the stage of cataract maturity

smal focal opacity <15% of lens;
rest of lens is transparent;
sight is unaffected;
surgery is not indicated at this stage;
no Tx required

A

incipient cataract

151
Q

name the stage of cataract maturity

> 15-90% of lens affected;
tapetal reflection still visible;
surgery indicated if vision is poor;
low grade lens induced uveitis

A

immature cataract

152
Q

name the stage of cataract maturity

opacity fills entire lens;
tapetal reflection is not visible;
absent menace response;
surgery is indicated;
moderate lens-induced uveitis

A

mature cataract

153
Q

name the stage of cataract maturity

cataract liquefaction and resorption;
leakage of lens protein through capsule;
lens shrinks in volume creating wrinkles in capsule;
tapetal reflection may be visible and eye may be visible;
surgery is high risk

A

hypermature cataract

154
Q

name 5 possible causes of a cataract

A
  1. congenital
  2. hereditary
  3. Diabetes mellitus
  4. secondary to other ocular disease
  5. senile/spontaneous cataracts
155
Q

what is the most common cause of cataracts in dogs

A

Diabetes mellitus

156
Q

what type of surgery is done for treatment of cataracts

A

phacoemulsification

157
Q

name the lens disorder

lens is positioned in front of the iris

A

anterior luxation

158
Q

name the lens disorder

lens sinks ventrally behind the iris

A

posterior luxation

159
Q

name 4 signs of anterior lens luxation

A
  1. red congested conjunctiva
  2. corneal oedema
  3. lens observed in the anterior chamber
  4. deep anterior chamber (lens is pushed back by lens)
160
Q

which type of lens luxation is more urgent

A

anterior lens luxation

(because of glaucoma it causes)

161
Q

what are the treatment options for anterior lens luxation

A
  1. surgery (extraction of lens)
  2. non-surgical: transcorneal reduction of lens posterior to iris
162
Q

what is the treatment for posterior lens luxation

A

maintain pupil constriction with a prostaglandin analogue drop

163
Q

this is transparent thick gel inside the posterior segment of the eye;
provides mechanical support for the lens and retina ;
stores nutrients and absorbs metabolic waste from the retina and neighboring tissues

A

vitreous

164
Q

name the condition of the vitreous of the eye

degenerative liquefaction

A

vitreal syneresis

165
Q

name the condition of the vitreous of the eye

calcium lipid complexes form glistening spheres suspended in the vitreous

A

asteroid hyalosis

166
Q

name teh 5 structures that make up the fundus of the eye

A
  1. retina
  2. optical nerve head
  3. tapetum
  4. choroid
  5. retinal vasculature

(posterior structures of the eye)

167
Q

name the part of the fundus of the eye

yellow-green reflective layer;
part of choroid;
located dorsally;
not always present (blue eyes)

A

tapetum

168
Q

name the part of the fundus of the eye

covers choroid and tapetum;
pigmented over choroid and unpigmented over the tapetum

A

retinal pigmented epithelium (RPE)

169
Q

name the part of the fundus of the eye

transparent layer of photoreceptors and ganglion cells

A

retina

170
Q

name the 3 components to the ocular exam

A
  1. testing visual behaviour
  2. neurophthalmic assessment
  3. ophthalmoscopy
171
Q

name 3 types of visual behaviour tests

A
  1. navigation in an unfamiliar environment
  2. track moving objects
  3. maze testing in bright and dark conditions
172
Q

name 4 parts/tests of a neurophthalmic exam

A
  1. menace response
  2. dazzle reflex
  3. pupillary light reflex
  4. palpebral reflex
173
Q

name the type of ophthalmoscopy

provides low magnification overview of the fundus;
virtual image (back to front and upside down);
requires a condensing lens positioned infront of the eye

A

indirect ophthalmoscopy

174
Q

parasympatheticolytic topical drug that induces mydriasis;
takes 20 min to take effect and several hours to wear off;
do NOT use with anterior lens luxation and glaucoma;
makes it eaasier to examine the fundus

A

Tropicamide (0.5-1%)

175
Q

name the hereditary eye disease

group of diseases affecting retinal photoreceptors;
progressive loss of vision;
rods affected before cones;
night vision lost before day vision;
secondary cataract is common;
no effective treatment but painless

A

Progressive Retinal Atrophy (PRA)

176
Q

name the hereditary eye disease

congenital eye abnormality;
non-progressive, often no effect on vision;
choroidal hypoplasia (pale area lateral to optic nerve head with abnormal choroidal vessels);
recessive autosomal inheritance;
DNA test available

A

Collie Eye Anomaly

177
Q

name 3 abnormalities that may be seen with Collie Eye Anomaly in addition to choroidal hypoplasia

A
  1. optic nerve coloboma
  2. retinal haemorrhage
  3. retinal detachment
178
Q

name the hereditary eye disease

congenital eye disease;
retinal folds and rosettes;
mild forma have no effect on vision but severe disease causes blindness

A

Retinal dysplasia

179
Q

name the 3 forms of retinal dysplasia

A
  1. multifocal retinal dysplasia
  2. geographic retinal dysplasia
  3. total retina dysplasia
180
Q

name the form of retinal dysplasia

often detected incidentally;
greyish, vermiform, linear or small circular lesions;
seen mostly in tapetal area above the disc

A

multifocal retinal dysplasia

181
Q

name the form of retinal dysplasia

more extensively affected areas;
can be horse shoe or circular-shaped;
similar to post-inflammatory lesions

A

geopgraphic retinal dysplasia

182
Q

name the form of retinal dysplasia

most severe form;
retinal detachement

A

total retinal dysplasia

183
Q

name the acquired retinal disease

sudden onset blindness with normal fundus appearance;
apoptosis fo photoreceptors;
no effective treatment;
painless;
dogs eventually learn to cope with vision loss

A

sudden acquired retinal degeneration syndrome (SARDS)

184
Q

name the acquired retinal disease

inflammation of the choroid and retina;
commonly a manifestation of a systemic disease;
infectious, inflammation, neoplasia, and immune-mediated

A

chorioretinitis

185
Q

name the acquired retinal disease

inflammatory cells accumulating around retinal blood vessels;
retinal oedema;
focal haemorrhage and retinal detachements common;
hazy vitreous

A

active chorioretinitis

186
Q

name the acquired retinal disease

focal, sharply demarcated hyperreflective lesions in the tapetal fundus;
dense pigment deposits often seen in centre of lesions;
focal pigment loss in the non-tapetal fundus

A

chronic or post-inflammatory lesions

187
Q

name the acquired retinal disease

small intraretinal pinpoint bleeds;
large pre-retinal ‘keel boat’ bleeds

A

retinal haemorrhage

188
Q

name the optic nerve disease

disc abnormally small, with an absence of myelinated fibres;
cause blindness if severe;
rare and congenital

A

optic nerve hypoplasia

189
Q

name the optic nerve disease

advanced retinal degeneration;
optic nerve head is flat, small and darker due to loss of myelin

A

optic nerve atrophy

190
Q

name the optic nerve disease

inflammation of the optic nerve;
sudden onset blindness, functional retina;
normal electroretinogram trace;
optic nerve head appears swollen and hyperaemic

A

optic neuritis

191
Q

name the optic nerve disease

compression of the optic nerve head due to high intraocular pressure;
chronic glaucoma;
grave prognosis for vision

A

optic disc cupping in chronic glaucoma

192
Q

what should STT (Schirmer Tear Test) readings be for cats

A

greater than 10 mm/min

193
Q

what is the normal intraocular pressure (IOP) for a cat

A

10-25 mmHg

194
Q

this is congenital absence of the eyelid that occurs in cats;
upper lateral lid margin most often affected;
associated with other ocular congenital disease and leads to corneal ulceration from evaporation of tears

A

eyelid agenesis/coloboma

195
Q

what is the most common eyelid tumour in cats

A

squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)

196
Q

name 3 causes of unilateral third eyelid protrusion in a cat

A
  1. Horner’s syndrome
  2. ocular surface pain
  3. retrobulbar disease
197
Q

name 3 causes of bilateral third eyelid protrusion in cats

A
  1. bilateral disease
  2. Haws syndrome
  3. dysautonomia
198
Q

name 4 important infectious causes of feline conjunctivitis

A
  1. Chlamydophila felis
  2. Feline Herpes 1
  3. Mycoplasma
  4. Feline Calicivirus
199
Q

name the infectious cause of feline conjunctivitis

obligate gram neg intracellular bacteria;
primary trophism for the conjunctival epithelium;
does NOT cause corneal ulceration;
unilateral then bilateral;
most cats remain systemically well

A

Chlamydophila felis

200
Q

how to diagnose Chlamydophila felis as cause of feline conjunctivitis

A
  1. intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies on conjunctival scrape
  2. PCR from ventral conjunctival swabs
201
Q

what is the best choice treatment for Chlamydophila felis

A

doxycycline systemically

202
Q

name the infectious cause of feline conjunctivitis

upper respiratory and ocular surface pathogen;
tropism for epithelium;
conjunctivitis and ulcerative keratitis

A

Feline Herpes FHV-1

203
Q

where does FHV-1 (feline herpes virus) become latent in

A

trigeminal nerve ganglia

204
Q

this is a secondary immune-mediated inflammatory reaction to feline herpes virus within the corneal stroma;
incr. risk in cats that have been treated with topical steroids

A

stromal keratitis

205
Q

what antiviral treatment can be used for Feline Herpes Virus 1 (FHV-1)

A
  1. oral famciclovir
  2. topical ganciclovir

(only for severe cases)

206
Q

this is a complication of severe FHV conjunctivitis in young cats;
adhesions of conjunctiva or third eyelid to each other or to cornea;
tend to recur if incised

A

symblepharon

207
Q

name the feline ocular disease

corneal necrosis;
chronic corneal irritation;
common in brachycephalic cats;
diagnosed on appearance: black cornea on a cat

A

corneal sequestrum

208
Q

name the feline ocular disease

progressively infiltrative disease;
immune mediated but associated with FHV-1 infection;
infiltration of eosinophils in the cornea and conjunctiva;
“cottage cheese” plaque appearance;
diagnosis made on cytology

A

eosinophilic keratitis

209
Q

this is the most common intraocular tumour in cats;
originates from the anterior surface of the iris;
flat, hyperpigmented local lesion;
thickened, raised and furry texture;
secondary glaucoma;
metastasis to liver and lungs in up to 63%

A

Feline Diffuse Iris Melanoma

210
Q

this is a highly malignant intraocular tumour of cats;
associated with historic ocular trauma or chronic uveitis;
blind, traumatised eyes should be enucleated

A

feline intraocular sarcoma

211
Q

this is the most common secondary intraocular tumour in cats;
may be associated with FeLV or FIV;
anterior uveitis +/- fleshy pink intraocular mass

A

Ocular Lymphoma

(B cell > T cell)

212
Q

name the feline ocular disease

this is an inherited condition in the Siamese and Abyssinian cat breeds

A

progressive retinal atrophy (PRA)

212
Q

what deficiency can cause retinal degeneration and dilated cardiomyopathy in cats?
can lead to total diffuse retinal degeneration

A

Taurine deficiency

213
Q

this medication can cause irreversible retinal damage and blindness in cats if > 5 mg/kg/day is given

A

enrofloxacin

214
Q

this is the most exposed mucus membrane of the body

A

the conjunctiva

215
Q

this lines the inner surface of the eyelids

A

palpebral conjunctiva

216
Q

this covers the cartilage of the third eyelid and gland

A

nictitans conjunctiva

217
Q

this is paler than palpebral or nictitans conjunctiva;
whiteness of the underlying sclera & terminates at the limbus (vorneoscleral junction)

A

bulbar conjunctiva

218
Q

name the term

diffuse reddening, variable amount of discharge and conjunctival swelling

A

conjunctivitis

219
Q

what is the most common cause of chronic conjunctivitis in the dog

A

dry eye

220
Q

name the condition

infection within the conjunctival sac before natural opening of the lids at 10-14 days;
swollen lids must be opened, ocular surface flushed after culture, broad spectrum topical ABs, and lubricants

A

ophthalmia neonatorum

221
Q

name the condition

antigenic stimulation of lymphoid tissue;
self-limiting (~12-18 mo of age);
cod roe appearance (posterior surface of the third eyelid and conjunctival fornices);
saline irrigation/lubricants, topical steroids/NSAIDs

A

juvenile follicular conjunctivitis

222
Q

name the condition

sub-conjunctival oedema;
loose attachement of conjunctiva allows dramatic swelling;
rapid resolution following parental corticosteroid if allergic in origin

A

Chemosis

223
Q

which cells of the lacrimal system produce mucus

A

conjunctival goblet cells

224
Q

which cells of the lacrimal system produce lipid component of tears

A

tarsal glands

225
Q

which cells of the lacrimal system produce aquoeus component of tears

A

nictitans glands

226
Q

what are most canine cases of KCS (dry eye) caused by

A

immune mediated destruction of their lacrimal tissue

227
Q

name 2 drugs that induce KCS (dry eye) in the dog

A
  1. sulphadiazine
  2. sulphasalazine
228
Q

name a congenital cause of KCS (dry eye in the dog)

A

aplasia of lacrimal gland

(Yorkshire terriors, cocker spaniels, CKCS)

229
Q

name 2 infectious causes of KCS (Dry eye) in the dog

A
  1. distemper
  2. Leishmania
230
Q

name 5 clinical signs of KCS (dry eye) in the dog

A
  1. conjunctivitis (conjunctival hyperaemia)
  2. tenacious mucopurulent discharge
  3. corneal neovascularisation
  4. corneal pigmentation
  5. lack lustre cornea
231
Q

what is the clinical sign of neurogenic KCS (dry eye) in dogs

A

dry nose on the same side

232
Q

what is a normal result for a Schirmer 1 tear test

A

greater than 15mm/min

233
Q

what is an early/subclinical KCS result for a Schirmer 1 tear test

A

10-15mm/min

234
Q

what is a mild/moderate KCS result for a Schirmer 1 tear test

A

6-10mm/min

235
Q

what is a severe KCS result for a Schirmer 1 tear test

A

< 5mm/min

236
Q

what surgery can be done to treat KCS (dry eye) in dogs

A

parotid duct transposition

237
Q

name 4 nearby structures that can press on and obstruct the nasolacrimal system

A
  1. orbit
  2. sinuses
  3. tooth roots
  4. nasal cavity
238
Q

what test can be done to check nasolacrimal drainage

A

Jones’ test

(fluorescein to ocular surface to see if it appears at nose)

239
Q

name the term

obstruction to outflow of the nasolacrimal system

A

Epiphora

240
Q

name the condition

inflammation of the lacrimal sac;
often caused by a foreign body such as a grass seed

A

dacryocystitis

Cat & Dog (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions