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Cat & Dog > Infectious Diseases (1-7) > Flashcards

Infectious Diseases (1-7) Flashcards

1
Q

list 5 risks of vaccinations in cats

A
  1. anaphylaxis, local reaction
  2. lameness
  3. CKD
  4. signs of flu
  5. Feline Injection Site Sarcomas (FISS)
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2
Q

name the 3 core vaccines for cats in the UK

A
  1. Feline parvovirus (FPV)
  2. Feline Calicivirus (FCV)
  3. Feline Herpes Virus (FHV-1; Feline Rhinotracheitis Virus)
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3
Q

What feline vaccine used to be non-core but is becoming a core vaccine this year (2024)?

A

Feline Leukemia Virus (FeLV)

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4
Q

list 3 non-core vaccines for cats

A
  1. Chlamydia felis
  2. Bordetella bronchiseptica
  3. Feline Immunodeficiency Virus; FIV
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5
Q

when should core vaccines be given to kittens?

A

8 weeks, 12 weeks, and 16 weeks

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6
Q

in what cases should kittens be vaccinated earlier? (<4 weeks old)

A

colostrum-deprived kittens

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7
Q

if maternally derived antibodies (MDA) are strong, then when should the kiten be vaccinated

A

at 16+ weeks

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8
Q

what proportion of kittens will fail to respond to vaccines at 16 weeks

A

1/3

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9
Q

when should the ‘first booster’ of core vaccines be given

A

6 months (or test serology)

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10
Q

what is a major risk of B. bronchiseptica (bordatella) vaccine?

A

IN vaccine can infect immunocompromised humans in the household

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11
Q

what age should Rabies vaccine first be given to kittens

A

12 weeks (1 dose)

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12
Q

how many doses and when should C. felis vaccine be given to kittens

A

2 doses; 8 & 12 weeks

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13
Q

how many doses and when should B. bronchiseptica (bordatella) vaccine be given to kittens

A

1 dose, from 4 weeks

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14
Q

how many doses and when should FeLV vaccine be given to kittens

A

2 doses; 8 & 12 weeks

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15
Q

how many doses of FPV MLV are needed to induce adequate levels of VN antibodies in adult cats with lapsed or unknown vaccine history

A

1 dose

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16
Q

how many doses of FCV/FHV-1 vaccine are needed to induce adequate levels of VN antibodies in adult cats with lapsed or unknown vaccine history

A

1-2 doses (q2-4 weeks) depending on risk exposure

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17
Q

how many doses of FeLV vaccine are needed to induce adequate levels of VN antibodies in adult cats with lapsed or unknown vaccine history

A

2 doses q2-4 weeks

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18
Q

how many doses of C. felis vaccine are needed to induce adequate levels of VN antibodies in adult cats with lapsed or unknown vaccine history

A

2 doses q2-4 weeks

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19
Q

what type of vaccine gives better protection for FHV-1?

(dead FVRCP SQ or live MLV FVRCP SQ?)

A

dead vaccines

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20
Q

when should FPV vaccines be boostered in cats?

A

every 3 years from 6-12 months

(every year if >15 y/o)

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21
Q

when should FCV / FHV-1 vaccines be boostered in cats?

A

every 1-3 years depending on vaccine and risk

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22
Q

when should cats be given the first booster for non-core vaccines

A

at 12 months

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23
Q

when should C. felis and B. bronchiseptica (bordatella) vaccines be boostered in cats?

A

every year OR 5-7 days prior to anticipated exposure

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24
Q

when should FeLV vaccines be boostered in cats?

A

every 1-3 years

(1st at 1y)

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25
Q

when should Rabies vaccines be boostered in cats?

A

every 3 years

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26
Q

where should the rabies vaccine be given in cats

A

R hind

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27
Q

where should the FeLV vaccine be given in cats

A

L hind

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28
Q

where should the core vaccines be given in cats

A

forelimb

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29
Q

name 4 ways that feline parvovirus (feline panleukemia virus) can be tramitted

A
  1. oro-fecal transmission
  2. direct contact
  3. environmental contamination
  4. Fomites
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30
Q

name the 3 clinical signs if a cat is infected with FPV during early to mid-gestation

A
  1. fetal death
  2. resorption
  3. abortion
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31
Q

name some (5) clinical signs of the kitten if infected with FPV during late gestation

A
  1. profound immuno-suppression
  2. thymic atrophy
  3. Cerebellar hypoplasia
  4. retinal dysplasia (blindness)
  5. deafness, seizures
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32
Q

4 ways to diagnose FPV in a cat?

A
  1. clinical signs/profound panleukopenia
  2. CPV antigen test
  3. serology
  4. virus isolation from PM tissue, feces
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33
Q

name 4 important aspects of supportive care for a kitten/cat with FPV

A
  1. fluid therapy
  2. broad spectrum antibiotics
  3. anti-emetics
  4. analgesia
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34
Q

what treatment drug can be given to a cat with FPV?

A

Feline Interferon omega (Virbagen)

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35
Q

aka Haemoplasmosis;
caused by Mycoplasma haemofelis, M. turicensis, M. haemominutum;
associated with FeLV;
transmission via biting

A

Feline Infectious Anaemia (FIA)

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36
Q

what is the ideal treatment for FIA (Feline Infectious Anaemia)?

A

Pradofloxacin (Fluoroquinolones)

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37
Q

what is the prevalence of FeLV and/or FIV in healthy cats?

A

1-5%

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38
Q

what is the prevalence of FeLV and/or FIV in sick cats

A

15%

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39
Q

how is FIV and FeLV most commonly spread?

A

biting

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40
Q

how many cases of FIV eventually develop progressive infection?

A

ALL OF THEM

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41
Q

What are the 3 possible outcomes and probabilities of an FeLV infection

A
  1. 30% progressive infection
  2. 30% regressive infection (latency)
  3. 30% abortive infection
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42
Q

what is the life expectancy for a cat with a progressive FeLV infection

A

dead within 4 years

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43
Q

what is the cutoff time for FeLV to be considered transient vs. persistant

A

12 weeks

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44
Q

name 4 factors that are important in determining the outcome of an FeLV infection

A
  1. age
  2. dose of virus
  3. breed/inherent susceptibility
  4. acquired immunity
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45
Q

name 3 common diseases related to FeLV infections

A
  1. immunosuppression (50%)
  2. anaemia (25%)
  3. neoplastic diseases (5-15%)
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46
Q

what is the most important Point of Care Test (POCT) for diagnosing FeLV

A

ELISA

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47
Q

what is the most important confirmatory test for diagnosis of FeLV

A

quantitative qRT-PCR

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48
Q

if FeLV prevalence = 2%
and the test specificity = 99%
what percent of positive results will be false positives?

A

33%

(2 true positives & 1 false positive)

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49
Q

name 3 causes of false positive test results for FIV

A
  1. maternal Ab in colostrum
  2. vaccination
  3. technical error
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50
Q

what test should always be done to confirm FIV postitive or negative results

A

RT-PCR!

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51
Q

name 2 causes of a false negative test result for FIV

A
  1. 10-20% cases are negative for antibody but positive on VI/PCR
  2. technical error
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52
Q

what is the prognosis for FeLV

A

guarded, poor
(50% dead within 6 months)

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53
Q

what type of antibiotics should be used to treat FeLV/FIV related illness

A

bacteriocidal (high dose, longer course)

(treat aggressively)

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54
Q

list some clinical signs of acute cat flu (10 total)

A
  1. conjunctivitis
  2. ocular discharge
  3. sneezing
  4. nasal discharge
  5. ulceration (tongue/mouth)
  6. excessive salivation
  7. inappetance
  8. cough
  9. depression
  10. fever
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55
Q

name the two main causes of cat flu

A
  1. Feline Herpes Virus type 1 (FHV-1)
  2. Feline Calicivirus (FCV)
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56
Q

This virus has a single serotype and consistent pathogenicity that is readily destroyed outside the host;
Up to 80% of recovered cats may become viral carriers and excrete virus under stress, concurrent disease or following the use of corticosteroids

A

FHV-1

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57
Q

This virus has many strains with variable virulence and pathogenicity that is more resistant within the environment and to disinfection;
All affected cats shed this virus for variable periods after resolution of the clinical signs

A

FCV

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58
Q

This is a Gram-negative coccobacillus that can act as a respiratory pathogen in many species, including pigs, dogs, cats and humans (particularly when immuno-compromised);
It can cross species and has potential zoonotic risk;
Affected cats may remain persistently infected and shed bacteria

A

Bordetella bronchiseptica

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59
Q

These are bacteria without classical cell walls;
there is increasing evidence that a
number of them are important in causing/exacerbating cat flu & pneumonia.

A

Mycoplasma spp.

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60
Q

This bacteria has a special predilection for the conjunctiva;
It is an obligate intracellular bacterium;
Affected cats may remain persistently infected and shed bacteria

A

Chlamydia felis

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61
Q

what sample should be taken for isolation & culture or PCR to diagnose cat flu

A

eye & pharynx swab

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62
Q

what is the treatment for cats with cat flu?

(4 parts)

A
  1. Antibiotics/antivirals
  2. immune stimulants
  3. nursing care
  4. fluid support
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63
Q

how long does FHV-1 survive in the environment

A

< 24 h

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64
Q

how long does FCV survive in the environment

A

9-10 days
(up to 28 days)

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65
Q

what is the carrier status for cats infected with FHV-1

A

80% lifelong carriers but intermittent shedders

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66
Q

what is the carrier status for cats infected with FCV

A

100% shedding at 30 days,
50% at 75 days,
10-25% long-term

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67
Q

what is the management for cat flu / how to help prevent it spreading

(9 ways to manage)

A
  1. decr. stocking density
  2. decr. group size
  3. incr. air flow
  4. sneeze barriers
  5. disinfection
  6. quarantine
  7. isolation kittening and weaning
  8. stop breeding
  9. vaccination
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68
Q

what drugs should NOT be used to treat cat flu

A

corticosteroids

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69
Q

name some clinical signs of VS-FCV (virulent systemic feline calicivirus)

(10 total)

A
  1. anorexia, lethargy, depression
  2. pyrexia
  3. subcutaneous oedema/ulcerative dermatitis
  4. mouth ulcers
  5. nasal discharge
  6. respiratory distress
  7. ocular discharge
  8. jaundice
  9. GI signs
  10. coagulopathy/systemic vasculitis (DIC)
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70
Q

how to handle all suspicious cases of VS-FCV (virulent systemic feline calicivirus)

(4 things)

A
  1. strict hygeine & quarantine
  2. ideally NOT in the vet practice
  3. isolation until stopped shedding
  4. trace all in-contact cats & quarantine all potential cases
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71
Q

what is the cause of Feline Infectious Peritonitis (FIP)

A

Feline Coronaviruses (FCoV)

(FIPV)

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72
Q

which type of Feline Coronaviruses (FCoV) cause little or no signs of ill-health

A

Feline Enteric Coronaviruses (FECV)

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73
Q

which type of Feline Coronaviruses (FCoV) can cause FIP

A

Feline Infectious Peritonitis Viruses (FIPV)

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74
Q

what is the pathogenesis for FIPV

(5 steps)

A
  1. oral infection
  2. replication in pharynx & intestines
  3. lives in enterocytes
  4. systemic infection (immune response)
  5. widespread dissemination of virus
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75
Q

what age of cats is the most susceptible to FCoV infections causing FIP

A

< 2 years

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76
Q

name 3 clinical features/signs of wet FIP

A
  1. inflammation of blood vessels
  2. accumulation of high protein fluid in body cavities
  3. ascites, pleural or pericardial effusions
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77
Q

which type of FIP tends to be acute and rapidly progressive?

A

wet FIP

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78
Q

which type of FIP tends to be more chronic, vague & insidious?

A

dry FIP

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79
Q

what is the diagnostic test for FIP?

A

there is NO simple diagnostic test
(diagnosis is challenging)

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80
Q

name 4 fluid analysis tests of ascites/pleural fluid that confirm FIP

A
  1. Immunocytochemistry (ICC)
  2. Immunohistochemistry (IHC)
  3. Quantitative RT-PCR (qRT-PCR)
  4. Spike RT-PCR (Idexx)
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81
Q

what is currently the most successful treatment for FIP

A

GS-441524 / Remdesivir (prodrug; GS-5734)

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82
Q

Name 3 other treatments for FIP (besides GD-441524 & Remdesivir) that have had limited success (10-30%)

A
  1. Polyprenyl immuno-stimulant (dry FIP)
  2. Mefloquine
  3. 3C-like protease inhibitor, GC376
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83
Q

what is the major source of FCoV?

A

infected healthy carrier cats

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84
Q

name 5 ways to control FIP

A
  1. decr. stress, low disease state
  2. separate cats into sero-pos and neg groups
  3. close cattery for 6 months
  4. stop breeding for 6 months
  5. IN vaccine (not great protection)
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85
Q

name two examples of lunworm affecting cats in the UK

A
  1. Aelurostrongylus abtrusus
  2. Eucoleus aerophilus
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86
Q

name 3 ways to diagnose lung worm in a cat

A
  1. faecal exam (Baermann)
  2. PCR
  3. Throat swab/bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL)
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87
Q

How to treat lungworm in cats?

A

antihelminthics
(Fenbendazole - Panacur)

88
Q

what is the pathogenesis for Toxoplasmosis in Cats?

Toxoplasma gondii

A
  1. cats ingest bradyzoites in intermediate hosts
  2. replication in intestine
  3. sexual reproduction
  4. oocytsts shed in feces

(entero-epithelial cycle)

89
Q

how long does it take for Toxoplasma gondii oocysts passed in cat feces to sporulate and become infectious?

A

3 days

90
Q

how long can Toxoplasma gondii oocysts survive in the environment?

A

> 1 year

91
Q

how long will a previously unexposed cat shed T. gondii oocysts

A

3-10 days

92
Q

will immune cats still shed T. gondii oocysts?

A

no

93
Q

how to diagnose Toxoplasmosis in cats

A
  1. detection by qPCR
  2. organism in tissues (definitive diagnosis - problematic)
94
Q

name 3 ways to treat Toxoplasmosis in cats

A
  1. Clindamycin
  2. Azithromycin
  3. Prednisolone (on starting Tx w/ CNS infection)
95
Q

what percent of adult humans are Ab positive for T. gondii

A

30-70%

96
Q

most humans infected with T. gondii are asymptomatic; BUT when can infection be a risk

A

previously unexposed woman infected during pregnancy

97
Q

what increases the risk of toxoplasmosis in humans

A

eating undercooked meat
(NOT contact with cats)

98
Q

name 4 clinical signs/the pathogenesis of Feline Cow Pox

A
  1. small ulcerated nodule (from bite)
  2. secondary bacterial infection (cellulitis)
  3. nasal discharge, pneumonia & diarrhea after 5 days replication
  4. viremia to skin & many skin lesions after 10 days-several weeks
99
Q

how to diagnose Feline cow pox

A
  1. Pox crust - PCR
  2. Skin/lung FNA/biopsies
  3. positive Ab titre
100
Q

does Feline cow pox have a risk of zoonosis

A

YES, occassional, esp. in immunocompromised

101
Q

what is the treatment for feline cow pox

A

most heal (slowly);
maybe covering antibiotics

102
Q

what are the two types of Feline Mycobacterial Infections

A
  1. tuberculosis
  2. non-tuberculosis
103
Q

name 3 causes of Feline Tuberculosis

A
  1. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  2. M. microti
  3. M. bovis
104
Q

name 6 clinical signs of feline tuberculosis

A
  1. cutaneous lesions
  2. lymphadenopathy
  3. resp. signs
  4. arthritis
  5. weight loss
  6. occular signs
105
Q

name 4 radiographic signs of feline tuberculosis in the chest

A
  1. lung changes (diffuse)
  2. incr. lymph nodes
  3. mineralization
  4. pleural/pericardial fluid
106
Q

name 5 radiographic signs of feline tuberculosis in the abdomen

A
  1. enlargement of spleen/liver
  2. enlargement of mesenteric LN
  3. abd. masses
  4. ascites
  5. mineralization
107
Q

name 2 radiographic signs of feline tuberculosis in the skeleton

A
  1. osteomyelitis
  2. periarticular mineralization
108
Q

what is the main clinical sign of non-tuberculosis mycobacteria (NTM) infections in cats

A

panniculitis, cutaneous nodules

109
Q

what is the treatment for Feline TB

A

3 drugs for 3 months
(2 months beyond clinical resolution)

(Rifampcin-Pradofloxacin-Azithromycin)

110
Q

what kind of virus is Canine Distemper Virus (CDV)?
(enveloped? DNA/RNA? ss/ds?)

A

enveloped
RNA
single strand

111
Q

how is Canine Distemper Virus (CDV) spread?

A

aerosol

112
Q

what 3 things does the outcome of an infection depend on?

A
  1. immune status
  2. tropisms
  3. virulence
113
Q

name 5 GI clinical signs of Canine Distemper Virus (CDV)

A
  1. vomiting
  2. diarrhea
  3. anorexia
  4. dehydration
  5. weight loss
114
Q

name 3 respiratory clinical signs of Canine Distemper Virus (CDV)

A
  1. coughing
  2. bronchopneumonia
  3. oculo-nasal discharge
115
Q

name 4 ocular clinical signs of Canine Distemper Virus (CDV)

A
  1. bilateral muco-purulent conjunctivitis
  2. KCS (‘dry eye’)
  3. optic neuritis
  4. retinal degeneration
116
Q

name 3 dermatological clinical signs of Canine Distemper Virus (CDV)

A
  1. pustular dermatitis
  2. nasal & digital hyperkeratosis
  3. “hard-pad”
117
Q

name 4 neurological clinical signs of Canine Distemper Virus (CDV)

A
  1. vestibular
  2. seizures
  3. myoclonus
  4. ataxia
118
Q

what dental clinical sign can be seen with Canine Distemper Virus (CDV)

A

enamel & dentine damage
(with neonatal infection)

119
Q

name 4 non-specific laboratory abnormalities that may be present with Canine Distemper Virus (CDV)

A
  1. absolute lymphopenia
  2. distemper inclusions on blood smears
  3. non-specific serum changes related to dehydration
  4. incr. protein content & cell count in CSF
120
Q

what 3 specific diagnostics can be performed to diagnose Canine Distemper Virus (CDV)

A
  1. IFA test on conjunctical smears (Ag)
  2. ELISA anti-CDV IgG (Ab)
  3. qRT-PCR on CSF, resp. secretions (virus DNA)
121
Q

name 5 supportive therapies that can be given to treat a dog with Canine Distemper Virus (CDV)

A
  1. IVFT (intravenous fluid therapy)
  2. anti-emetics
  3. antibiotics for secondary infections
  4. analgesia for visceral pain
  5. anticonvulsants
122
Q

what is an upcoming treatment for Canine Distemper Virus (CDV)

(new specific antiviral in the last 2 years, not available yet)

A

Favipiravir

123
Q

what kind of virus is Infectious Canine Hepatitis - Canine Adenovirus-1 (CAV-1)?

(enveloped? dna/rna? ss/ds?)

A

non-enveloped
DNA
double stranded

124
Q

what virus causes Infectious Canine Hepatitis

A

Canine Adenovirus-1 (CAV-1)

125
Q

how is Infectious Canine Hepatitis transmitted?

A

oro-nasal infection
(NOT aerosol)

126
Q

name 6 hepatic clinical signs seen with Infectious Canine Hepatitis

A
  1. hepatocellular necrosis
  2. jaundice
  3. abdominal distention
  4. hepatomegaly
  5. abdominal pain
  6. hepatic encephalopathy (CNS)
127
Q

following oronasal infection, where does CAV-1 (canine adenovirus-1) initially localize?

A

the tonsils

128
Q

name 4 vascular clinical signs seen with Infectious Canine Hepatitis

A
  1. petechiation
  2. ecchymoses
  3. epistaxis
  4. intracranial bleeding (CNS sign)
129
Q

what ocular sign can be seen with Infectious Canine Hepatitis

A

corneal oedema “blue eye”

130
Q

name 4 acute differential diagnoses for jaundice
(besides Infectious Canine Hepatitis)

A
  1. acute haemolysis (IMHA)
  2. Leptospirosis
  3. Acute toxicity (paracetamol, mycotoxins)
  4. Acute obstruction (pancreatitis)
131
Q

name 4 non-specific diagnostics for Infectious Canine Hepatitis

A
  1. leukopenia, lymphopenia, neutropenia
  2. raised ALT, AST and SAP
  3. proteinuria
  4. coagulation abnormalities
132
Q

name 3 specific diagnostics for Infectious Canine Hepatitis

A
  1. PCR (viral DNA)
  2. Anti-CAV-1 Ab (serology)
  3. Histopathology (post-mortem)
133
Q

what is the treatment for Infectious Canine Hepatitis?

A

non-specific, supportive of symptoms

134
Q

what is the prognosis for Infectious Canine Hepatitis

A

guarded;
die or recover within 14 days

(10-30% mortality)

135
Q

what 3 viruses are associated with causing canine viral enteritis?

A
  1. Parvovirus (CPV) 1 and 2
  2. canine coronavirus
  3. canine rotavirus
136
Q

what kind of virus is Canine parvovirus (CPV)?

(enveloped? dna/rna? ss/ds?)

A

non-enveloped
DNA
double stranded

137
Q

what does canine parvovirus require for replication

A

actively dividing host cells

138
Q

what 3 tissues does canine parvovirus (CPV) have tropism for?

A
  1. bone marrow
  2. intestinal epithelial cells
  3. fetal tissues
139
Q

how is canine parvovirus (CPV) transmitted

A

oronasal

140
Q

which canine parvovirus (CPV) causes Parvoviral enteritis?

A

CPV-2

141
Q

following oronasal exposure, where does viral replication of canine parvovirus (CPV) occur (3 places)

A
  1. local lymphoid tissues of the oropharynx
  2. mesenteric lymph nodes
  3. thymus
142
Q

name 2 specific diagnostics for canine parvovirus (CPV)

A
  1. Faecal antigen test
  2. PCR (viral Ag/DNA in feces)
143
Q

what is the treatment for Canine Parvoviral Enteritis

A

symptomatic/supportive
(Interferon omega)

144
Q

what myocardial clinical sign may be seen with Canine Parvoviral Enteritis?

A

myocarditis (uncommon)

145
Q

name 5 clinical signs that may be seen with the gastrointestinal form of Canine Parvoviral Enteritis

A
  1. severe vomiting and diarrhea
  2. foul-smelling bloody diarrhea
  3. pyrexia followed by hypothermia
  4. DIC
  5. neurological signs
146
Q

what is the biggest vector/reservoir host of Leptospirosis

A

Rattus Norwegian
(Norwegian rat)

147
Q

what is the primary reservoir host of Leptospira interrogans icterohaemorrhagica?

A

rat
(L2 vaccine UK)

148
Q

what is the primary reservoir host of Leptospira interrogans canicola?

A

dog
(L2 vaccine UK)

149
Q

name 4 ways Leptospires can be transmitted by direct exposure

A
  1. urine
  2. bite wounds
  3. placental transfer
  4. ingestion of infected tissue
150
Q

name 1 way Leptospires can be transmitted by indirect exposure

A

contaminated water sources

(environmental)

151
Q

where do Leptospires penetrate first before multiplying and spreading to other tissues

A

mucus membranes

152
Q

what kind of bacteria is Leptospira interrogans

A

gram negative
spiral

153
Q

what two organs does bacteraemia caused by Leptospires have the biggest effect on

A

liver and kidneys

154
Q

what is recovery from Leptospirosis dependent on?

A

increase in serovar-specific antibody

(7-8 days after infection)

155
Q
A
156
Q

name 5 clinical signs seen with acute form of Leptospirosis

A
  1. anorexia, vomiting, abd. pain
  2. oliguria/anuria, or polyuria
  3. jaundice
  4. petechiation
  5. dyspnoea
157
Q

name 4 clinical signs seen with chronic form of Leptospirosis

A
  1. pyrexia of unknown origin (PUO)
  2. chronic kidney disease
  3. hepatic disease
  4. anterior uveitis
158
Q

name 3 non-specific laboratory findings for a dog with Leptospirosis

A
  1. leukocytosis +/- thrombocytopenia
  2. indicators of renal dysfunction (incr. urea, creatinine, SDMA; decr. USG)
  3. indicators of hepatic injury/dysfunction (incr. ALT, [S]AP, bilirubin
159
Q

name 2 non-specific radiographic findings for a dog with Leptospirosis

A
  1. incr. renomegaly and echogenicity
  2. hepatomegaly and biliary sludge
160
Q

name 3 serological techniques for a specific diagnosis of Leptospirosis

A
  1. Microscopic agglutiation testing (MAT)
  2. in-house ELISAs
  3. LipL 32 PCR on urine or blood

(ideally combine PCR with MAT)

161
Q

what stain should be used on tissue (liver and kidney) for Leptospirosis identification

A

IFA or silver stains

162
Q

what kind of microscope must be used for Leptospirosis identification

A

dark field microscopy

163
Q

what is the specific treatment/therapy for Leptospirosis

A

Antibiotics
(Amoxiclav or Doxy)

164
Q

what is the prognosis for Leptospirosis?

A

Fair with prompt treatment

165
Q

what are the 5 primary pathogens of Canine Infectious Respiratory Disease Complex (CIRDC)

A
  1. Bordatella Bronchiseptica
  2. Canine Distemper virus (CDV)
  3. Canine Adenovirus-2 (CAV-2)
  4. Canine parainfluenza virus (PI3)
  5. Canine influenza virus (CIV)
166
Q

what is Canine Infectious Respiratory Disease Complex (CIRDC) also known as

A

Kennel Cough

167
Q

name 4 ways that Canine Infectious Respiratory Disease Complex (CIRDC) is transmitted

(kennel cough)

A
  1. airborne transmission
  2. oronasal exposure
  3. environmental conditions
  4. high stocking density
168
Q

name 4 clinical signs of Canine Infectious Respiratory Disease Complex (CIRDC)

(kennel cough)

A
  1. paroxysmal coughing (3-10d following exposure)
  2. dry ‘hacking’ cough
  3. retching with expectoration
  4. bronchopneumonia or rhinitis/conjunctivitis (from secondary opportunistic infectons)
169
Q

how to treat an “uncomplicated” case of Canine Infectious Respiratory Disease Complex (CIRDC) with no bronchopneumonia

A

NSAID
anti-tussive?
antibiotics?

170
Q

how to treat a “complicated” case of Canine Infectious Respiratory Disease Complex (CIRDC) with bronchopneumonia

A
  1. antibiotics (based on cuture/sensitivity)
  2. supportive therapy
171
Q

name the 3 core vaccines for dogs in the UK

A
  1. CPV (canine parvovirus)
  2. CDV (canine distemper virus)
  3. ICH (infectious canine hepatitis)
172
Q

name 3 non-core vaccines for dogs in the UK

A
  1. Lepto
  2. B. bronchiseptica
  3. ParaInfluenza
173
Q

when should the Lepto vaccine be given to puppies?

A

at 8 weeks then either 10w (L2) or 12w (L4)

(4-6 weeks with L4)

174
Q

name the 5 requirements of the Pet Travel Scheme (PETS) for pet travel outside of the UK

A
  1. travel insurance
  2. micro-chipped for ID
  3. rabies vaccination (21 days b4 travel)
  4. animal health certificate (<10 days before)
  5. treatment for tapeworms for dogs
175
Q

name 4 clinical signs of Anaplasma phagocytophilum infection (transmitted by Ixodes ricinus)

A
  1. fever
  2. anorexia
  3. cough
  4. lame
176
Q

how to diagnose Anaplasma phagocytophilum?

A
  1. Serology (antibody) (IDEXX SNAP 4Dx)
  2. PCR
177
Q

how to treat Anaplasma phagocytophilum?

A

Doxycycline 2-4 weeks

178
Q

what two bacteria do Ixodes ricinus ticks transmit

A
  1. Anaplasma phagocytophilum
  2. Borrelia burgdorferi (Lyme disease)
179
Q

how long of tick attachment does transmission of Borrelia burgdorferi (Lyme disease) require?

A

> 24 h

180
Q

name 7 clinical signs of Borrelia burgdorferi (Lyme disease)

A
  1. fever
  2. anorexia
  3. swollen painful joints
  4. lymphadenopathy
  5. glomerulonephritis
  6. neurological
  7. myocarditis
181
Q

how to diagnose Borrelia burgdorferi (Lyme disease)

A
  1. history (tick exposure)
  2. clinical signs
  3. serology (antibody)
  4. PCR (poor sensitivity)
182
Q

how to treat Borrelia burgdorferi (Lyme disease)

A

doxycycline

183
Q

what cells does Erlichiosis (Erlichia canis) infect

A

monocytes

184
Q

what is the incubation period of Erlichiosis (Erlichia canis)

A

8-20 days

185
Q

what tick transmits Erlichiosis (Erlichia canis)

A

Rhipicephalus sanguineus

186
Q

name 5 acute clinical signs of Erlichiosis (Erlichia canis)

A
  1. fever, anorexia
  2. lymphadenopathy
  3. bleeding diatheses
  4. splenomegaly
  5. immune-complex deposition
187
Q

what is a chronic clinical sign of Erlichiosis (Erlichia canis)

A

bone marrow pancytopenia

188
Q

how to diagnose Erlichiosis (Erlichia canis)

A
  1. history
  2. CBC/chem
  3. Cytology
  4. Serology
  5. PCR (confirmatory test)
189
Q

what is the definitive treatment for Erlichiosis (Erlichia canis)

A

doxycycline (10-30d)
Pradofloxacin

190
Q

how long of attachment is needed for transmission of Babesiosis (Babesia canis)

A

~3h

191
Q

which tick transmits Babesiosis (Babesia canis)

A

Dermacentor reticulatus

192
Q

what cell type does Babesiosis (Babesia canis) affect

A

Red blood cells

193
Q

name 5 clinical signs of Babesiosis (Babesia canis)

A
  1. haemolysis (jaundice/haemoglobulinuria/anaemia)
  2. pyrexia
  3. anorexia
  4. lymphadenopathy
  5. splenomegaly
194
Q

how to diagnose Babesiosis (Babesia canis)

A
  1. history
  2. CBC/chem
  3. cytology
  4. capillary blood
  5. PCR
195
Q

how to treat large Babesiosis (Babesia canis)

A

Imidocarb (6.6 mg/kg IM)

(1 dose, poss. repeat in 15 d)

196
Q

name 3 supportive treatments for Babesiosis (Babesia canis)

A
  1. IVFT
  2. Blood transfusion
  3. corticosteroids
197
Q

what insect transmits Leishmaniasis (Leishmania infantum)

A

Phlebotomus sandfly

198
Q

what is the incubation period for Leishmaniasis (Leishmania infantum)

A

3 month - 7 years

199
Q

is Leishmaniasis (Leishmania infantum) zoonotic?

A

yes
(from the sandlies, not from the dog)

200
Q

name 5 clinical signs of cutaneous form of Leishmaniasis (Leishmania infantum)

A
  1. non-pruritic dermatitis and ulcers
  2. dry desquamation and alopecia
  3. focal pr diffuse nodular changes
  4. hyperkeratosis
  5. onychogryphosis (incr. nail growth)
201
Q

name 5 clinical signs of visceral form of Leishmaniasis (Leishmania infantum)

A
  1. generalized lymphadenopathy
  2. hepato-splenomegaly
  3. immune mediated (GN/IMPA/UV)
  4. epistaxis
  5. neurological signs
202
Q

name the two forms of Leishmaniasis (Leishmania infantum)

A
  1. cutaneous form (90%)
  2. visceral form (10%)
203
Q

how to diagnose Leishmaniasis (Leishmania infantum)

A
  1. history
  2. CBC/chem (globulins)
  3. urine
  4. cytology (often confirmed here)
  5. serology (for longterm monitoring of Ab)
  6. PCR
204
Q

what are the 3 treatment options for Leishmaniasis (Leishmania infantum)

A
  1. Meglumine antimonate (painful, daily injections)
  2. Miltefosine + Allopurinol
  3. Domperidone (boosts immunity, for stage 1 only)
205
Q

can you cure Leishmaniasis (Leishmania infantum)

A

NO
risk of relapse

(4-6 y after treatment)

206
Q

what virus family is Rabies a part of

A

Lyssavirus
(Rhabdoviridae)

207
Q

what disease has the highest mortality rate of any infectious disease

A

Rabies

208
Q

what kind of virus is Rabies?

(enveloped? DNA/RNA?)

A

enveloped
RNA

209
Q

what kind of virus is easier to kill/survives for shorter time in environment

A

enveloped

210
Q

name the 3 stages of Rabies

A
  1. predromal
  2. excitement
  3. paralytic
211
Q

name 3 signs of the predromal stage of Rabies

A
  1. different behavior
  2. pupil dilation 3rd eyelid
  3. ptyalism
212
Q

name 4 signs of the excitement stage of Rabies

A
  1. viscous
  2. dysphonia
  3. pytalism
  4. hydrophobia?
213
Q

how to diagnose Rabies

A

post-mortem brain

214
Q

how to treat a bitten vaccinated dog

A

vaccinate again and wait
(nothing effective once signs present)

215
Q

what kind of bacteria is Brucellosis (Brucella canis)

A

gram-negative

216
Q

how is Brucellosis (Brucella canis) transmitted

A
  1. Venereal (mainly semen and vaginal secretions)
  2. aborted material

Cat & Dog (19 decks)

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