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Cat & Dog > Diagnostic Imaging (1-6) > Flashcards

Diagnostic Imaging (1-6) Flashcards

1
Q

what phase of respiration do you want to take a thoracic radiograph during

A

inspiratory

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2
Q

do you want high or low contrast in a thoracic radiograph?

A

low contrast image

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3
Q

what kVp and mAs is needed for a low contrast image of the thorax

A

high kVp & low mAs

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4
Q

why do you need to take 3-views of the thorax?
and what are these 3 views

A

recumbent lung collapses under weight of the heart;
so take L lat. recumbency, R lat. recumbency, and VD/DV

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5
Q

what are the 5 Röntgen signs that every organ should be assessed for on radiography

A
  1. size
  2. shape
  3. opacity
  4. location
  5. number/presence
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6
Q

do cats have a clavicle?

A

yes, prominent

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7
Q

name 4 changes in the lungs that may be seen in an old dog
“old dog lungs”

A
  1. pleural thickening
  2. incr. bronchial mineralization
  3. incr. foci of heterotropic bone
  4. incr. lung opacity w/ interstitial pattern & bronchial mineralisation
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8
Q

name the order of the thorax anatomic approach to interpreting a radiograph

A
  1. non-thoracic soft tissue: neck and abdomen
  2. skeleton
  3. heart & vessels
  4. pleural space
  5. lungs (most difficult, do last)
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9
Q

where the pulmonary veins in relation to the bronchus

A

ventral & central

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10
Q

where are the pulmonary arteries in relation to the bronchus

A

dorsal & peripheral

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11
Q

on a lateral view, the cranial pulmonary vessel diameter should be smaller than what rib width?

A

< 4th proximal rib width

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12
Q

on a VD/DV radiographic view, the caudal pulmonary vessel diameters should be smaller than what rib width?

A

< 9th rib width at cross point

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13
Q

name 3 signs of hypovolaemia that can be seen on a thoracic radiograph

A
  1. small pulmonary arteries and veins
  2. small cardiac sillhouette
  3. hyperlucent lung fields, normal size
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14
Q

name 3 factors (not diseases) that might cause lungs to have increased opacity on radiography

A
  1. technical
  2. underinflation
  3. obese patient
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15
Q

name 2 factors (not diseases) that may cause lungs to have decreased opacity on a radiograph

A
  1. technical
  2. manual hyperinflation
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16
Q

name 3 reasons that lungs may have hyperinflation and decreased opacity on a radiograph

A
  1. stress
  2. emphysema
  3. reduced vascular blood supply
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17
Q

name 2 reasons lungs might be hypovascular and have decr. opacity on a radiograph

A
  1. shock, dehydration
  2. Addison’s disease
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18
Q

what 5 patterns can diffusely increased lung opacity have?

A
  1. alveolar
  2. bronchial
  3. vascular
  4. nodular
  5. unstructured interstitial
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19
Q

name the pattern of diffusely incr. lung opacity

white and fluffy

A

alveolar

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20
Q

name the pattern of diffusely incr. lung opacity

rings & tramlines

A

bronchial

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21
Q

name the pattern of diffusely incr. lung opacity

too mant too big vessels

A

vascular

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22
Q

name the pattern of diffusely incr. lung opacity

soft tissue nodules

A

nodular

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23
Q

name the pattern of diffusely incr. lung opacity

moderately incr. diffuse opacity;
vessels still visible

A

unstructured interstitial

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24
Q

name 4 causes of an alveolar lung pattern (soft tissue opaque lung)

A
  1. oedema
  2. inflammation/infection
  3. haemorrhage
  4. neoplasia
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25
Q

name 2 causes of ventral alveolar lung pattern

A
  1. pneumonia
  2. aspiration pneumonia
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26
Q

name a cause perihilar alveolar lung pattern

A

canine cardiogenic pulmonary oedema

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27
Q

name 2 causes of caudodorsal alveolar lung pattern

A
  1. non-cardiogenic oedema
  2. inhaled foreign body pneumonia
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28
Q

name 2 causes of diffuse alveolar lung pattern

A
  1. haemorrhage
  2. viral pneumonia
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29
Q

name 3 Roentgen signs of alveolar lung pattern

A
  1. soft tissue opacity w/o distinguishable vessels
  2. airbronchograms
  3. border effacement
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30
Q

name 2 features of bronchial lung pattern

A
  1. bronchial thickening, bronchiectasis
  2. bronchial mineralization
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31
Q

name 5 things that may cause interstitial lung pattern on radiograph

A
  1. underexposure
  2. expiration
  3. interstitial oedema
  4. inflammation
  5. cellular infiltrate
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32
Q

name the 2 possible types of expansion with chest wall masses

A
  1. intrathoracic expansion
  2. extrathoracic expansion
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33
Q

name 2 possible congenital malformations of the ribs

A
  1. pectus excavatum
  2. pectus carinatum
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34
Q

name 3 possible types of fractures of the ribs

A
  1. acute with sharp margins
  2. chronic (often malunion or non-union)
  3. flail chest
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35
Q

name 2 common incidental findings of the ribs
(not a clinical concern)

A
  1. mineralized rib cartilage
  2. canine osteochondromas
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36
Q

what recumbency is the patient in?

Y-shaped dorsal hemidiaphragms;
Caudal Vena Cava (CVC) continues to more caudal right hemidiaphragm

A

left lateral recumbency

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37
Q

what recumbency is the patient in?

parallel dorsal hemidiaphragms;
Caudal Vena Cava (CVC) ends at more cranial right hemidiaphragm

A

right lateral recumbency

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38
Q

what does cranial diaphragmatic displacement usually indicate

A

space-occupying lesion in the abdomen

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39
Q

what does caudal diaphragmatic displacement usually indicate

A

space-occupying lesion in the thorax

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40
Q

what 3 things can cause lung-chest wall separation (abnormalities in pleural space)

A
  1. fluid
  2. soft tissue mass
  3. gas
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41
Q

name 3 radiographic signs of pleural effusion

A
  1. fissure lines
  2. cardiac border effacement
  3. separation lung - boundaries (lung lobe retraction)
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42
Q

what might scalloping (undulating lung margin) on a thoracic radiograph indicate

A
  1. pyothorax
  2. chylothorax
  3. chronic hydrothorax
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43
Q

this is a localized pleural soft tissue opacity ;
mole hill-like medial deviation of pulmonary margins ;
differentiates thoracic wall from lung mass

A

extrapleural sign

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44
Q

what 5 structures are normally visible on radiograph in the mediastinum

A
  1. trachea with carina
  2. caudal vena cava
  3. aorta
  4. parts of oesophagus
  5. juvenile thymus
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45
Q

name 4 possible pathologies of the mediastinum

A
  1. pneumomediastinum
  2. shift
  3. widening
  4. masses
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46
Q

what is the cardiac sillhouette comprised of

A
  1. heart
  2. pericardium
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47
Q

what 4 things should you assess of the cardiac silhouette

A
  1. size
  2. shape
  3. position
  4. opacity
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48
Q

name 3 radiographic signs of left sided cardiomegaly in a dog

A
  1. pronounced left atrium with straightened dorsocaudal silhouette
  2. dorsal tracheal displacement pivoting at carina
  3. pulmonary venomegaly & oedema
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49
Q

name 4 radiogaphic signs of R sided cardiomegaly in a dog

A
  1. enlarged cardiac silhouette
  2. pronounced R ventricle
  3. dorsal tracheal displacement pivoting cranial to carina
  4. inverse D shape
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50
Q

name 2 radiographic signs of feline hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A
  1. enlarged cardiac silhouette
  2. pronounced R & L atria (valentine’s shaped heart)
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51
Q

name 2 radiographic signs of canine heartworm disease (Dirofilariasis)

A
  1. R heart enlargement (inverse D-shape)
  2. enlarged and tortuous pulmonary arteries
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52
Q

name 3 radiographic signs of pericardial effusion

A
  1. enlarged & round cardiac silhouette
  2. sharp margins of cardiac silhouette
  3. indented silhouette margin at diaphragmatic/sternal contact
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53
Q

name the term

incomplete maturation of cartilage into bone;
very rare in cats

A

osteochondrosis

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54
Q

name the term

when osteochondral fragment separates from subchondral bone

A

Osteochondrosis dissecans (OCD)

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55
Q

name the term

increased laxity of the hip joint;
most common orthopedic condition in dog, rare in cats;
leads to subluxation & DJD

A

hip dysplasia

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56
Q

The femoral head should be covered by how much of teh dorsal acetabular edge on radiograph?

A

at least 50%

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57
Q

on a radiograph of the hip, where should there be parallel femur and acetabulum margins at?

A

cranial acetabular edge

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58
Q

this is a caudal curvilinear osteophyte on a hip radiograph;
earliest osteophyte, prognostic indicator for developing DJD

A

Morgan line

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59
Q

name the hip dysplasia scoring method

3 radiographic views (hips extende, distracted, compressed);
static and dynamic joint laxity;
greater than 4 months of age;
only by certified vet;
Distraction index (DI) = degree of subluxation;
results given in relation to all dogs of breed in database

A

PennHIP method

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60
Q

name the hip dysplasia scoring method

can be performed by every vet;
very widely available;
12-24 months;
no breed average given;
not all studies submitted;
femoral head subluxation is underscored

A

BVA/OFA/FCI

61
Q

name the condition

canine ischemic femoral head necrosis;
occurs in young breed dogs;
almost always unilateral;
ischemic progressive necrosis of the femoral head epiphysis;
unknown cause but not progressive

A

Legg-Calve-Perth disease

62
Q

what is the treatment of choice for canine ischemic femoral head necrosis (Legg-Calve-Perth disease)

A

femoral head excision

63
Q

name the condition

occurs in 1-2 year old cats, often male and obese;
femoral head physeal cartilage does not mature into bone;
leads to non-traumatic femoral head physeal slip fracture (SH type 1)

A

feline femoral head physeal dysplasia

64
Q

name the condition

developmental abnormality leading to malformation & degeneration of the elbow joint;
very common in young, large breed dogs;
genetic disease;
umbrella term for separate conditions

A

canine elbow dysplasia (ED)

65
Q

name 6 conditions included under the umbrella term of canine elbow dysplasia (ED)

A
  1. elbow incongruity
  2. fragmented medial coronoid process
  3. united anconeal process
  4. osteochondrosis of the humeral condyle
  5. incomplete ossification of the humeral condyle
  6. Patella cubiti
66
Q

name the form of elbow dysplasia

incongruence of radio-ulnar, humero-ulnar, OR humero-radial joint ;
often related to groeth disturbance of proximal or distal physis

A

elbow incongruity

67
Q

name the form of elbow dysplasia

most common form of elbow dysplasia;
likely short radius - increased load on MCP;
leads to sclerosis, fissures, and fragmentation

A

fragmented medial coronoid process (FMCP)

68
Q

name the form of elbow dysplasia

only occurs in some breeds (GSD, great dane, basset hound, etc);
anconeal proxess is separate ossification centre, failure of fusion with olecranon before 20 weeks of age;
Rads: irregular radiolucent line in dogs older than 20 wks, adjacent sclerosis, proximal displacement of AP, best seen on lateral flexed view

A

ununited anconeal process (UAP)

69
Q

name the form of elbow dysplasia

small osteochondral defect medial aspect of humeral condyle;
large surrounding sclerosis

A

osteochondrosis of the humeral condyle

70
Q

name the form of elbow dysplasia

lack of fusion of medial & lateral humeral condyle, remnant fibrocartilage;
common in spaniel breeds;
prodromal lameness & pain;
radiography very poor, CT modality of choice

A

incomplete ossification of the Humeral Condyle (IOHC)

71
Q

name the form of elbow dysplasia

very rare developmental or congenital condition in young large breed dogs without trauma history;
olecranon is separated from rest of ulna at level of elbow joint;
proximal ulnar physis can be normal or irregular;
not painful, often no surgical treatment required

A

Patella cubiti

72
Q

name the condition

= osteoarthritis;
initial cartilage degeneration & sec changes;
very common, debilitating disease of dogs and cats;
Rads: subchondral bone sclerosis, joint effusion, subluxation, periarticular osteophytosis

A

degenerative joint disease (DJD)

73
Q

what two things can a ligament connect
(2 options)

A
  1. bone-bone
  2. organ-organ
74
Q

what two things does a tendon connect?

A

bone-muscle

75
Q

what does the prefix Desmo- indicate?

A

ligament

76
Q

name the condition

infectious, immune-mediated myositis;
degenerative overuse;
genetic diseases (muscular dystrophy)

A

myopathies

77
Q

name the condition

non-infectious, inflammatory bone marrow lesion in young dogs;
usually large breed, 5-18 months old;
lameness & pain on palpation, fever, anorexia;
Rads: incr. medullary opacity, sometimes as “thumbprint” in long bones, often near nutrient foramen, rarely secondary endosteal or periosteal reaction

A

panosteitis

78
Q

name the condition

synonym: hypertrophic osteodystrophy (HOD);
idiopathic, non-infectious, inflammatory polyostotic lesion, usually symmetric;
young dogs (2-6 mo) with fever and pain;
initially metaphyseal osteolysis

A

metaphyseal osteopathy

79
Q

name the condition

synonyms: Marie’s disease, Cadiot-Ball;
rare condition in many species;
cause unknown;
periosteal palisading periosteal reaction secondary to thoracic or abdominal mass lesion;
bilaterally symmetric diffuse periosteal reaction

A

hypertrophic (pulmonary) osteopathy

80
Q

what type of immune-mediated arthropathies are these an example of?

  1. Joint effusion & ostelysis
  2. canine rheumatoid arthritis
  3. Feline progressive polyarthritis
  4. polyarthritis of Greyhounds
A

erosive

81
Q

what type of immune-mediated arthropathies are these an example of?

  1. joint effusion
  2. idiopathic
  3. systemic lupus erythematosus
  4. feline progressive polyarthritis
A

non-erosive

82
Q

name the condition

post traumatic non-vitalised bone fragment;
usually dense and initially sharply marginated;
serves as nidus or infection, often with draining tract;
usually requires surgical debridement

A

sequestrum formation

83
Q

name the condition

insidious chronic infection following bite from infected prey species ;
proliferative and/or osteolytic bone changes

A

Feline mycobacteriosis

84
Q

name the 11 organs to scan with ultrasound on the Left-side (patient in R lateral recumbency)

A
  1. liver
  2. stomach
  3. spleen
  4. L kidney & ovary
  5. L adrenal gland
  6. L lobe of pancreas
  7. L medial iliac LN & vessels
  8. Urinary bladder
  9. prostate/uterus
  10. jejunum & peritoneum
  11. descending colon
85
Q

name the 12 organs to scan with ultrasound on the right-side (patient in L lateral recumbency)

A
  1. urinary bladder
  2. R medial ilian LN & vessels
  3. R kidney & ovary
  4. R adrenal gland
  5. R lobe of pancreas
  6. body of pancreas
  7. duodenum
  8. ileum
  9. prostate/uterus
  10. caecum, ascending & transverse colon
  11. liver & gall bladder
  12. testicles
86
Q

name the material based on U/S characteristics

anaechoic pattern;
acoustic enhancement artifact that makes all organs more echogenic than normal

A

free fluid

87
Q

name the material based on U/S characteristics

anechoic pattern;
refractive peripheral shadows;
acoustic enhancement;
sharp border outlines;
defined far walls are usually seen

A

encapsulated cystic fluid

88
Q

name the material based on U/S characteristics

variable echo patterns;
peripheral shadows variable;
acoustic enhancement presence variable;
may see swirling on ballotement

A

cellular or viscous fluids

89
Q

name the material based on U/S characteristics

multiple small but sharp reverberation-like echos within the anechoic fluid

A

suspended gas, ingesta or pus

90
Q

name the material based on U/S characteristics

intensively reflective (30-60%) - hyperechoic;
rest of the echoes are absorbed and will result in acoustic shadowing of deeper structures

A

bones, calcified tissue & calculi

91
Q

name the material based on U/S characteristics

intensely reflective (99%) thus hyperechoic interface;
generated variable degrees of underlying reverberation and partial shadowing

A

gas

92
Q

list 6 abdominal structures from least to most echogenic

(for most cats love sunny places)

A
  1. fluid
  2. medulla (renal)
  3. cortex (renal)
  4. liver
  5. spleen
  6. prostate/peritonitis
93
Q

name 4 large and readily visualised (by U/S) abdominal viscera

(first day competencies)

A
  1. liver and gallbladder
  2. spleen
  3. kidneys
  4. urinary bladder
94
Q

name the common findings of the liver on U/S

multiple poorly defined hypoechoic nodules;
becomes more prolific as dogs age;
incidental

A

nodular hyperplasia

95
Q

name 2 differential diagnoses for diffusely hyperechoic parencyma of the liver seen on U/S

A
  1. fatty/non-fatty vacuolar hepatopathy
  2. steroid hepatopathy
96
Q

name the common findings of the spleen on U/S

incidental;
hyperechoic tissue surrounding splenic vasculature at hilus

A

myelolipomata

97
Q

name the common findings of the kidney on U/S

shadowing structure with a hyperechoic interface

A

renoliths

98
Q

name the common findings of the kidney on U/S

thin walled anechoic with diswtal acoustic enhancement;
congenital/acquired

A

renal cysts

99
Q

name the common findings of the kidney on U/S

increased cortical echogenicity;
loss of corticomedullary distinction;
smaller kidney with irregular margin (end stage)

A

chronic kidney disease

100
Q

name the common finding of the urinary bladder on U/S

gravity-dependent, hyperechoic, speckled material

A

sediment

101
Q

name the common finding of the urinary bladder on U/S

gravity-dependent, hyperechoic shadowing structures

A

cystoliths

102
Q

name the common finding of the urinary bladder on U/S

irregularly marginated, pedunculated trigone mass originating from UB-wall and projecting into the UB-lumen

A

urothelial carcinoma (TCC)

103
Q

name the 4 portions of the GIT that is fixed and easier to visualise on U/S

A
  1. stomach
  2. descending duodenum
  3. ileum/ICCJ
  4. colon
104
Q

name the 2 hypoechoic layers of the GIT

A
  1. mucosa
  2. muscularis

(the two M’s)

105
Q

name the 2 hyperechoic layers of the GIT

A
  1. submucosa
  2. serosa

(the two S’s)

106
Q

what is the echogenicity of a normal mesenteric lymph node

A

isoechoic to the mesentery

107
Q

what is the echogenicity of a reactive or neoplastic mesenteric lymph node

A

hypoechoic

108
Q

where to center the x-ray for stomach and liver radiographs of a large dog?

A

on last rib

109
Q

where to center the x-ray for caudal organ radiograph of a large dog

A

mid abdomen

110
Q

where to center the x-ray for whole abdominal organs radiographs of small or medium size dog

A

on last rib

111
Q

what Kv and mAs levels do you want for abdominal radiographs

A

low Kv and high mAs

112
Q

this provides good contrast in the cat to visualise the ventral margin of the liver

A

falciform fat

113
Q

name the organ

craniventral abdomen;
traingular, sharp margins, within the rib cage or extending just beyond

A

liver

114
Q

name 5 common causes of diffuse hepatomegaly

A
  1. hepatic venous congestion (R heart failure)
  2. endocrine & metabolic disease
  3. inflammation (hepatitis/cholangiohepatitis)
  4. infiltrative neoplasia
  5. nodular hyperplasia (dogs)
115
Q

name the organ

head visible on VD projection on the left cranial aspect of the abdomen;
tail not usually seen on lateral abdominal film in a cat

A

spleen

116
Q

how wide must the small intestinal diameter be in order for it to be considered abnormal distension in a cat

A

wider than 12 mm

117
Q

how wide must the small intestinal diameter be in order for it to be considered abnormal distension in a dog

A

SI max / L5 vert. body height > 2.4

118
Q

what should the diameter of the colon be in a dog

A

less than the length of the body of L7

119
Q

what should the diameter of the colon be in a cat

A

2.2x the sm. intest. diameter
OR
2.8x the length of the cranial endplate of L2

120
Q

name 6 abdominal organs/structures that are not normally visible on radiograph

A
  1. adrenals
  2. pancreas
  3. ovaries
  4. sublumbar lymph nodes
  5. uterus
  6. prostate
121
Q

what is the modality of choice for head & spine imaging?

A

MRI

122
Q

what is the first line diagnostic imaging tool for eye and orbit

A

ultrasound
(CT/MRI is second line)

123
Q

what is the modality of choice for imaging nose, pharynx, larynx, oral cavity, and ears

A

CT

124
Q

what is the modality of choice for imaging dental structures

A

intraoral radiography

125
Q

name the parathyroid gland disease

parathyroid neoplasia (carcinoma);
single with atrophy of other PTs;
commonly multiple PT tumours

A

primary hyperparathyroidism

126
Q

name the parathyroid gland disease

nutritional: due to calcium deficient diet or malabsorption;
renal: excessive urinary Ca loss due to impaired renal Ca reabsorption;
both: enlarged PT glands

A

secondary hyperparathyroidism

127
Q

name the parathyroid gland disease

paraneoplastic syndrome: non-PT tumour produces PT-like hormone (lymphoma, other neo);
atrophied 4 PT glands

A

tertiary hyperparathyroidism

128
Q

what is the normal diameter of the parathyroid glands

A

1-3mm

129
Q

name the condition caused by hyperparathyroidism

marked mandibular osteopenia;
‘floating teeth’

A

“rubber jaw”

130
Q

name the nasal disease

bacterial, viral, parasitic;
bilaterally symmetric secretion;
no mass lesion;
turbinate destruction rare

A

rhinitis

131
Q

name the nasal disease

unilateral & rostral turbinate lysis;
most are radiolucent plant material

A

inhaled foreign body

132
Q

name the nasal disease

early stage: unilateral turbinate destruction and mass lesion;
mostly caudal location

A

nasal neoplasia

(adenocarcinoma, squamous carcinoma, sarcoma)

133
Q

name the nasal disease

mostly unilateral & rostral turbinate lysis, secretion, no mass;
frontal sinus hyperostosis;
fungal rhinitis

A

canine aspergillosis

134
Q

name the nasal disease

mass lesion affecting dorsal nasal wall;
marked retropharyngeal lymphadenopathy;
fungal rhinitis

A

feline cryptococcosis

135
Q

name the nasal disease

insidious chronic infection following bite from infected prey species;
proliferative and/or osteolytic bone changes

A

feline mycobacteriosis

136
Q

name the bone proliferative disorder

  • non-neoplastic, non-infectious
  • unknown aetiology, genetic link in West Highland White Terriers (WHWT)
  • occurs in young dogs, 3-8mo
  • palisading new bone formation symmetric or occasionally asymmetric on mandible, tympanic bullae & TMJ, frontal bone and calvinarium
  • can have calvarial hyperostosis
  • present with pain and inability to open mouth
A

craniomandibular osteopathy

137
Q

name the cranial disease

distension of the ventricular system;
dome shaped cranium, thin cortices, open frontanelles

A

hydrocephalus internus

138
Q

name the incidental vertebral radiographic finding

bridging new bone formation between 2 vertebral endplates;
ventral & lateral;
suggests instability, but not sufficient for clinical diagnosis

A

spondylosis deformans

139
Q

name the incidental vertebral radiographic finding

continuous new bone formation of 3 or more vertebrae;
common in Boxer dogs

A

disseminated idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis (DISH)

140
Q

how much bone loss must there be before osteolysis can be appreciated radiographically

A

at least 30%

141
Q

name 4 radiographic signs of disk degeneration

A
  1. disk space narrowing
  2. vertebral endplate sclerosis
  3. mineralised disk material
  4. gas in disk space (‘vacuum sign’)
142
Q

name the spinal cord disease

  • infection of the intervertebra disk and endplates, can extend to articular process joints
  • bacterial or fungal in origin, haematogenous spread
  • osteolysis and later osteoproliferation of both endplates
  • collapsing intervertebral disk space
  • with time, smooth new bone formation and block vertebra formation
  • difficult to determine radiographically when healed
A

Diskospondylitis

143
Q

this is a radiographic contrast study where iodinated contrast medium is injected into the subarachnoid space

A

myelography

144
Q

name 3 possible abnormalities of the contrast columns surrounding the spinal cord

A
  1. deviation
  2. thinning/disappearance
  3. splitting
145
Q

name the spinal cord contrast column abnormality

  • most common type
  • spinal cord/cauda equina is compressed by a lesion outside of the dural sac
  • thinning and axial deviation of contrast column near the lesion
  • thinning of opposite contast column
  • on orthogonal view: both contrast columns can be widened and thinned
  • ex: intervertebral disk extrusion or protrusion, vertebral neoplasia
A

extradural compressive lesion

146
Q

name the spinal cord contrast column abnormality

  • most rare type
  • spinal cord/cauda equina is compressed by a lesion within the subarachnoid space
  • golf tee sign: widened column with central oval filling defect
  • creates a split of contrast column but with rounded margin
  • ex: nerve root tumour, meningioma
A

intradural-extramedullary lesion

147
Q

name the spinal cord contrast column abnormality

  • relatively rare, but important
  • spinal cord is swollen
  • thinning and abaxial deviation of all contrast columns
  • ex: spinal oedema, parenchymal hemorrhage, inflammation, infection, neoplasia
A

intramedullary lesion

148
Q
A

Cat & Dog (19 decks)

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