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Troy PPL > Operations of Systems > Flashcards

Operations of Systems Flashcards

1
Q

what are the 4 main control surfaces (NOT PRIMARY FLIGHT CONTROLS)

A

elevators, ailerons, rudder, and trim tabs

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2
Q

what do elevators do

A

control movement of plane over the lateral axis, also called PITCH

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3
Q

what do the ailerons do

A

control the planes movement of the longitudinal axis, also called ROLL

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4
Q

what does the rudder do

A

controls movement of airplane of the vertical axis, also called YAW

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5
Q

what do trim tabs do

A

labor-saving devices that enable pilot to release manual pressure on controls

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6
Q

how are the various flight controls operated

A

through the use of a rod or cable system

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7
Q

what are flaps

A

movable panels on inboard trailing edges of wings

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8
Q

what are the functions of flaps

A

to permit a slower airspeed and a steeper angle of descent during a landing approach and also, in some cases, shorten takeoff distance

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9
Q

what landing gear system does the C-172S have

A

a tricycle landing gear with 2 main wheels and a steerable, hydraulic nose-wheel

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10
Q

describe the braking system on the C-172S

A

hydraulically actuated disc-type breaks on each main wheel

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11
Q

how are the brakes connected to the cabin in a 172s

A

the hydraulic line connects each brake to a master cylinder located on each pilots rudder petal

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12
Q

how is steering accomplished on the ground

A

with nose-wheel steering with s system linkage through the rudders

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13
Q

what type of engine does the C-172S have

A

Lycoming IO-360

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14
Q

specific details of the C-172S engine

A

horizontally opposed, direct drive, normally aspirated, fuel injected, air cooled with 360 cu. in. of displacement

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15
Q

what are the 4 strokes of an engine in each cylinder

A

intake, compression, power, and exhaust

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16
Q

describe the intake phase in a cylinder

A

the piston starts downward travel, causing intake valve to open and fuel-air mixture to be drawn into the cylinder

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17
Q

describe the compression phase in a cylinder

A

intake valve closes, piston starts to move back up to top

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18
Q

describe the power phase in a cylinder

A

the fuel-air mixture is ignited which causes tremendous pressure increase and forces cylinder downward creating power to turn the crankshaft

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19
Q

describe the exhaust phase in a cylinder

A

purges cylinder of burned gases and begins when exhaust valve opens and piston moves toward cylinder head again

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20
Q

what does the carburetor do

A

process of mixing fuel and air in correct porportions

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21
Q

how does carb heat system work

A

controlled by pilot to let unfiltered, heated air from a shroud around the exhaust riser or muffler

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22
Q

what change occurs to the fuel/air mixture when applying carb heat

A

less air is involved because the air is warmer and less dense, causing the mixture to richen since fuel flow stays the same

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23
Q

what does the throttle do

A

allows the pilot to manually control the amount of fuel/air charge entering the cylinders

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24
Q

what does the mixture control do

A

controls the fuel-to-air ratio

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25
Q

describe a fuel-injection system

A

injects fuel directly into the cylinders just ahead of the intake valve

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26
Q

what does the engine-driven fuel pump do

A

provides fuel under pressure from the fuel take to the fuel/air control unit

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27
Q

what is the fuel/air control unit

A

meters fuel based on the mixture control setting and sends it to the fuel manifold valve

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28
Q

what does the fuel manifold valve do

A

distributes fuel to the individual fuel discharge nozzles

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29
Q

purpose of discharge nozzles in a fuel injected system

A

in each cylinder head, these inject the fuel/air mixture at the precise time for each cylinder directly into the cylinder intake port

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30
Q

auxiliary fuel pump in a fuel injected system purpose

A

provides fuel under pressure to fuel/air control unit for engine starting and/or emergency use

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31
Q

fuel pressure/flow indicators

A

measures metered fuel pressure/flow

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32
Q

what type of ignition system does the C-172S have

A

the engine ignition has 2 engine driven magnetos and 2 spark plugs per cylinder

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33
Q

is the ignition system in a 172 independent from the electrical system and why/why not

A

yes because the magnetos are engine-driven self-contained units that supply electrical current without an external source of current once the engine is started

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34
Q

what are the 2 main advantages of a dual ignition system

A
  1. increased safety - incase 1 fails, there’s a backup
  2. more complete and even combustion of the mixture and improved engine performance
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35
Q

what is the purpose of fuel tank vents

A

it allows the air to enter the fuel tank in order to not create a vacuum as fuel is burned

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36
Q

what type of fuel does the C-172S require

A

either Grade 100 or 100LL

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37
Q

what color is grade 100 fuel

A

green

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38
Q

what color is grade 100LL fuel

A

blue

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39
Q

can you put any other type of fuel into the engine other than what is needed by the C-172S

A

no

40
Q

function of the manual primer and how does it operate

A

provide assistance in starting the engine. it draws fuel from fuel strainer and injects it directly into cylinder intake ports

41
Q

what is the electrical system in the C-172S

A

Abelt-driven, 28 volt, 60 ampere alternator

42
Q

how are the circuits protected within the aircraft

A

by circuit breakers, fuses, or both

43
Q

what does the ammeter indicate

A

the flow of current in amps from the alternator to the battery or from battery to the electrical system

44
Q

function of the voltage regulator

A

a device which monitors system voltage, detects changes, and makes the required adjustment in the output of the alternator

45
Q

why is the generator/alternator voltage output slightly higher than the battery voltage

A

the difference keeps the battery charged

46
Q

how does aircraft cabin heat work

A

fresh air, heated by exhaust shroud, is directed to the cabin through a series of ducts

47
Q

how does the pilot control temp in the cabin

A

by mixing outside air with cabin heat

48
Q

5 basic functions of the aircraft engine oil

A

lubricate, cools, removes (heat), seals, and cleans

49
Q

how does an aircraft deicing system work

A

boots on the leading edge of the wings inflate and deflate

50
Q

what is detonation

A

an uncontrolled, explosive ignition of the fuel/air mixture in the cylinder

51
Q

what are the effects of detonation

A

excessive temperatures and pressure that can lead to the failure of the piston, cylinder, or valves

52
Q

what is detonation characterized by

A

high cylinder head temperatures

53
Q

what are common causes for detonation

A

using lower fuel grade than needed, operating with extremely high manifold pressure with low RPM, engine at high power setting with excessively lean mixture, or extended ground/steep climbs where cylinder cooling is reduced

54
Q

how do you stop detonation

A

make sure mixture is enriched and its the right fuel being used, lower pitch angle to get air into the cowling

55
Q

what is preignition

A

when fuel/air mixture ignites prior to engines normal ignition event resulting in reduced engine power and high operating temps

56
Q

what do you do to stop preignition

A

anything to cool the engine

57
Q

what does it mean when if you switch the mag from both to right and there is no RPM drop

A

the left P-lead is not grounding

58
Q

what action should be done if ammeter indicates a continuous discharge in flight

A

the alternator has quit. you should turn off the alternator and pull the circuit breaker and turn off all electrical equipment that is nonessential to flight

59
Q

what does it mean if your oil pressure is low but temp is normal

A

it could be many things, most being low amount of oil. it could also be a clogged oil pressure relief valve or an oil pressure gauge malfunction

60
Q

what should you do following a partial loss of power in flight

A

check fuel in each tank, check fuel selected valve and shutoff valve position, check mixture control, check operation of mags

61
Q

what should you do in an engine fire

A

idle the mixture, shutoff fuel flow, turn master off, set cabin heat and air vents to off, establish airspeed of 100knots and execute forced landing checklist

62
Q

what instruments run off of the pitot/static system

A

altimeter, VSI, airspeed indicator

63
Q

how does an altimeter work

A

an aneroid barometer that measures absolute pressure of the air and displays it in terms of feet above a selected pressure level

64
Q

what is absolute altitude

A

vertical distance of an aircraft above the terrain

65
Q

what is indicated altitude

A

the altitude read directly from the altimeter after it is set to the current altimeter setting

66
Q

what is pressure altitude

A

the altitude when altimeter is adjusted to 29.92

67
Q

what is true altitude

A

the true vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level

68
Q

what is density altitude

A

pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temp variations

69
Q

how does the airspeed indicator operate

A

it measures the difference between ram pressure from the pitot head and undisturbed atmospheric pressure from the static source

70
Q

what is the limitation of the airspeed indicator

A

it is subject to improper flow of air in the pitot/static system

71
Q

what is position error of the airspeed indicator

A

static ports sensing erroneous static pressure; slipstream flow disturbs the port preventing actual atmospheric pressure

72
Q

what is the density error of the airspeed indicator

A

changes in altitude and temp aren’t compensated by the instrument

73
Q

what is the compressibility error of the airspeed indicator

A

caused by packing or air into the pitot tube at high airspeeds, resulting in a higher than normal indication

74
Q

what is indicated airspeed

A

speed of airplane as observed on the airspeed indicator, without corrections

75
Q

what is calibrated airspeed

A

airspeed reading corrected for position and instrument errors.

76
Q

when does calibrated airspeed equal true air speed

A

at sea level in standard atmospheric conditions

77
Q

what is equivalent airspeed

A

airspeed indicator reading corrected for position, or instrument error, and for adiabatic compressible flow from the particular altitude

78
Q

what is true airspeed

A

it is calibrated airspeed corrected for altitude and nonstandard pressure

79
Q

what does Va stand for

A

maximum speed at which the structural designs limit load can be imposed

80
Q

what does VLO stand for (v-speed)

A

maximum speed for extending or retracting the landing gear

81
Q

what does Vx stand for

A

best angle of climb over a certain amount of distance

82
Q

what does Vy stand for

A

best rate of climb over a given period of time

83
Q

what does Vso stand for

A

stall speed landing configuration

84
Q

what does Vfe stand for

A

maximum flap extension speed

85
Q

what does Vs1 stand for

A

stall speed clean or specified configuration

86
Q

what does Vno stand for

A

maximum structural cruising speed

87
Q

what does Vne stand for

A

never exceed speed

88
Q

how does the vertical speed indicator work

A

a pressure differential instrument that uses an aneroid. as aircraft ascends, the static pressure becomes lower and the pressure inside the case compresses the aneroid

89
Q

what are the limitations of the vertical speed indicator

A

not accurate until aircraft is stabilized

90
Q

what instruments contain gyroscopes

A

the turn coordinator, the heading indicator (directional gyro), and the attitude indicator (artificial horizon)

91
Q

what are the 2 main fundamental properties for a gyroscope

A

rigidity in space and precession

92
Q

what is rigidity in space in reference to a gyroscope

A

the gyroscope remains in a fixed position in the plane in which it is spinning

93
Q

what is precession relating to a gyroscope

A

the tilting or turning of a gyro in response to a deflective force

94
Q

how does the vacuum system operate

A

an engine-driven vacuum pump provides suction which pulls air from the instrument case

95
Q

how does the attitude indicator work

A

the gyro is mounted on a horizontal plane and depends upon rigidity

Troy PPL (7 decks)

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