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Troy PPL > Cross Country Flight Planning > Flashcards

Cross Country Flight Planning Flashcards

1
Q

the 3 most common ways to navigate are

A

Pilotage, dead reckoning, or radio nav

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2
Q

what is pilotage

A

visible landmarks used for navigation

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3
Q

what is dead reckoning

A

navigational use for finding position by computing direction and distance from a known point

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4
Q

what is the most common aeronautical chart to use in VFR Navigation

A

sectional chart

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5
Q

are electronic flight bags (EFBs) approved for use as replacement for paper reference materials in the cockpit?

A

yes

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6
Q

what is an isogonic line

A

on most aeronautical charts, broken magenta lines that connect points of equal magnetic variation

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7
Q

what is magnetic variation

A

angle between true north and magnetic north

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8
Q

what are the limitations (if any) to VOR reception distances)

A

they are subject to line-of-sight restrictions and the range varies based on the altitude of the receiving equipment

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9
Q

what are the different methods for checking the accuracy of VOR receiver equipment

A

VOT check (+/- 4), ground checkpoint (+/- 6), airborne checkpoint (+/- 6), dual VOR check (4 degrees between each other), and a selected radial over a known ground point (+/- 6)

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10
Q

what is a distance measuring equipment (DME)

A

used to measure, in nautical miles, the slant range distance of an aircraft from the DME

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11
Q

brief description of Global Positioning System (GPS)

A

satellite based radio nav system that broadcasts a signal used by receivers to determine a precise position

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12
Q

how do you convert true direction to magnetic

A

note the variation by the nearest isogonic line

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13
Q

what is the saying relating to the isogonic lines when correcting true to magnetic

A

east is least (subtract) west is best (add)

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14
Q

what are lines of latitude

A

lines running east and west

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15
Q

what are lines of longitude

A

lines drawn from the North Pole to the South Pole as right angles to the equator

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16
Q

what is magnetic deviation

A

due to magnetic influences within the airplane itself (radios, tools, engine, etc.) the compass needle is frequently deflected from its normal reading

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17
Q

name several types of navigational aid

A

VOR, VORTAC, DME, RNAV, GPS

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18
Q

what is a VOR or VORTAC

A

radio stations that project radials in all directions from the station

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19
Q

within what frequency range do VORs operate

A

in the VHF band between 108 and 117.95 MHz

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20
Q

what is a VOR radial

A

a line of magnetic bearing extending from an omnidirectional range (vOR)

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21
Q

how are VOR NAVAIDs classified

A

terminal, low, and high

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22
Q

what are 3 functional elements of GPS

A

space element (30 satellites), control elements (network of ground based stations, and user element (antennas and reviewer processors)

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23
Q

what are the different types of GPS receivers

A

differs from VFR flight and IFR flight

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24
Q

what is the purpose of RAIM

A

receiver autonomous integrity monitoring is self-monitoring function performed by GPS receiver to ensure adequate GPS signal is received

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25
Q

where can a pilot receive RAIM

A

On the FAA website or a manufacturer-supplied RAIM prediction tool

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26
Q

if RAIM is lost in flight, can the pilot still use GPS

A

yes but there is no assurance of the accuracy of the GPS

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27
Q

what is WAAS (wide area augmentation system)

A

a ground and satellite navigational error correction system that provides accuracy enhancement from GPS

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28
Q

what is a VFR waypoint

A

supplementary tool to assist with position awareness when navigating visually

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29
Q

know how to do calculations on E6B

A

no answer lul

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30
Q

if you fail to activate your VFR flight plan, what will happen to it

A

when it is held by the FSS, it is held for an hour after departure time and then canceled

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31
Q

what are the 4 “C’s” if you cannot locate your position

A

Climb - higher alt for better com range and better visibility
Communicate - use 121.5 if no other frequency works
Confess - once communication is established, communicate your problem
Comply - follow instructions

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32
Q

what is the universal emergency frequency

A

121.5

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33
Q

what frequencies are used for ground control

A

majority are 121.6 - 121.9

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34
Q

what is a common traffic advisory frequency (CTAF)

A

frequency for airport operations at a non-towered airport

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35
Q

what is a UNICOM

A

nongovernment communication facility which may provide airport info

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36
Q

what does ATIS mean

A

Automatic Terminal Information Service

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37
Q

What is an ATIS

A

continuous broadcast of recorded noncontol info at select high-activity terminal areas

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38
Q

if operating at a tower without a tower, FSS, or Unicom, what procedure should be followed

A

use MULTICOM frequency 122.9 for self-announce procedures

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39
Q

what is an RCO

A

an unmanned communications facility remotely controlled by ATC personel

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40
Q

why would a frequency be printed on top of a heavy lined box

A

it means this frequency is available in addition to standard FSS frequencies

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41
Q

if you are uncertain about the status of a restricted area, where can you find the frequency for the controlling agency

A

on the end panel of a VFR sectional chart

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42
Q

is the PIC directly responsible for the aircraft and final authority in the case of an emergency

A

yes

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43
Q

can the PIC deviate from any rule in part 91 in case of an emergency

A

yes

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44
Q

do you have to send in a report to the Administrator for a deviation of part 91? what if it is requested?

A

no but if it is requested then yes

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45
Q

can you fly if you’ve had 1 beer 7 hours ago

A

legally, no

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46
Q

can you fly under the influence of alcohol

A

no, lmao

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47
Q

pertaining to drugs, no person may act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if that drug

A

affects the person’s faculties in any way contrary to safety

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48
Q

what is the blood alcohol limit

A

.04

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49
Q

can you carry someone that is obviously under the influence of liquor or drugs onboard an aircraft

A

no except in an emergency

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50
Q

may portable electronic devices be operated onboard an aircraft

A

any operation under IFR may not allow operation of electronic devices to be used with exceptions to stuff that makes u live (pace maker, hearing aid, etc.)

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51
Q

can you drop stuff out of an aircraft

A

yes, as long as necessary precautions are taken to avoid hazards to person or property

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52
Q

what is the acronym for preflight action that is required by regulation for all flights away from the vicinity of the departure airport

A

NWKRAFT

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53
Q

what does NWKRAFT stand for

A

NOTAMS
Weather reports/forecasts
Known ATC traffic delays
Runway lengths at airport of intended use
Alternatives if flight cannot be completed
Fuel requirements
Takeoff and landing distance data

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54
Q

what are the seat belt rules

A

each person must use it on the surface, takeoff, and landing

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55
Q

when are flight crew members required to keep their seatbelts fastened

A

during takeoff, landing, and en route

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56
Q

what are the rules for formation flight/close proximity

A

cannot create a collision hazard, cannot operate formation flight without arrangement with PIC of each aircraft, and cannot carry for hire in formation flight

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57
Q

what is the correct order of right-of-way aircraft

A

Balloons
Gliders
Airships
Airplanes
Rotorcraft
aircraft towing/refueling has right-of-way over all

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58
Q

when would an aircraft have the right-of-way over all other traffic

A

an aircraft in distress

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59
Q

if another aircraft of same category is converging with you, which has the right of way

A

the aircraft on the right

60
Q

if another aircraft of same category is approaching head-on, which has the right of way

A

both aircraft alter course to right

61
Q

if another aircraft of same category is overtaking, which has the right of way

A

the aircraft being overtaken has the right-of-way and the pilot of the overtaking aircraft must alter course to the right

62
Q

do aircraft on final or approaching to land have the right of way over aircraft on the ground and in flight

A

yes

63
Q

what is the maximum indicated airspeed that can be operated below 10,000 ft MSL

A

no more than 250 knots

64
Q

what is the minimum safe altitude an aircraft may be operated over a congested area of a city

A

1000ft above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2000ft from the aircraft

65
Q

minimum safe altitude in areas other than congested areas

A

500ft above the surface

66
Q

define minimum safe altitude

A

altitude allowing if power fails an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface

67
Q

lowest minimum altitude over an area designated as US wildlife refuge, park, or service area

A

2000ft above surface

68
Q

when may a pilot deviate intentionally from an ATC clearance or instruction

A

an amended clearance has been obtained, an emergency exists, or in response to traffic and collision avoidance system resolution advisory

69
Q

what must you do as PIC if you deviate from ATC instruction

A

notify ATC of that deviation as soon as possible and submit a detailed report of said emergency within 48 hours to the manager of that ATC facility

70
Q

what does a steady green light from ATC mean in air and on ground

A

cleared for takeoff on ground and cleared to land in air

71
Q

what does a flashing green light from ATC mean in air and on ground

A

cleared to taxi on ground and return for landing in air

72
Q

what does a steady red light from ATC mean in air and on ground

A

stop on ground and to continue circling in air

73
Q

what does a flashing red light from ATC mean in air and on ground

A

taxi clear of the runway on ground and unsafe/do not land in air

74
Q

what does a flashing white light from ATC mean in air and on ground

A

return to starting position on ground and not used in air

75
Q

what does an alternating green and red light from ATC mean in air and on ground

A

exercise extreme caution in air and on ground

76
Q

if the radio fails in flight under VFR while operating into tower control, what conditions must be met before a landing there

A

weather minimums at or above VFR minimums, visual contact with the tower, and clearance to land is received

77
Q

what are the general rules for traffic patterns at class E or G airspace

A

make all turns to the left unless marking or info to turn to the right

78
Q

when operating into a runway with a Visual Approach Slope Indicator, what should be used

A

the aircraft shall maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until lower altitude is necessary

79
Q

fuel requirements for VFR at night

A

enough to fly to intended point of landing and at least 45 minutes past that

80
Q

fuel requirements for VFR day

A

enough to fly to intended point of landing and at least 30 minutes past

81
Q

heading + altitude rules when above 3,000ft MSL

A

0 - 179 degrees fly at odd thousand + 500
180 - 360 degrees fly at even thousand + 500

82
Q

what is an ELT

A

operates on its own power source on 121.5, 243.0 and aids in locating downed aircraft by radiating a downward-sweeping audio tone

83
Q

is an ELT required on all aircraft

A

yes

84
Q

what are the exceptions to having an ELT

A

aircraft in training operations within 50NM radius of airport, aircraft in design and testing, delivering new aircraft, and agricultural

85
Q

when must ELT batteries be changed

A

when in use for more than 1 cumulative hour or 50% of useful life has expired

86
Q

how long can an aircraft stay between 12500 and 14000 MSL for supplemental oxygen to not be required for minimum flight crew

A

30 minutes

87
Q

at what altitude is the required flight crew provided with supplemental oxygen

A

14000ft msl

88
Q

at what altitude does every occupant inside the aircraft need to be provided with supplemental oxygen

A

15000ft msl or above

89
Q

when is a parachute required

A

bank angle of 60 degrees relative to horizon or nose-up or nose-down attitude of 30 degrees relative to horizon

90
Q

what is class A airspace

A

generally from 18000ft MSL to FL600

91
Q

can VFR flight be conducted in class A airspace

A

no unless otherwise authorized by ATC. it must be under IFR

92
Q

minimum pilot certificate to fly in class A airspace

A

private pilot with instrument rating

93
Q

minimum equipment for class A

A

2 way radio, mode C transponder, ADS-B, and instruments and equipment required for IFR ops

94
Q

is class A airspace depicted on navigational charts

A

nope

95
Q

what is class B airspace

A

generally from surface to 10000ft MSL around nations busiest airports. unique to each airport that’s B

96
Q

minimum pilots certificate for Class B

A

private pilot

97
Q

minimum equipment for class B

A

2 way radio, mode C transponder, ADS-B out

98
Q

what do you need to enter class B airspace

A

a specific ATC clearance

99
Q

weather minimums for class B

A

clear of clouds with at least 3 SM visibility

100
Q

how is class B depicted on navigational charts

A

a solid blue line with numbers like 100/25, 100/SFC

101
Q

basic ATC services provided for all aircraft in Class B

A

sequencing and separation from other aircraft

102
Q

who’s responsibility is it to avoid wake turbulence while ATC is giving sequencing and separation

A

the PIC

103
Q

maximum speed when operating inside class B under, under 10000ft, and within class D surface area

A

no more than 200 knots

104
Q

when operating under class B, what is the max authorized speed

A

200 knots

105
Q

what is class C airspace

A

surface to 4000 AGL, controlled

106
Q

basic dimensions of class C airspace

A

5NM radius core surface area up to 4000 AGL and 10NM radius shelf area from 1200 to 4000ft AGL

107
Q

minimum pilot certificate to operate in class C airspace

A

student pilot certificate

108
Q

minimum equipment to operate in class C airspace

A

2 way radio, mode C transponder, and ADS-B out

109
Q

what must be met to enter class C airspace

A

established 2 way radio communications with ATC

110
Q

what does 2 way radio communications established means

A

call sign is repeated back

111
Q

when departing an airport without operative control tower located in class C airspace, what requirement must be met

A

establish and maintain 2 way communication with ATC as soon as practicable after departure

112
Q

VFR weather minimums inside class C

A

3SM flight visibility and cloud clearance of 152 (500 below, 1000 above, 2000 horizontal)

113
Q

how is class c depicted on a chart

A

solid magenta line

114
Q

where is a mode C transponder and ADS-B equipment required

A
  1. in class A,B,C airspace
  2. above B and C airspace up to 10000 MSL
  3. class E at or above 10000 MSL
  4. within 30 miles of class B airspace below 10000 ft (mode C veil)
115
Q

maximum operational speed in class C airspace

A

no more than 200 knots

115
Q

what is class D airspace

A

surface to 2500 AGL, controlled

116
Q

requirements for operating in and through class D airspace

A

established 2 way radio communication with ATC

117
Q

when departing an airport without operative control tower located in class d airspace, what requirement must be met

A

establish and maintain 2 way communication with ATC as soon as practicable after departure

118
Q

weather minimums for VFR in class D

A

3SM flight visibility and 152

119
Q

how is class D airspace depicted on a chart

A

blue segmented lines

120
Q

max airspeed in class D

A

no more than 200 knots

121
Q

what happens when the control tower isn’t in operation for the day

A

it converts back to class E down to 700 AGL and G to the surface

122
Q

what is class E airspace

A

dimensions within air traffic control services is provided to IFR and VFR flights

123
Q

minimum certificate to operate in class E airspace

A

student pilot certificate

124
Q

requirements to operate in class E airspace

A

operable radar beacon transponder and ADS-B out at or above 10000MSL

125
Q

what is class G airspace

A

uncontrolled airspace that isn’t A, B, C, D, or E

126
Q

cloud clearance class E less than 10,000 MSL

A

3-152 rule

127
Q

cloud clearance class E greater than 10,000 MSL

A

5-111 rule

128
Q

cloud clearance class C and D

A

3-152 rule

129
Q

cloud clearance class G at 1,200 AGL or less day? night?

A

1 SM clear of clouds - day, 3-152 rule night

130
Q

cloud clearance class G greater than 1,200 AGL but less than 10,000 MSL day and night

A

day - 1-152 rule, night - 3-152 rule

131
Q

cloud clearance class G greater than 1,200 AGL and 10,000 MSL

A

5-111 rule

132
Q

what are the “basic” VFR weather minimums for class C, D, E, and B airspace

A

3SM visibility, 1000 foot ceiling

133
Q

can you fly though a restricted or prohibited zone

A

you cannot fly though a restricted zone and cannot fly though a prohibited zone unless given earlier clearance

134
Q

what is an alert area

A

an area of high aircraft density with training or unusual type of Aerial activity

135
Q

what is a TRSA

A

an area around an airport that provides full radar vectoring, sequencing, and separation

136
Q

when is immediate notification to the NTSB required

9 things

A

when theres a:
1. flight control system malfunction
2. crew member unable to perform normal duties
3. inflight fire
4. aircraft collision inflight
5. property damage other than aircraft exceeding $25,000
6. overdue aircraft
7. release of prop from aircraft
8. complete loss of info from more than 50 percent of an aircrafts cockpit displays

137
Q

what is an aircraft incident

A

an occurrence other than an accident with the operation of an aircraft which affects (or could) the safety of operations

138
Q

define aircraft accident

A

associated with the operation of an aircraft in which all persons have disembarked and in which any person suffers death/serious injury or aircraft receives substantial damage

139
Q

define the term serious injury

A

hospitalization for more than 48 hours within 7 days of injury date, factor of any bone(exception to fingers, toes, nose), severe nerve/muscle/tendon damage, involves organ, or 2nd/3rd degree burns affecting more than 5% of body

140
Q

where are accident or incident reports filed and how long do u have to file

A

at the nearest NTSB within 10 days

141
Q

what color are runway markings

A

white

142
Q

what color are taxiway markings

A

blue

143
Q

what illusion can a narrow runway make

A

it can seem as though the aircraft is higher than it actually is

144
Q

what illusion can a wide runway make

A

it can seem as though the aircraft is lower than it actually is

145
Q

what illusion does an upscoping runway create

A

that the aircraft is high

146
Q

what illusion does a downscoping runway make

A

that the aircraft is too low

Troy PPL (7 decks)

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