Cross Country Flight Planning Flashcards
1
Q
the 3 most common ways to navigate are
A
Pilotage, dead reckoning, or radio nav
2
Q
what is pilotage
A
visible landmarks used for navigation
3
Q
what is dead reckoning
A
navigational use for finding position by computing direction and distance from a known point
4
Q
what is the most common aeronautical chart to use in VFR Navigation
A
sectional chart
5
Q
are electronic flight bags (EFBs) approved for use as replacement for paper reference materials in the cockpit?
A
yes
6
Q
what is an isogonic line
A
on most aeronautical charts, broken magenta lines that connect points of equal magnetic variation
7
Q
what is magnetic variation
A
angle between true north and magnetic north
8
Q
what are the limitations (if any) to VOR reception distances)
A
they are subject to line-of-sight restrictions and the range varies based on the altitude of the receiving equipment
9
Q
what are the different methods for checking the accuracy of VOR receiver equipment
A
VOT check (+/- 4), ground checkpoint (+/- 6), airborne checkpoint (+/- 6), dual VOR check (4 degrees between each other), and a selected radial over a known ground point (+/- 6)
10
Q
what is a distance measuring equipment (DME)
A
used to measure, in nautical miles, the slant range distance of an aircraft from the DME
11
Q
brief description of Global Positioning System (GPS)
A
satellite based radio nav system that broadcasts a signal used by receivers to determine a precise position
12
Q
how do you convert true direction to magnetic
A
note the variation by the nearest isogonic line
13
Q
what is the saying relating to the isogonic lines when correcting true to magnetic
A
east is least (subtract) west is best (add)
14
Q
what are lines of latitude
A
lines running east and west
15
Q
what are lines of longitude
A
lines drawn from the North Pole to the South Pole as right angles to the equator
16
Q
what is magnetic deviation
A
due to magnetic influences within the airplane itself (radios, tools, engine, etc.) the compass needle is frequently deflected from its normal reading
17
Q
name several types of navigational aid
A
VOR, VORTAC, DME, RNAV, GPS
18
Q
what is a VOR or VORTAC
A
radio stations that project radials in all directions from the station
19
Q
within what frequency range do VORs operate
A
in the VHF band between 108 and 117.95 MHz
20
Q
what is a VOR radial
A
a line of magnetic bearing extending from an omnidirectional range (vOR)
21
Q
how are VOR NAVAIDs classified
A
terminal, low, and high
22
Q
what are 3 functional elements of GPS
A
space element (30 satellites), control elements (network of ground based stations, and user element (antennas and reviewer processors)
23
Q
what are the different types of GPS receivers
A
differs from VFR flight and IFR flight
24
Q
what is the purpose of RAIM
A
receiver autonomous integrity monitoring is self-monitoring function performed by GPS receiver to ensure adequate GPS signal is received
25
where can a pilot receive RAIM
On the FAA website or a manufacturer-supplied RAIM prediction tool
26
if RAIM is lost in flight, can the pilot still use GPS
yes but there is no assurance of the accuracy of the GPS
27
what is WAAS (wide area augmentation system)
a ground and satellite navigational error correction system that provides accuracy enhancement from GPS
28
what is a VFR waypoint
supplementary tool to assist with position awareness when navigating visually
29
know how to do calculations on E6B
no answer lul
30
if you fail to activate your VFR flight plan, what will happen to it
when it is held by the FSS, it is held for an hour after departure time and then canceled
31
what are the 4 "C's" if you cannot locate your position
Climb - higher alt for better com range and better visibility
Communicate - use 121.5 if no other frequency works
Confess - once communication is established, communicate your problem
Comply - follow instructions
32
what is the universal emergency frequency
121.5
33
what frequencies are used for ground control
majority are 121.6 - 121.9
34
what is a common traffic advisory frequency (CTAF)
frequency for airport operations at a non-towered airport
35
what is a UNICOM
nongovernment communication facility which may provide airport info
36
what does ATIS mean
Automatic Terminal Information Service
37
What is an ATIS
continuous broadcast of recorded noncontol info at select high-activity terminal areas
38
if operating at a tower without a tower, FSS, or Unicom, what procedure should be followed
use MULTICOM frequency 122.9 for self-announce procedures
39
what is an RCO
an unmanned communications facility remotely controlled by ATC personel
40
why would a frequency be printed on top of a heavy lined box
it means this frequency is available in addition to standard FSS frequencies
41
if you are uncertain about the status of a restricted area, where can you find the frequency for the controlling agency
on the end panel of a VFR sectional chart
42
is the PIC directly responsible for the aircraft and final authority in the case of an emergency
yes
43
can the PIC deviate from any rule in part 91 in case of an emergency
yes
44
do you have to send in a report to the Administrator for a deviation of part 91? what if it is requested?
no but if it is requested then yes
45
can you fly if you've had 1 beer 7 hours ago
legally, no
46
can you fly under the influence of alcohol
no, lmao
47
pertaining to drugs, no person may act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if that drug
affects the person's faculties in any way contrary to safety
48
what is the blood alcohol limit
.04
49
can you carry someone that is obviously under the influence of liquor or drugs onboard an aircraft
no except in an emergency
50
may portable electronic devices be operated onboard an aircraft
any operation under IFR may not allow operation of electronic devices to be used with exceptions to stuff that makes u live (pace maker, hearing aid, etc.)
51
can you drop stuff out of an aircraft
yes, as long as necessary precautions are taken to avoid hazards to person or property
52
what is the acronym for preflight action that is required by regulation for all flights away from the vicinity of the departure airport
NWKRAFT
53
what does NWKRAFT stand for
NOTAMS
Weather reports/forecasts
Known ATC traffic delays
Runway lengths at airport of intended use
Alternatives if flight cannot be completed
Fuel requirements
Takeoff and landing distance data
54
what are the seat belt rules
each person must use it on the surface, takeoff, and landing
55
when are flight crew members required to keep their seatbelts fastened
during takeoff, landing, and en route
56
what are the rules for formation flight/close proximity
cannot create a collision hazard, cannot operate formation flight without arrangement with PIC of each aircraft, and cannot carry for hire in formation flight
57
what is the correct order of right-of-way aircraft
Balloons
Gliders
Airships
Airplanes
Rotorcraft
aircraft towing/refueling has right-of-way over all
58
when would an aircraft have the right-of-way over all other traffic
an aircraft in distress
59
if another aircraft of same category is converging with you, which has the right of way
the aircraft on the right
60
if another aircraft of same category is approaching head-on, which has the right of way
both aircraft alter course to right
61
if another aircraft of same category is overtaking, which has the right of way
the aircraft being overtaken has the right-of-way and the pilot of the overtaking aircraft must alter course to the right
62
do aircraft on final or approaching to land have the right of way over aircraft on the ground and in flight
yes
63
what is the maximum indicated airspeed that can be operated below 10,000 ft MSL
no more than 250 knots
64
what is the minimum safe altitude an aircraft may be operated over a congested area of a city
1000ft above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2000ft from the aircraft
65
minimum safe altitude in areas other than congested areas
500ft above the surface
66
define minimum safe altitude
altitude allowing if power fails an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface
67
lowest minimum altitude over an area designated as US wildlife refuge, park, or service area
2000ft above surface
68
when may a pilot deviate intentionally from an ATC clearance or instruction
an amended clearance has been obtained, an emergency exists, or in response to traffic and collision avoidance system resolution advisory
69
what must you do as PIC if you deviate from ATC instruction
notify ATC of that deviation as soon as possible and submit a detailed report of said emergency within 48 hours to the manager of that ATC facility
70
what does a steady green light from ATC mean in air and on ground
cleared for takeoff on ground and cleared to land in air
71
what does a flashing green light from ATC mean in air and on ground
cleared to taxi on ground and return for landing in air
72
what does a steady red light from ATC mean in air and on ground
stop on ground and to continue circling in air
73
what does a flashing red light from ATC mean in air and on ground
taxi clear of the runway on ground and unsafe/do not land in air
74
what does a flashing white light from ATC mean in air and on ground
return to starting position on ground and not used in air
75
what does an alternating green and red light from ATC mean in air and on ground
exercise extreme caution in air and on ground
76
if the radio fails in flight under VFR while operating into tower control, what conditions must be met before a landing there
weather minimums at or above VFR minimums, visual contact with the tower, and clearance to land is received
77
what are the general rules for traffic patterns at class E or G airspace
make all turns to the left unless marking or info to turn to the right
78
when operating into a runway with a Visual Approach Slope Indicator, what should be used
the aircraft shall maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until lower altitude is necessary
79
fuel requirements for VFR at night
enough to fly to intended point of landing and at least 45 minutes past that
80
fuel requirements for VFR day
enough to fly to intended point of landing and at least 30 minutes past
81
heading + altitude rules when above 3,000ft MSL
0 - 179 degrees fly at odd thousand + 500
180 - 360 degrees fly at even thousand + 500
82
what is an ELT
operates on its own power source on 121.5, 243.0 and aids in locating downed aircraft by radiating a downward-sweeping audio tone
83
is an ELT required on all aircraft
yes
84
what are the exceptions to having an ELT
aircraft in training operations within 50NM radius of airport, aircraft in design and testing, delivering new aircraft, and agricultural
85
when must ELT batteries be changed
when in use for more than 1 cumulative hour or 50% of useful life has expired
86
how long can an aircraft stay between 12500 and 14000 MSL for supplemental oxygen to not be required for minimum flight crew
30 minutes
87
at what altitude is the required flight crew provided with supplemental oxygen
14000ft msl
88
at what altitude does every occupant inside the aircraft need to be provided with supplemental oxygen
15000ft msl or above
89
when is a parachute required
bank angle of 60 degrees relative to horizon or nose-up or nose-down attitude of 30 degrees relative to horizon
90
what is class A airspace
generally from 18000ft MSL to FL600
91
can VFR flight be conducted in class A airspace
no unless otherwise authorized by ATC. it must be under IFR
92
minimum pilot certificate to fly in class A airspace
private pilot with instrument rating
93
minimum equipment for class A
2 way radio, mode C transponder, ADS-B, and instruments and equipment required for IFR ops
94
is class A airspace depicted on navigational charts
nope
95
what is class B airspace
generally from surface to 10000ft MSL around nations busiest airports. unique to each airport that's B
96
minimum pilots certificate for Class B
private pilot
97
minimum equipment for class B
2 way radio, mode C transponder, ADS-B out
98
what do you need to enter class B airspace
a specific ATC clearance
99
weather minimums for class B
clear of clouds with at least 3 SM visibility
100
how is class B depicted on navigational charts
a solid blue line with numbers like 100/25, 100/SFC
101
basic ATC services provided for all aircraft in Class B
sequencing and separation from other aircraft
102
who's responsibility is it to avoid wake turbulence while ATC is giving sequencing and separation
the PIC
103
maximum speed when operating inside class B under, under 10000ft, and within class D surface area
no more than 200 knots
104
when operating under class B, what is the max authorized speed
200 knots
105
what is class C airspace
surface to 4000 AGL, controlled
106
basic dimensions of class C airspace
5NM radius core surface area up to 4000 AGL and 10NM radius shelf area from 1200 to 4000ft AGL
107
minimum pilot certificate to operate in class C airspace
student pilot certificate
108
minimum equipment to operate in class C airspace
2 way radio, mode C transponder, and ADS-B out
109
what must be met to enter class C airspace
established 2 way radio communications with ATC
110
what does 2 way radio communications established means
call sign is repeated back
111
when departing an airport without operative control tower located in class C airspace, what requirement must be met
establish and maintain 2 way communication with ATC as soon as practicable after departure
112
VFR weather minimums inside class C
3SM flight visibility and cloud clearance of 152 (500 below, 1000 above, 2000 horizontal)
113
how is class c depicted on a chart
solid magenta line
114
where is a mode C transponder and ADS-B equipment required
1. in class A,B,C airspace
2. above B and C airspace up to 10000 MSL
3. class E at or above 10000 MSL
4. within 30 miles of class B airspace below 10000 ft (mode C veil)
115
maximum operational speed in class C airspace
no more than 200 knots
115
what is class D airspace
surface to 2500 AGL, controlled
116
requirements for operating in and through class D airspace
established 2 way radio communication with ATC
117
when departing an airport without operative control tower located in class d airspace, what requirement must be met
establish and maintain 2 way communication with ATC as soon as practicable after departure
118
weather minimums for VFR in class D
3SM flight visibility and 152
119
how is class D airspace depicted on a chart
blue segmented lines
120
max airspeed in class D
no more than 200 knots
121
what happens when the control tower isn't in operation for the day
it converts back to class E down to 700 AGL and G to the surface
122
what is class E airspace
dimensions within air traffic control services is provided to IFR and VFR flights
123
minimum certificate to operate in class E airspace
student pilot certificate
124
requirements to operate in class E airspace
operable radar beacon transponder and ADS-B out at or above 10000MSL
125
what is class G airspace
uncontrolled airspace that isn't A, B, C, D, or E
126
cloud clearance class E less than 10,000 MSL
3-152 rule
127
cloud clearance class E greater than 10,000 MSL
5-111 rule
128
cloud clearance class C and D
3-152 rule
129
cloud clearance class G at 1,200 AGL or less day? night?
1 SM clear of clouds - day, 3-152 rule night
130
cloud clearance class G greater than 1,200 AGL but less than 10,000 MSL day and night
day - 1-152 rule, night - 3-152 rule
131
cloud clearance class G greater than 1,200 AGL and 10,000 MSL
5-111 rule
132
what are the "basic" VFR weather minimums for class C, D, E, and B airspace
3SM visibility, 1000 foot ceiling
133
can you fly though a restricted or prohibited zone
you cannot fly though a restricted zone and cannot fly though a prohibited zone unless given earlier clearance
134
what is an alert area
an area of high aircraft density with training or unusual type of Aerial activity
135
what is a TRSA
an area around an airport that provides full radar vectoring, sequencing, and separation
136
when is immediate notification to the NTSB required
| 9 things
when theres a:
1. flight control system malfunction
2. crew member unable to perform normal duties
3. inflight fire
4. aircraft collision inflight
5. property damage other than aircraft exceeding $25,000
6. overdue aircraft
7. release of prop from aircraft
8. complete loss of info from more than 50 percent of an aircrafts cockpit displays
137
what is an aircraft incident
an occurrence other than an accident with the operation of an aircraft which affects (or could) the safety of operations
138
define aircraft accident
associated with the operation of an aircraft in which all persons have disembarked and in which any person suffers death/serious injury or aircraft receives substantial damage
139
define the term serious injury
hospitalization for more than 48 hours within 7 days of injury date, factor of any bone(exception to fingers, toes, nose), severe nerve/muscle/tendon damage, involves organ, or 2nd/3rd degree burns affecting more than 5% of body
140
where are accident or incident reports filed and how long do u have to file
at the nearest NTSB within 10 days
141
what color are runway markings
white
142
what color are taxiway markings
blue
143
what illusion can a narrow runway make
it can seem as though the aircraft is higher than it actually is
144
what illusion can a wide runway make
it can seem as though the aircraft is lower than it actually is
145
what illusion does an upscoping runway create
that the aircraft is high
146
what illusion does a downscoping runway make
that the aircraft is too low
