oncology 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what nervous system responds to mild-to moderate superficial cancer pain? and what are the signs?

A

sympathetic nervous system

signs: hypertension, tachycardia, and tachypnea

KEY: HYPERTENSION AND TACHYCARDIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what nervous system responds to severe or visceral pain? what are the signs?

A

parasympathetic nervous system

signs: hypotension, bradycardia, nausea, vomiting, tachypnea, weakness, or fainting

KEY: HYPOTENSION AND BRADYCARDIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

how can you achieve a balance analgesia and side affects for pain control?

A

opioid rotation

(changing to an equivalent dose of an alternative opioid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is directly caused by tumor invasion or indirectly as a side effect of cytotoxic drug therapy?

A

cancer neuropathic pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

how can you treat cancer neuropathic pain?

A

infrared light therapy
anti-depressant drugs
anti-epileptics
steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is a distressing, persistent, and subjective sense of tiredness or exhaustion related to cancer or cancer treatment?

A

cancer related fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is called when tumors produce signs and symptoms at a site distant from the tumor or its metastasized sites?

A

paraneoplastic syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is an example of paraneoplastic syndrome in lung cancer?

A

proximal leg weakness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what level of prevention is epigenetics and why?

A

primary prevention

screens to identify high risk people and subsequent reduction or elimination of modifiable risk factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what level of prevention is nutrigenomics?

A

primary prevention

prevent cancer through the impact of nutrition on gene structure and stability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what level of prevention is chemoprevention?

A

primary prevention

the use of agents to inhibit and reverse cancer, has focused on diet derived agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what level of prevention is cancer vaccine?

A

primary prevention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what level of prevention is aimed at preventing morbidity and mortality using screening, early detection, and prompt treatment?

A

secondary prevention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what level of prevention focuses on managing symptoms, limiting complications, and preventing disability associated with cancer or its treatment?

A

tertiary prevention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what does the biologic tumor marker CEA indicate?

A

large bowel, stomach, pancreas, lungs, and breasts malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what does the biologic tumor marker PSA indicate?

A

prostatic cancer

16
Q

what type of diagnosis provides additional information for the oncologist in determining aggressiveness of the tumor, potential response to treatment, and prediction of risk for cancer diagnosis with a family?

A

molecular profiling

17
Q

what type of diagnosis is the following examples:

immunohistochemistry
gene expression by microarray
fluorescence in situ hybrid
DNA sequencing via PCR

A

molecular profiling

18
Q

when is chemotherapy in neoadjuvant treatment?

A

before surgery (shrink tumor before removing)

19
Q

when is chemotherapy in adjuvant therapy?

A

after surgery

20
Q

when are most sensitive to radiation therapy in the cell cycle?

A

G2

21
Q

when are stem cells resistant to chemotherapy and radiation therapy in the cell cycle?

A

G0

22
Q

what is the primary mechanism of chemotherapy?

A

interferes with the synthesis or function of DNA targeting cells in the growth phase and therefore does not kill all cells

23
Q

what is the cytotoxic strategy?

A

limit cell proliferation by killing the growth of cancerous cells

inhibit DNA/RNA synthesis

affect cancerous cells to a greater extent than normal cells

24
Q

what is the growth fraction?

A

the % of proliferating cells relative to total neoplastic cell population

it typically decreases as tumor gets larger because less blood flow and nutrient supply to the tumor

25
Q

explain what cell kill hypothesis is.

A

each round of chemo will kill a certain % of cancerous cells

if chemo can reduce the tumor to a certain size, the immune system can deal with the remaining