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internal med unit 2 > infectious disease 2 > Flashcards

infectious disease 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what is a single celled microorganisms with well defined cell walls that can grow independently on artificial media without the need for other cells?

A

bacteria

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2
Q

what are spherical bacterial cells called?

A

cocci

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3
Q

what are rod shaped bacteria called?

A

bacilli

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4
Q

what are spiral shaped bacteria called?

A

spirilla or spirochetes

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5
Q

what are the characteristics that bacteria is classified by?

A

response to staining (gram positive, gram negative, or acid fast

motility (motile or nonmotile)

tendency toward capsulation (encapsulated or non-encapsulated)

capacity to form spores (sporulating or nonsporulating)

aerobic: oxygen is needed to replicate and develop

anaerobic: they can sustain life in an oxygen poor (anaerobic)

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6
Q

what are the four main characteristics of bacterial structure and function?

A
  1. unicellular microorganisms
  2. a rigid cell wall that surrounds the bacterial cell
  3. lack of a true nuclear membrane
  4. require nourishing medium to provide metabolic substrates to maintain function
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7
Q

what is gangrene?

A

the death of body tissue usually associated with loss of vascular supply and followed by bacterial invasion and putrefaction

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8
Q

what are the three main types of gangrene?

A

dry, moist, and gas gangrene

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9
Q

what do the dry and moist forms of gangrene result from?

A

loss of blood circulation

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10
Q

what causes gas gangrene?

A

wounds infected by anaerobic bacteria, leading to gas production and tissue breakdown

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11
Q

what are drugs that typically kill or destroy bacteria?

A

bactericidal

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12
Q

what are drugs that do not actually kill bacteria but limit their growth and proliferation?

A

bacteriostatic

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13
Q

what does the classification of bactericidal vs. bacteriostatic activity depend on?

A

drug dosage

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14
Q

what are the three basic mechanisms of antibacterial drugs?

A
  1. inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis and function
  2. inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis
  3. inhibition of bacterial DNA/RNA synthesis and function
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15
Q

what are three mechanisms of action for inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis and function?

A
  1. drugs cause INADEQUATE production of peptidoglycans within the cell wall
  2. drugs PUNCH HOLES in the bacterial cell membrane, destroying the selective permeability and separation of internal and external environment
  3. drugs acts as DETERGENTS that break apart the phospholipid bilayer, creating gaps and leaks in the bacterial cell membrane
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16
Q

what happens when antibacterial drugs bind to the bacterial ribosome?

A

blocks protein synthesis or causes the ribosome to misread the messenger RNA (mRNA) code which results to the production of meaningless proteins

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17
Q

what serves as an enzymatic cofactor in several reactions, including synthesis of bacterial nucleic acids and certain essential amino acids?

A

folic acid

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18
Q

how do drugs inhibit bacterial DNA/RNA synthesis and function?

A

drugs inhibit bacterial nucleic acid synthesis by inhibiting the production of folic acid

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19
Q

how do bacterial strains survive the effects of drugs?

A

certain bacterial strains have a natural defense against specific anti-bacterial drugs which allows them to become resistant

they continue to GROW and REPRODUCE similar resistant strains, thus representing a genetic selection process in which only the resistant strains survive the drug

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20
Q

what is antibiotic stewardship?

A

antibacterial drugs should be used carefully and not overused

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21
Q

how do you control the problem of bacterial resistance?

A

identify the specific pathogenic bacterial and administer a selective agent as opposed to broad spectrum antibiotics to kill resistant strains more effectively

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22
Q

what are some common side effects of antibacterial drugs?

A

hypersensitivity reactions (skin rashes, itching, and respiratory difficulty)

GI problems (nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea)

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23
Q

true or false: viruses are completely dependent on host cells and cannot replicate unless they invade a host cell and stimulate it to participate in the formation of additional virus particles

A

true

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24
Q

what can you use to mitigate the course of the viral illness? and what can you not use?

A

antiviral medications

antibiotics

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25
Q

what cellular components does a virus not contain to replicate itself or synthesize proteins?

A

ribosomes and endoplasmic reticulum

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26
Q

what does a virus contain to produce additional viruses?

A

genetic code (viral genome)

27
Q

how is a virus released from the host cell?

A

exocytosis

28
Q

what does lysis of the host cell result to?

A
  1. release of the virus
  2. death of the cell
  3. stimulate the production of inflammatory mediators (hypersensitivity response)
29
Q

what are examples of blood borne viral pathogens?

A

HBV
HCV
HIV

30
Q

what type of virus is the following infections?

  1. varicella-zoster virus
  2. infectious mononucleosis
  3. cytomegalovirus
A

herpesviruses

31
Q

what are examples of viral respiratory infections?

A

influenza
COVID-19

32
Q

how is HBV transmitted to healthcare workers?

A

percutaneous injuries or by direct/indirect contact with blood

33
Q

how is Hepatitis C transmitted to individuals?

A

accidental percutaneous injuries (needle sticks or cuts)

34
Q

what is the incubation period for HCV?

A

6 to 7 weeks

35
Q

what percentage of people with HCV develop chronic hepatitis?

A

75%

36
Q

is there a vaccine for HCV available?

A

no

37
Q

what is the term herpes derived from?

A

herpein which means “to creep”

38
Q

approximately 70% of Americans older than 12 years old harbor which strain of HHV?

A

HSV-1

39
Q

how does infection occur with HHV?

A

break in the mucous membranes of the mouth, throat, eye, or genitals via minor abrasions in the skin

40
Q

primary HSV-1 typically affects what structures in the body?

A

mouth and oral cavity causing vesicles in the mouth, throat, and around the lips

41
Q

HSV-2 is mot often acquired through which mode of transmission?

A

sexual contact

42
Q

primary HSV-2 typically affects what structures in the body?

A

causes vesicles to form in the genitourinary tract

43
Q

systemic symptoms of HSV-2 include…?

A

headache
malaise
myalgias
fever

44
Q

how you can reduce the risk of neonatal herpes in mothers known to be shedding the virus?

A

cesarean section

45
Q

recurrent disease of herpes is best treated with what medication?

A

acyclovir

46
Q

what is the period of communicability for varicella?

A

1 to 2 days before the onset of the rash through the first 4 to 5 days or until lesions have formed crust

47
Q

VZV is ____ and is known as…?

A

HHV-3 …. chicken pox or shingles

48
Q

approximately how much of the population develops the secondary or reactivation form of VZV resulting in herpes zoster or shingles?

A

10-20%

49
Q

who is greatest at risk for herpes zoster or shingles?

A

adults older than 50 years old
anyone who is immunocompromised

50
Q

what is infectious mononucleosis or herpes virus type 4?

A

an acute infectious disease caused by Epstein Barr Virus (EBV)

51
Q

what is the mode of transmission for herpesvirus type 4 or infectious mononucleosis?

A

oral secretions
blood
transplanted organs infected with the virus

52
Q

what are the precautions for someone with a person with infectious mononucleosis?

A

cautioned against engaging in excessive activity, especially contact sports which could result in splenic rupture or lowered resistance to infection

53
Q

how long should the precautions last for a person with herpesvirus type 4?

A

at least 1 month

54
Q

what is the name of the virus that causes annual outbreaks of pneumonia, bronchiolitis, and tracheobronchitis in infants?

A

RSV (respiratory syncytial virus)

55
Q

how long do people shed RSV?

A

3 to 8 days

56
Q

how long do young infants shed RSV?

A

3 to 4 weeks

57
Q

how can you conduct rapid diagnosis of RSV?

A

viral antigen identification of nasal washing using an ELISA or immunofluorescent assay (IFA)

58
Q

how do you treat RSV?

A

hydration
humidification of inspired air
ventilatory support

59
Q

what is the mode of transmission for influenza?

A

person to person by inhalation of aerosolized virus or direct contact

60
Q

how long does a fever last for influenza?

A

1 to 7 days (usually 3 to 5)

61
Q

when does secondary bacterial pneumonia develop in an older adult?

A

usually 5-10 days after the onset of viral symptoms

62
Q

what are interferons?

A

endogenous substances that exert nonspecific antiviral activity

63
Q

what are the three steps of interferons?

A
  1. virus infected cell produces interferons
  2. interferons released, bind to non-infected cells
  3. interferons induce synthesis of new antiviral proteins in non-infected cells
64
Q
A

internal med unit 2 (9 decks)

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