OMA section 8 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the minimum flight altitudes adhered to by easyJet?

A

Within range of departure/destination use MSA. Outside of that use MORA or MGA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How much obstacle separation is provided by MGA?

A

1000ft if obstacles <6000ft

2000ft if obstacles >6000ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How much obstacle clearance does MSA provide?

A

1000ft within 25nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When is it permissible to descend below MSA?

A

When under radar control
On a published approach procedure
VMC when visual contact can be maintained

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How much clearance does MORA give?

A

1000ft when obstacles <5000ft

2000ft when obstacles >5000ft (10nm either side of track)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Minimum published MORA?

A

2000ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Can you convert met vis to RVR? What limitations are there?

A

Yes using table in section 8

Cannot do it if there is reported RVR
Cannot be used for TO
Cannot be used if RVR after conversion <800m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What’s the difference between Cat A, B and C airports?

A
Cat A 
1 runway with no performance limited procedure
1 instrument approach
Circling minima below 1000ft
Night ops available

Cat B
Do not meet Cat A
Requires commander self briefing due something non standard

Cat C
Additional considerations to Cat B
Requires specific training (sim or visit with trainer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Regarding weather planning minima, what period needs to be considered for dest/altn?

A

1hr before and 1hr after

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the max distances for dest/en route alternates?

A

A319 380nm

A320 400nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Max distance to TO alternate?

A

320nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the planning minima for dest/en route alternates

A

CAT II/III -CAT I RVR
CAT I - NPA cloud base and vis
NPA - NPA minima + 200ft and >1000m
Circling - greater than circling minima

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When must the commander nominate 2 dest alternates?

A

Weather at destination below planning minima within +/-1hr

Wx not available at destination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is absolute TO minima?

A

125m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

CAT I minima?

A

550m

200ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Cat I LTS minima?

A

400/450m

200ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Cat II minima?

A

300m

100ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Cat IIIA minima?

A

200m

<100ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Cat IIIB minima?

A

75m

<50ft or no DH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

For take off, if the RVR or vis is not reported can you still take off?

A

Yes, captain must make a judgment call. You can use lights as a guidance: 10 centreline lights 15 metres apart gives 150m- min rvr unless specially trained.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is minima to commence a visual approach?

A

2500ft and 5km

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

FO TO minima?

A

400m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

FO minima for landing

A

550m 200ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

RVR for straight in approach to visual segment?

A

800m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Regarding take off alternates, what are the implications of taking off above max landing weight?

A

Can’t autoland above MLW so a Cat 1 TO alternate is required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Can you depart with no alternate?

A

Yes but:
• ETA +/- 1hr must be cloudbase>2000ft and vis>5km
• 2 runways with independent approach aids (can be crossing but closure of one can’t affect the other)
• flight must be less than 6 hours
• additional fuel must be taken to allow for holding for 15mins @1500ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Why would you depart without an alternate?

A

TO performance reasons

28
Q

What is the difference between fuel alternate and commercial alternate?

A

Fuel alternate has minimal facilities except fuel

29
Q

What is the minimum RFF?

A

6

5 if low traffic aerodrome
4 if not more than 72hrs and by notam

Alternates
Non UK 4
UK 5

30
Q

If FOB is below CNR what should you do?

A

If landing assured or EAT known, continue and land above Final Reserve

If not the case, divert to suitable alternate

31
Q

What is landing assured?

A

Landing assured is commanders judgement call that a safe landing will be made. Must take into account deterioration of wx or downgrade in a/c capability

32
Q

If FOB is less than CNR and landing is assured but delay unknown what can you do?

A

Continue towards airfield but must be possible to divert to any suitable alternate until approach time known

33
Q

What is taxi fuel? Can it be modified?

A

APU burn, engine start and taxi all the way until takeoff power is applied.

Yes it can at commanders discretion depending on conditions of the day

34
Q

Approx taxi fuel burn?

A

1 engine 7kg/min

2 engines 10kg/min

35
Q

What is fuel burn for APU?

A

120kg/hr

36
Q

What is trip fuel and can it be modified?

A

Fuel to carry out takeoff, entire trip including step altitudes, expected arrival, approach and landing

Can be modified by 5kg/nm for every mile ADDED or 4kg/nm for every mile SUBTRACTED

37
Q

What is contingency fuel and can it be modified?

A

Contingency fuel can be used any time after push back. It’s for any deviation between planned and actual operating conditions.

It is SCF CONT95 based on historic flights or 5 mins @1500ft whichever is more or 5% if no SCF

Can be reduced to CONT90 or 5 mins @1500 whichever is more or 3% if no SCF. Must have en route alternate within specified radius

38
Q

What is absolute minimum contingency fuel?

A

5 mins holding @ 1500ft above destination

39
Q

What is the Easyjet fuel policy?

A

To carry the minimum amount of fuel necessary to safely and efficiently complete the flight while meeting regulatory and maintaining operational stability

40
Q

What is stat cont95?

A

Based on historical data of route pairings.

The figure shows the average extra trip fuel used in 95% of the flights

41
Q

What is Altn fuel?

A

Fuel for missed approach from MAP, diversion and approach at alternate airfield.

If 2 alternates then furthest alternates fuel used

42
Q

What is additional fuel when provided?

A

Provided if no alternate provided. It is 15 mins @1500ft at destination

Also for significant performance penalties at low altitudes due to engine fail or depressurisation

Or by notam

43
Q

When should you carry extra fuel and what is the penalty?

A

Carry it when there is a strong possibility of using it. Eg weather, slots, ground delays

Penalty is 3% or extra fuel per hour of flight

44
Q

What is final reserve fuel?

A

30 mins holding at 1500ft above destination. Only there as a last resort

45
Q

What is 3% ERA?

A

Can reduce contingency to 3% or CONT90 to reduce weight if there is a suitable alternate law within a circle with radius 20% of total distance positioned 75% into journey

Must meet ‘no alternate’ criteria

46
Q

What criteria must be met to not have an alternate?

A

Less than 6 hours
2 separate runways with independent approach aids
Wx 5km vis, 2000ft or circling + 500

47
Q

What is appropriate fuel burn in hold at 1500ft with anti ice on?

A

Holding 40kg/min (2400kg/hr)
Engine anti ice 1kg/min
Engine and wing 2kg/hr

48
Q

What are the limits to tankering fuel?

A

Must not be within 1% of MTOW or MLW whichever is limiting

49
Q

If stat CONT95 is negative what does it mean?

A

In 95% of flights it trip fuel is more than required

50
Q

What does the term minimum fuel mean to ATC?

A

All other airfield options have been used up and any change to the clearance will result in landing below final reserve

51
Q

Regarding low fuel when should you declare a PAN and a MAYDAY?

A

PAN PAN if you MAY land below final reserve

MAYDAY if you WILL land below final reserve

52
Q

How long is a TEMPO on a TAF expected to last?

A

No more than half the time of the period stated and in bursts of less than an hour

53
Q

Can a PROB TEMPO be ignored?

A

An deterioration MAY be ignored and an improvement SHOULD be ignored

54
Q

With regards to wind speed on a forecast what should be considered?

A

Mean wind speed should be below limits but gusts can be ignored

55
Q

A/c supplementary/portable oxygen capacity and limits?

A

Flight deck- quick donning masks for flights above 25000ft
At least 2 hours supply but unlimited for time above 10000ft

CC- at least 30 mins but unlimited for time above 13000ft

Pax- oxy for 100% of pax for at least 10 mins or unlimited for time above 15000ft

Therapeutic air for 2% of pax

56
Q

Altimeter tolerances before entering RVSM airspace?

A

2 primary altimeters within 200ft

57
Q

What is an ADD?

A

Acceptable deferred defect

Dispatch can still be made with a Level 1 or 2 ADD and the a/c is still airworthy in accordance with MEL

58
Q

Who can transfer ADD to a/c status sheet?

A

Engineer although is possible for captain to do it down route under guidance

59
Q

Difference between Level 1 and Level 2 defect?

A

Level 1 is operationally restrictive

Level 2 less serious (mostly cosmetic)

60
Q

What is a non ADD?

A

Renders the a/c AOG until rectified

61
Q

What are the repair intervals?

A
ABCD
A...not specified but condition is in the MEL
B...3 days
C...10 days
D...120 days
62
Q

How long is daily inspection valid?

A

Must be completed after last flight of day after 6pm. Becomes valid from 0001 that night until midnight the following day

E.g. done Friday night, valid until 2359 Sunday night

63
Q

Wake turbulence intervals departing behind Heavy and Super?

A

H 2 mins
S 3 mins

Intersection
H 3 mins
S 4 mins

64
Q

On final what is the wake turbulence separation behind H and S?

A

H 5 miles

S 7 miles

65
Q

What distance should you avoid thunderstorms by laterally and vertically?

A

20nm

5000ft above

66
Q

What are the rules regarding musical instrument carriage?

A

Small instruments in the overhead locker

Large instruments have their own seat. Must be less than 30cm from top of seat