OM-B Performance Flashcards

1
Q

What are the OEI minimum required climb gradients for each segment in the takeoff flight path?

A

Second segment 2.4 percent and final segment 1.2 percent.

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2
Q

When is a SID climb gradient specified in LIDO SID text description?

A

When exceeding 3.3 percent (2.5+0.8 net margin)

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3
Q

Where does the net takeoff flight path begin for obstacle clearance?

A

35ft above end of takeoff distance

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4
Q

What is the standard engine failure procedure?

A

Runway hdg, turn to holding point at 1500’
- climb runway track
- maintain V2, or IAS at time of fail (max v2+20)
- eng secure & above 800’ AAL: push level off, accelerate and clean up
- reaching green dot and above 1500’ AAL, turn to holding point

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5
Q

What is a dry runway?

A

When the surface is free of visible moisture and not contaminated within the area of inteded to be used

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6
Q

What is a wet runway?

A

A runway covered by any visible dampness or water up to 3 mm within the area inteded to be used.

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7
Q

When ‘slippery when wet’ what are the considerations?

A

Maximum crosswind is 25 kts, slippery wet is selected in the runway condition. Flex takeoff is allowed

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8
Q

When is a runway contaminated?

A

25 percent of 1/3 of the runway is covered with a layer of fluid not considered thin or hard (>3 mm)

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9
Q

Is a flex takeoff not permitted?

A

Contaminted runway, dispatch with gear down.

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10
Q

What are the pro’s of using flex rated thrust?

A

Improves engine reliability, aircraft dispatch reliability and reduces engine operating cost

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11
Q

What is the maximum percentage of derating during a flex take off?

A

25 percent of the rated thrust

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12
Q

Why can you say flex thrust is conservative?

A

The actual OAT is a lot lower than the one you put in the box, so the air density is higher (=more thrust than calculated is given)

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13
Q

What to do when the cleared runway is less than 45 meters wide?

A

If within operational limits, use the contaminant given and compare the results, take more limiting. If the snowbanks are there and are outside operational limits: it is not safe to roll and break through them; consider unusable: apply narrow runway rules.

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14
Q

When is a runway narrow? Minimum runway width? Any considerations?

A

Less than 45 m, minimum 30 m, CM1 is PF unless CM2 is trained. No autoland.

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15
Q

What to checkif a runway width <40 meters by nowtam or snowtam?

A

Check Vmcg against FCOM limits to ensure V1 is above Vmcg.

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16
Q

How much wind does the EFB take into account?

A

150 percent tailwind, 50 percent of headwind component.

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17
Q

What is the minimum go around all engine climb gradient?

A

2.5 percent unless something else is specified. This is at 1500’, N-1, G/A flaps, gear up and TOGA selected.

18
Q

How to increase the climb gradient on takeoff

A

Thrust reduction/acceleration altitude increase, climb speed limit, final climb speed increase.

19
Q

What is the difference between in flight and dispatch landing performance calculations?

A

Dispatch: computes max LW on anticipated weather and runway in use. Can improve by selecting autothrust off and uses max manual braking.
In flight: computes max LW on actual weather and runway in use.

20
Q

When could you be limited on the go around climb gradient?

A

With N-1

21
Q

What to do when you are limited on the go around climb gradient?

A

Select higher minima, land flap 3, follow the EOSID

22
Q

What is our landing flaps policy?

A

> 10 knots tail flap full

23
Q

What to do when manual brake selection needed?

A

Select medium, full reverse, at nosewheel touchdown override manually full.

24
Q

When do we select idle/full reverse?

A

Always idle if no faults prohibiting, full on contaminated runway, emergency or performance needed.

25
Q

For dispatch computation, what reverse credit do we take?

A

For dry and wet runway: inop (through MEL). Contaminated: operative.

26
Q

For in flight computation, what reverse credit do we take and what runway condition do we select?

A

For dry: off.
For wet: select condition 2, reverse off. If ok: no reverse needed (so idle okay). If not: full reverse needed.
For <5: use thrust reverse credit

27
Q

Dispatch landing performance, what is the maximum LW? What if it can’t be satisfied?

A

The lower of the max LW on the most favourable runway or the runway to be expected. If it can’t be satisfied two alternates have to be selected.

28
Q

What is the RLD?

A

Dry: ALD dry x 1.67
Wet: ALD dry x 1.92
Contaminated: ALD contaminated x 1.15

29
Q

What are the considerations flying to places with a high magnetic variation?

A

METAR & TAFs are done in degrees to actual north, whilst ATC/D-ATIS with magnetic north

30
Q

APU fuel burn?

A

2 kg/min

31
Q

Taxi fuel?

A

10 kg/min or 7 kg/min on one engine

32
Q

hold at 1500’ fuel?

A

40 kg/min

33
Q

Approach fuel?

A

17 kg/min

34
Q

Engine anti ice in climb? E +WAI?

A

1.1 kg/min and 2.0 kg/min

35
Q

E and E + WAI in crz?

A

1.0 kg/min and 2.0 kg/min

36
Q

E and E+WAI in hold?

A

2.0 kg/min and 3.0 kg/min

37
Q

What is the fuel penalty for carrying extra fuel?

A

3-4 percent

38
Q

What to consider when looking at max shearrate on the first page of the OFP?

A

Only the waypoints listed on the route are taken into account: go through the pages to see if there is a higher one.

39
Q

Bag loading?

A

A319: 150 rear, max 50 hold 5, maximise hold 4, overspill in 1.
A320: 85 bags hold 1, then 4, then 3, non-normal in 5.
A321: 100 bags in 3, 50 in 4, then 2. Elec wch in 4 if less than 100 bags, 2 if more. Non-normal in 5.

40
Q

What plane has a ground stability issue?

A

320 issue. Front hold should be loaded ahead or at the same time as the rear hold. When disembarking via front only, be careful and stop flow to establish pax in the front if needed.

41
Q

Figures and limits for LMC?

A

84 kg pax
11 kg cabin bag
15/13/11 kg rush bag
New LMC +10/-20 pax
Limits +250 kg and +/-2% MAC

42
Q

Zones?

A

A319 A320
A 1 – 9 1 – 10
B 10 – 18 11 – 20
C 19 – 26 21 – 31

321:
1-13, 14-28, 29-40