OM-A definitions, responsiblities & crew composition

Question 1

Alert Height (def)

Answer 1

Specified radio height based on the characteristics of the aircraft and its fail-operational landing system. If a failure occurs above in one of the required redundant systems: G/A or revert to higher minima. If a failure in one of the required redundant systems below the AH: continue.

Question 2

Altitude (def)

Answer 2

The vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point measured from the mean sea level

Question 3

Cloud base (def)

Answer 3

The height of the base of the lowest observed or forecast cloud element in the vicinity of an aerodrome, normally measured above aerodrome (reported as FEW or SCT)

Question 4

Cold aircraft (def)

Answer 4

An aircraft that has been left unattended, either overnight or temporarily

Question 5

Contaminated runway (def)

Answer 5

A runway is contaminated when a significant portion of its surface is covered with a layer of fluid contaminant not considered as thin or a hard contaminant. Significant portion; 25 percent of one third of the runway surface area within the required length and width being used

Question 6

Converted meteorological Visibility (CMV) (def)

Answer 6

A value equivalent to RVR which is derived from the reported meteorological visibility

Question 7

Critical phases of flight (def)

Answer 7

Take off run, take off flight path, final approach, missed approach, landing, landing roll and any other phases of flight as determined by commander/PIC

Question 8

Damp runway (def)

Answer 8

A runway is damp when the surface is not dry but when the moisture does not give it a shiny appearance. For ops purposes, a damp runway is considered wet

Question 9

DA/DH (def)

Answer 9

Specified altitude or height in a 3D instrument approach at which a missed approach must be initiated if the required visual reference has not been established. DA refers to MSL and DH is referenced to runway threshold. For operating to DA the aircraft altimeters are set to QNH. DH = RA based.

Question 10

Fail operational flight control system (def)

Answer 10

In the event of a failure below alert height, the approach, flare and landing can be completed automatically. In the event of a failure, the automatic landing system, will operate as a fail-passive system.

Question 11

Fail Passive flight control system (def)

Answer 11

In the event of a failure, there is no significant out of trim condition or deviation of flight path or attitude but the landing is not automatically completed. The pilot assumes control of the plane after a failure

Question 12

Final reserve fuel (def)

Answer 12

An amount of fuel calculated to fly 30 mins at holding speed at 1500ft above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions, calculated with estimated weight on arrival at alternate or at the destination when no alternate is required.

Question 13

Low visibility operations (def)

Answer 13

Approach or take off operations on a runway with an rvr less than 550m or with a DH less than 200ft

Question 14

Low visibility procedures (def)

Answer 14

Procedures applied by an aerodrome for the purpose of ensuring safety during LVOs

Question 15

Net flight path (def)

Answer 15

Path determined for engine(s) failure case. It’ll represent the actual climb performance diminished by a gradient of climb of:
- take off n-1 0.8% for two-engine aircraft
- enroute n-1 1.1% for two-engine aircraft

Question 16

Safe landing (def)

Answer 16

A landing at an adequate aerodrome with no less than final reserve fuel remaining and in compliance with the applicable operation procedures and aerodrome operating minima

Question 17

Seperate runways (def)

Answer 17

Runways at the same aerodrome that are seperate landing surfaces. These runways may overlay or cross in such a way that if one of the runways is blocked, it will not prevent the planned type of operations on the other runway. Each runway shall have a seperate approach procedure based on a seperate navigation aid

Question 18

Steep approach (def)

Answer 18

Any approach with a glideslope angle of 4.5 degrees or more is considered steep. All approaches exceeding 4.5 degrees descent angle require a specific operator approval for each type.

Question 19

Type A instrument approach operation (def)

Answer 19

An instrument approach operation with an MDH or DH at or above 250ft

Question 20

Type B instrument approach operation (def)

Answer 20

An operation with DH below 250ft. Categorised as:
- Cat I: DH >=200ft and vis =>800m or RVR=>550m
- Cat II: DH<=200ft but =>100ft and RVR=>300m
- Cat III: DH=<100ft or No DH and RVR =<300m

Question 21

Wet runway (def)

Answer 21

A runway is wet when its surface is covered by any visible dampness or water up to and including 3mm deep within the area of inteded to be used

Question 22

Regulatory Authority

Answer 22

The operator shall take all reasonable measures to ensure that all persons carried in the aircraft obey all lawful commands given by the commander for the purpose of securing the safety of the aircraft and of persons/property carried therein.

Question 23

Regulatory Responsibilities

Answer 23

The commander is responsable for safety of crew, pax and cargo from the moment the plane is ready to move for purpose of taxiing prior to takeoff until the engines are shut down. Take any actions needed to securing the safety of the aircraft, can disembark any person, can refuse pax/inadmisssables if safety related. All checklists, procedures, searches should be complied with. Accept he aircraft i.a.w. MEL, pre-flight is done, emergency equipment is ok. Shall take action immediate if required in an emergency situation, file an ACAS report if RA is generated and inform ATS when bird strikes/hazards are present.

Question 24

Company Responsabilities

Answer 24

Flight deck door is closed after engine start, pax are properly secured when taxiing/takeoff/ldg and whenever advisable, no loose articles in flightdeck, add safety margins if needed, continuous listening watch on right frequencies, post de-brief if needed, pilot uniform standard is maintained and all relevant info relating the flight is transmitted by ACARS.

Question 25

Flight Crew Composition/Limitations

Answer 25

2 pilots, one minimum of which holds the rank captain. Not more than one may be aged above 60. No flying above 65. A pilot with an operation medical limitatoin shall only operate when the other pilot is fully qualified, not subjec to an OML, aged 60 or less. Inexperienced *** can’t fly together. You loose stars when: recurrent sim (CPT), continuation flight (FO). Minimum FD for boarding is 1, this may be the FO, should be in flightdeck.

Question 25

Safety Pilot

Answer 25

Required for base training & LFUS until positive release. Monitor for errors/admissions, assist in workload management & assist or assume command in case of training captain incapicitation. Safety pilot should be fully qualified to operate in RHS (FO or RHS qualified CPT). May not be inexperienced crew.

Question 26

Cabin Crew Composition

Answer 26

1 for every 50 seats. Reduction in unforeseen circumstances is allwed, however not from originating base and must be authorised by network duty manager. Any additional crew is classified as supernumerary. When 4 are present, two may be inexperienced but they have to work opposite ends of the cabin.

Question 26

Boarding with non-operating member

Answer 26

Must be qualified on type, fit to fly, if not in uniform high-vis on (PA to be made in this case). Must receive a briefing from SCCM covering their duties & door responsibilities. Will not leave a/c until operating member has arrived.

Question 26

Senior Cabin Crew member unable to operate

Answer 26

No departure from oginiating base without a desginated SCCM. If becomes incapacitated after the departure, the most appropriately qualified cc will be assigned to act as CM. If no one else is qualified, most experienced may assume the position. CC needs a minimum of 12 months experience and 20 sectors on type. The SCCM should be replaced if a flight operates through a transit base. However, if none available the series of flights may continue to the orignating base.

Question 26

Reduced Crew Procedures

Answer 26

Limited to one below normal crew. Maximum of one inexperienced cc. Shall only be used to complete orignal planned flight or series of flights. Max 50 pax per cc, excluding infants, CC removed from duty doesn’t count. In case of incap, doctor or paramedic has to certify ‘fit to fly’. A transfer of CC from other a/c is allowed to avoid offloading. All reduced crew ops shall be reported by ASR and CSR.

Question 27

Boarding with reduced crew from originating base

Answer 27

One pilot in FD. Qualified SCCM must be present. Safety brief given, SEP & Security completed. Missing cc will joing as n4. No fuelling or defuelling, electrical power is available. SCCM door 1L and 1R. CC2 for 2L and 2R, CC3 in the middle/overwing exit. CC5 for mid emergency exits (321). Max 50 pax per crew can board. SCCM arriving (if was missing) handover briefing by other/acting SCCM.

Question 28

Minimum License Requirements Captains

Answer 28

ATPL, easyjet OCC course, TR, IR, OPC, LOE and medical class 1

Question 29

Recent experience

Answer 29

At least 3 takeoffs, approaches and landing in the preceding 90 days. May be extended to 120 days, as long as the pilot undertakes lien flying under supervision of a TRI/TRE. Different rules for inexperienced crew.

Question 30

Commander Requirements

Answer 30

3000 factored hours, 500 minimum on medium/large jet. Completion of easyJet command assessment process and command course.

Question 31

Alcohol use

Answer 31

None when on duty, during 10 hours before duty and be kept to a minimum during 14 hours preceding this period and only in moderation during the 24 hours preceding duties. No drinking in uniform, no alcohol in flightdeck allowed.

Question 32

Drugs

Answer 32

Forbidden unless prescribed by medical practitioner and checked for license

Question 33

Cosmic Radiation

Answer 33

Max 6 mSV per year, automatically monitored

Question 34

Medication/anaesthetic

Answer 34

Seek medical advice for medication. No opearting within 48 hours following general anaesthetic, within 24 hours of any local anaesthetic (including dental). Crew must not operate within 24 hours of vaccination

Question 35

Blood/bone marrow donation

Answer 35

Nt within 24 hours of duty

Question 36

Deep diving

Answer 36

Not exceed 10 meters within 48 hours of flying. Any diving involving SCUBA equipment should be avoided within 24 hours of flying. If treated for decompressoin sickness; do not fly within 72 hours.

Question 37

Flight Time Limitations - basic rule

Answer 37

Crew members shall not perform duties when fatigued, under influence or unfit

Question 38

Acclimitised

Answer 38

A crew member is acclimitased when the circadian biological clock is synchronised to the time zone where the crew member is. A crew member is considered addlicmatised to a 2 hour wide time zone surrounding the local time at the point of departure.

Question 39

Window of circadian low

Answer 39

WOCL means the period beween 02:00-05:59

Question 40

Commanders Discretion

Answer 40

A commander is authorised to exercise his discretion to modify the limits on flight duty, duty and rest periods in the case of unforeseen circumstances in flight operatoins, which start at or after the reporting time with the following restrictions:
- Max FDP i.a.w. om-a accl crew & split duty may not be increased by more than 2 hours
- If on the final sector within the FDP the allowed increase is exceeded because of unforeseen circumstances after T/O the flight may continue to the planned destination
- The rest period following the FDP may be reduced but can never be less than 10 hours.

The commander shall consult all crew members on their alertness level before deciding. The commander shall submit a report to easyJet when an FDP is increased or a rest period reduces