OIC - All Decks Flashcards

0
Q

What are required items for the navigation standards of all units?

A

Navigational draft;

Definition of shoal water and how to identify each navigation zone;

Define navigation zones;

Alarm Management.

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1
Q

Who is required to have a Navigation Petty Officer?

A

Boat Units

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2
Q

What signifies a warning alarm on an eNav system?

A

The system produces a brief audible alarm and flashes yellow. Warning alarms alert the user to issues that, if left uncorrected, could compromise safety of navigation.

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3
Q

What is the max fix interval for boats using paper charts?

A

30 minutes

More frequent when in unfamiliar areas or restricted visibility.

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4
Q

What kind of charts are associated with navigation Mode II?

A

1) Approved electronic chart
2) Currently corrected electronic chart database
3) Current edition of paper chart is onboard. Designated Ready Charts are currently corrected.

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5
Q

What are the two general types of electronic charts?

A

There are two general types of electronic chart data: vector and raster.

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6
Q

How long are electronic charts good for on cutters?

A

A chart is currently corrected if it has been corrected within the last 45 days.

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7
Q

What is “display base” in relation to eNav systems?

A

The chart content that cannot be removed from the display. This represents the minimum set of information and is not intended to be sufficient for navigation. Shallow water, safety contour, and isolated hazards to navigation are included in the display base based on cutter or boat depth information entered into the eNav system.

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8
Q

What are vector charts?

A

Vector charts consist of points, lines, and area data that represent real world objects.

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9
Q

What is navigation Mode II?

A

Installed eNav system, with manual positioning input, used as primary means of navigation.

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10
Q

How are the new navigation standards organized?

A

Two columns, one for cutters, one for boats.

If the columns are merged, it applies to both.

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11
Q

When is an electronic chart considered up-to-date?

A

If corrected within the last 45 days (full file replacement, official update, manual corrections).

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12
Q

How long do you have to promulgate navigation standards after assuming command?

A

Promulgate Command Navigation Standards within 90 days of assuming command. Prior Navigation Standards remain in effect until superseded.

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13
Q

What must a person assigned as a cutter’s navigator complete?

A

The Navigator must complete applicable parts of U.S. Navy Ship Control and Navigation PQS.

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14
Q

What is “all other information” in relation to eNav systems?

A

To be displayed individually (by class) on demand. CO/OICs must provide guidance on conditions when other information must be displayed, in addition to the standard display, to ensure safe navigation of cutters and boats.

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15
Q

What information can be found the in OIC’s night orders?

A

They include such items as courses and speeds to maintain throughout the night, expected sightings, engineering data, the tactical situation, and supplementary orders to the OOD.

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16
Q

What do you do if an electronic log fails?

A

Shift to paper.

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17
Q

What are your command responsibilities as per the navigation standards?

A

Assign, train, and certify personnel;

Incorporate effective risk management in navigation planning;

Designate a navigator (Navy PQS);

Conduct steering and propulsion tests prior to entering restricted waters or getting underway;

Maintain proficiency of basic navigation skills;

Ensure navigation personnel maintain understanding of operation, use, and limitations of installed equipment;

Approve all tracklines and routes (cutter only);

Ensure primary navigation team is trained and proficient;

Maintain crew proficiency in precision anchoring;

Maintain skills in emergency transition from eNav to paper based navigation, and back to eNav;

Integrate TCT into training.

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18
Q

What are the three display categories normally associated with eNav systems?

A

1) Display base
2) Standard display
3) All other information

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19
Q

What signifies a danger alarm on an eNav system?

A

The system produces a continuous audible alarm and flashes red. Danger alarms alert the user to issues that require immediate attention.

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20
Q

Are personal navigation applications authorized to navigate with?

A

The use of personal navigation applications using cellular/GPS technology is not permitted for navigation aboard Coast Guard cutters and boats.

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21
Q

Who can be assigned as the navigator on a cutter?

A

The Navigator must be an experienced underway OOD that is an Officer, Chief, or Petty Officer who possesses the required proficiency, training, maturity, and judgment required of this position.

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22
Q

When is a navigation brief required on a cutter?

A

Prior to getting underway, entering port and, if possible, prior to entering restricted waters.

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23
Q

When are steering and propulsion tests required on a cutter?

A

Prior to getting underway or entering restricted waters.

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24
Q

Are cell phone navigation apps authorized?

A

No

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25
Q

What are raster charts?

A

Raster charts are flat images of paper charts. Each paper chart has a corresponding raster chart that is its digital equivalent.

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26
Q

What are the three alarms normally associated with eNav systems?

A

1) Danger
2) Warning
3) Caution

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27
Q

What constitutes a visual fix?

A

The common intersection of three or more LOPs (including LOPs from celestial bodies) obtained from simultaneous observations.

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28
Q

What is a drag circle?

A

The Drag Circle, centered on the anchoring location, has a radius equal to the distance from the hawsepipe to pelorus, radar antenna, or GPS antenna, added to the length of the anchor chain released.

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29
Q

What are additional items required for the navigation standards of boat units?

A

List of ready, up-to-date paper charts carried on each boat;

Areas for AOR familiarization;

Areas that pose navigational or environmental risk;

Specific operating guidance such as speed limits, safe distances from known hazards, and fix intervals;

Navigation and piloting requirements;

Dead reckoning plot requirements.

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30
Q

What federal level laws and regulations apply to the Coast Guard’s navigation standards?

A

Code of Federal Regulations (CFR): Title 33 – Navigation and Navigable Waters, specifies navigation requirements for private, commercial, and public vessels.

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31
Q

What are the rules of dead reckoning?

A

1) Plot a DR position at least every hour on the hour
2) Plot a DR position at every course change
3) Plot a DR position at every speed change
4) Regenerate DR plot after each fix or running fix
5) Plot a DR position when obtaining a single line of position

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32
Q

What four category types must be addressed as applicable in your navigation standards?

A

All Units

Additional Cutter Items

Additional Shore Based Items

Units performing tactical/ high speed operations

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33
Q

What are some actions to take if fix quality comes into question?

A

1) Reducing speed
2) Taking all way off
3) Increasing fix frequency
4) Turning away from the danger

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34
Q

When are steering and propulsion tests required on a small boat?

A

Daily and, if possible, prior to mooring.

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35
Q

What kind of charts are associated with navigation Mode II?

A

1) Approved chart

2) Currently corrected chart

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36
Q

What things can be used to gain an electronic fix?

A

1) Latitude and longitude provided by installed equipment.
2) The common intersection of three or more radar ranges obtained from simultaneous observations.
3) The use of radar/chart matching.
4) The use of a combination of visual LOPs and radar ranges is an electronic fix.

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37
Q

If your fix interval is three minutes or greater, how often do you have to determine set and drift?

A

If fix interval is three minutes or greater, determine set and drift with every fix.

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38
Q

When are you authorized to run the eNav system as your primary means of navigation?

A

1) eNav system has primary positioning source and approved, currently corrected electronic chart data.
2) eNav system has adequate back-up system and back-up positioning source.

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39
Q

What are the three navigation zones?

A

Restricted

Costal

Open Ocean

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40
Q

What must be documented when a ship anchors?

A

The Ship’s Log must include time of anchorage, depth of water, which anchor used, scope of chain, type of bottom, ship’s head, and bearings to objects designated by the Navigator.

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41
Q

How long are electronic charts good for on small boats?

A

A chart is currently corrected if it has been corrected within the last 6 months.

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42
Q

What are the only GPS corrections currently authorized for Coast Guard vessel use in high-risk (e.g., restricted waters) navigational zones/areas?

A

National Differential GPS (NDGPS) system and the Wide Area Augment System (WAAS).

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43
Q

What must be done if a small boat’s chart has a NTM/ LNM issues during it’s six month issuance?

A

If NTMs/LNMs have been issued past the manufacturer’s electronic chart base date, then CO/OICs can authorize use of SINS as a primary means of navigation if a currently corrected and prepared paper chart is immediately available.

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44
Q

What must be done if you experience a GPS outage?

A

Units must report degradations, outages, and other incidents or anomalies to the Navigation Center via the GPS Problem Worksheet.

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45
Q

What must happen if your eNav system does not have an adequate back-up system and back-up positioning source?

A

Navigate with eNav system. Currently corrected Paper Charts broken out and ready for use.

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46
Q

What are additional items required for the navigation standards of cutters?

A

Specific guidance for small boats operating independently;

Navigation team manning requirements;

Helm and engine order commands;

Anchor and mooring bills;

List of paper charts required to be onboard and list of paper charts to be corrected;

Physical characteristics of cutter;

Tactical info.

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47
Q

If your fix interval is less than three minutes, how often do you have to determine set and drift?

A

If the fix interval is less than three minutes, determine set and drift with every second fix.

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48
Q

What signifies a warning alarm on an eNav system?

A

The system produces a brief audible alarm and flashes yellow. Warning alarms alert the user to issues that, if left uncorrected, could compromise safety of navigation.

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49
Q

How long are navigation check lists required to be retained?

A

Maintain checklists locally for 90 days after completion of the evolution, and then destroy them.

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50
Q

What is navigation Mode I?

A

Installed eNav system, with automatic positioning input, used as primary means of navigation.

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51
Q

What kind of position source input does navigation Mode II get?

A

Manual

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52
Q

What do you do if your eNav system fails?

A

Shift to paper charts within one fix interval.

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53
Q

When must you conduct position comparisons and how do you do it?

A

Once a day in open ocean, every third fix in restricted waters.

Must use an unrelated positioning source.

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54
Q

What is a swing circle?

A

The Swing Circle, centered on the anchoring location, has a radius equal to length of the vessel added to the length of anchor chain released.

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55
Q

Who is responsible for preparing navigation briefs?

A

The Navigator

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56
Q

What is the electronic chart type hierarchy?

A

1) Official ENC/USACE IENC
2) NGA DNC
3) Official RNC
4) Commercial Vector Chart
5) Commercial Raster Charts

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57
Q

When are navigation briefs required?

A

Prior to getting underway (cutters and boats);

Prior to entering port;

Prior to entering restricted water (cutter and boat, if possible).

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58
Q

How long are you required to retain the OIC’s night orders?

A

Maintain these orders locally for three years after the date of the final entry, and then destroy them.

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59
Q

What is navigation Mode III?

A

Traditional paper navigation used as primary means of navigation.

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60
Q

What are your responsibilities for anchoring?

A

Maintain proficiency;

Prepare charts for precision anchoring;

Anchor the cutter;

Determine position while at anchor;

Weigh anchor.

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61
Q

If navigation Modes I and II fail, how long do you have to shift to a paper plot?

A

Ensure ability to transfer to paper plot within one fix interval if eNav system fails.

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62
Q

How long do you have to promulgate your navigation standards after assuming command?

A

90 Days

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63
Q

What kind of position source input does navigation Mode I get?

A

Automatic

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64
Q

What boats have to use paper charts?

A

Boats without SINS or ECS w/ adequate positioning source.

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65
Q

What kind of charts are associated with navigation Mode I?

A

1) Approved electronic chart
2) Currently corrected electronic chart database
3) Current edition of paper chart is onboard. Designated Ready Charts are currently corrected.

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66
Q

What kind of charts are grouped under vector charts?

A

These charts include Electronic Navigation Charts (ENC), Inland Electronic Navigation Charts (IENC), and Digital Nautical Charts (DNC).

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67
Q

What is “standard display” in relation to eNav systems?

A

The minimum information required during route planning and route monitoring for safe navigation of the vessel. CO/OICs must include standard display information in the Command Navigation Standards for all cutters and boats under their command.

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68
Q

What are additional items required for the navigation standards of units conducting tactical/ high speed operations?

A

Describe the conditions when tactical/ high speed ops are permitted;

A continuum of tactics providing range of response through deadly force;

Implications and mitigation or risk and response to threat environment;

Application and limits for training and normal operations.

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69
Q

What units are required to maintain proficiency in precision anchoring?

A

Cutters

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70
Q

If you are in doubt as to whether someone needs to be enrolled in the Special Needs Program, who would you ask?

A

The Family Resource Specialist.

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71
Q

Who can take a Family Advocacy Program restricted report?

A

Requests for restricted reporting can be received by a CG healthcare provider, a FAS, or other HSWL Regional Practice staff member when performing FAS duties, or a Victim Advocate.

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72
Q

What are the four categories of the Special Needs Program?

A

Medical, physical, psychological, educational.

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73
Q

What committee will be developed for FAS cases?

A

Incident determination committee.

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74
Q

Can a member be exempt from weight and body fat standards after a sexual assault occurs?

A

To help facilitate a victim’s recovery process, members may apply for a six-month body fat exemption.

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75
Q

Discussions between a person using Family Advocacy Program maltreatment services, where the person has not qualified for the restricted reporting option, are confidential with the with exceptions?

A

The Family Advocacy Specialist is required to report all cases of abuse to Coast Guard Investigative Service.

The Family Advocacy Specialist is required to notify all involved active duty members’ commands.

All reports of child maltreatment must be reported to the state agency responsible for investigating such reports.

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76
Q

When is Sexual Assault Awareness Month?

A

Held annually every April.

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77
Q

Who is eligible for Eldercare Services?

A

Active Duty members and their dependents

Select Reservist and their dependents

Full-time Civil Service employees and their dependents

Full-time Exchange System and MWR employees and their dependents

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78
Q

Who is responsible for updating information in the Special Needs Program?

A

Ultimate responsibility for the update of enrollment information rests with the US Coast Guard member.

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79
Q

When is the first SAPR Crisis Intervention Team meeting required to be held?

A

Within 24 hours of an incident.

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80
Q

In regard to the Special Needs Program, what are some examples of a psychological special need?

A

Depression, Attention Deficit Disorder (ADD), Autism, Substance Dependence.

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81
Q

What can the Family Resource Specialist assist with?

A

Looking for childcare,

In-home child care certification for CG families,

Special needs program,

Elder care,

Adoption Reimbursement,

Scholarships, loans, and grants.

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82
Q

What are the four goals of the Sexual Assault Prevention

And Response Strategic Plan?

A

Climate

Prevention

Response

Accountability

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83
Q

Is the Adoption Reimbursement Program confidential?

A

All discussions between a member using the Adoption Reimbursement Program and the Adoption Reimbursement Program Manager are confidential, with the exception of government audits, to determine appropriate use of government funding.

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84
Q

What are the six roles normally found at a Work Life staff?

A

Employee Assistance Program Coordinator (EAPC)

Sexual Assault Response Coordinator (SARC)

Transition/ Relocation Manager (TRM)

Health Promotion Manager (HPM)

Family Advocacy Specialist (FAS)

Family Resource Specialist (FRS)

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85
Q

Who is adoption reimbursement available to?

A

Active Duty Coast Guard

Coast Guard Reservists on active duty for at least 180 days

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86
Q

What is the role of the Family Advocacy Specialist (FAS)?

A

The primary function of the Family Advocacy Specialist (FAS) is to reduce and prevent family violence within the Coast Guard. The FAS accomplishes this through a case handling management system.

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87
Q

Who do you have to work through to get respite care?

A

A request for respite care assistance may be initiated only by a Family Resource Specialist or Family Advocacy Specialist at a local Work-Life Regional Practice.

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88
Q

What is the role of the Health Promotion Manager (HPM)?

A

Coordinate the development and management of the regional Health Promotion (HP) Program designed to educate and encourage all Coast Guard beneficiaries to improve their health and well being through the voluntary adoption of healthy life-styles.

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89
Q

Are victims of sexual assault outside of the Coast Guard eligible for a Special Victims Counsel?

A

Yes

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90
Q

Who is eligible for the Substance Abuse Prevention Program?

A

The Substance Abuse Prevention Program is a resource that is available to Active Duty Coast Guard members. Only the training aspect of the Substance Abuse Program is available to the Coast Guard Auxiliary, Reservists and civilian employees.

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91
Q

In regard to the Critical Incident Stress Response Program, what is a critical incident?

A

Any event with sufficient impact to produce significant emotional reactions now or later. It is generally considered extremely unusual in the range of ordinary human experiences.

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92
Q

In regard to the Special Needs Program, what are some examples of a physical special need?

A

Wheelchair Use, Use of Assistive Technology Devices (communication devices, hearing aids, etc.).

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93
Q

What form is required to be filled about upon receiving a SAPR report?

A

Sexual Assault Incident report CG-5370.

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94
Q

When is the member required to update their Special Needs Program status?

A

SNP enrollment updates for each family member enrolled in the program are due every three years or in conjunction with the submission of your e-resume, if you are tour-complete.

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95
Q

What is the role of the Family Resource Specialist (FRS)?

A

The Family Resource Specialist (FRS) is responsible for providing information and referral services regarding dependent care options to beneficiaries, including the areas of child care, elder care, adoption reimbursement, scholarships, and special needs.

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96
Q

How many counseling sessions can you get through CGSUPRT?

A

12 sessions, per problem, per year.

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97
Q

Is CGSUPRT confidential?

A

As mandated by law and regulations. all contact with the CG SUPRT are held in strict confidence, except in some unique situations such as when someone threatens to harm himself or others. The CG SUPRT Program is provided by an outside contractor to better assure confidentiality and access in all the CG locations.

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98
Q

Who is normally on the SAPR Crisis Intervention Team?

A

Senior representative from Victim’s Command (Chair)

SARC

CGIS

Legal (Judge Advocate)

Medical (Health Care Provider)

Senior representative from Subject’s Command

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99
Q

What is the maximum Adoption Reimbursement expenses that can covered in a year?

A

An active duty or reserve Coast Guard service member who adopts a child under 18 years of age may be reimbursed authorized adoption expenses up to $2,000 per adoptive child, but no more than $5,000 per calendar year.

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100
Q

How does restricted reporting work with the Family Advocacy Program?

A

A report of an incident of intimate partner maltreatment made by an ADULT victim who requests FAP and/or medical services while also requesting that the maltreatment NOT be reported to the CGIS, the Incident Determination Committee, or the alleged offender’s or victim’s command.

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101
Q

Who is eligible for the Family Advocacy Program?

A

Active Duty (including activated Reserve personnel) and their dependents

Retired personnel and their dependents as requested and to the extent resources permit

Intimate Partners of Active Duty members who are not beneficiaries

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102
Q

When is CGSUPRT available to members of the Coast Guard?

A

You can contact CGSUPRT 24 hours a day, 365 days a year.

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103
Q

Who is eligible for the Separation for Care of Newborn Children (CNC)?

A

Active Duty

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104
Q

What is the role of the Employee Assistance Program Coordinator (EAPC)?

A

The Employee Assistance Program Coordinator (EAPC) will act as the primary field COTR for all employee assistance issues within the assigned AOR. The EAPC will monitor and assess the current contract to ensure services are provided to all beneficiaries.

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105
Q

How does the Special Needs Program benefit the member?

A

Efforts are made to ensure that you, a sponsor with a dependent family member(s) with special needs, are assigned to duty stations where access to, and availability of, medical and community special needs services are validated.

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106
Q

What do Transition/Relocation Managers do?

A

TRMs may provide “Welcome Packages” with local resource information. If you would like a Welcome Package, contact the TRM in the Work-Life office at your receiving unit.

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107
Q

If you are not required to have an Ombudsman but wish to use a different unit’s ombudsman, what do you need to do?

A

Such agreements must be with the concurrence of all commands and the ombudsmen involved, and should be specified in writing, including any agreed-upon provisions for support of the ombudsmen.

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108
Q

What is the purpose of the Eldercare Services program?

A

The eldercare information and referral services are intended to provide information, resources, and referral services for individuals and families who are dealing with issues related to planning and caring for their elderly and aging family members.

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109
Q

What is available to you to ensure you are handling a SAPR case in accordance with policy and timelines?

A

Unit Commander’s Checklist for Unrestricted Reports of Sexual Assault

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110
Q

What is the minimum and maximum durations for transitional compensation?

A

Minimum - 1 year

Maximum - 3 years

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111
Q

What is the number to CGSUPRT?

A

1-855-CGSUPRT

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112
Q

What is your reference for the Adoption Reimbursement Program?

A

Reimbursement of Adoption Expenses, COMDTINST 1754.9

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113
Q

In regard to the Special Needs Program, what are some examples of a psychological special need?

A

Use of an Individualized Family Service Plan (IFSP) or an Individualized Education Plan (IEP).

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114
Q

Are cutters required to have an Ombudsman?

A

Afloat units and deployable specialized forces are encouraged to appoint an ombudsman, due to the unique separation and stress experienced by members and families assigned to these units.

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115
Q

In regard to the Special Needs Program, what are some examples of a medical special need?

A

Diabetes, Cancer, Asthma/Allergies, Migraines, Anemia, Prematurity.

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116
Q

What is the purpose of the Adoption Reimbursement Program?

A

The Adoption Reimbursement Program is intended to subsidize the adoption of children under 18 years of age for members of the Coast Guard.

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117
Q

Who is eligible for respite care?

A

Eligibility extends to Coast Guard families in which a family member has been diagnosed with a profound disability, or a serious or terminal illness that requires on-going care and attention and is enrolled in the Coast Guard Special Needs Program.

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118
Q

What is the purpose of the Work-Life program?

A

To keep CG member and families physically, psychologically, spiritually, and financially healthy so CG members can preform CG missions fully without distraction.

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119
Q

What happens if a member fails to enroll in the Special Needs Program?

A

If you willfully fail to enroll, update enrollment information, or knowingly provide false information regarding a special needs status, you may be subject to disciplinary action or other adverse administrative action, per your unit commanding officer in consultation with the servicing legal office.

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120
Q

What is the criteria to waive weight and body fat standards after a sexual assault occurs?

A

The victim signed a Victim Reporting Preference Statement and elected the unrestricted reporting option.

The sexual assault occurred within one year of the
exemption request.

The member was not on body fat probation when the sexual assault occurred.

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121
Q

After the initial SAPR Crisis Intervention Team meeting is held, how frequent should follow-up meetings be held?

A

At least monthly or as needed based on case developments, case disposition, or requested by a member.

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122
Q

How long does an Ombudsman have to complete the required training?

A

Within three months of appointment.

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123
Q

Is there a cost for CGSUPRT services?

A

Telephonic consultation and face-to-face sessions with a counselor are provided at no cost to you.

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124
Q

What is the purpose of the Family Advocacy Program?

A

The Family Advocacy Program is a Congressionally-mandated program that addresses prevention, identification, reporting, investigation, and treatment of intimate partner and child maltreatment and assigns responsibilities for a coordinated community response within the Coast Guard in collaboration with services outside the Coast Guard.

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125
Q

Is the Work-Place Violence and Threatening Behavior Program confidential?

A

Discussions of the Work-Place Violence and Threatening Behavior Program are not confidential.

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126
Q

Are family members with Special Needs that are found to be temporary conditions required to be enrolled in the program?

A

Certain medical conditions may warrant temporary enrollment. Contact your Family Resource Specialist (FRS), and he/she will coordinate with the Senior Medical Executive (SME) for a final decision.

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127
Q

Is enrollment in the Special Needs Program confidential?

A

Information concerning enrollment in the SNP or data used in this program is not made part of your service record. All information related to the SNP is strictly confidential with access only by authorized personnel who have the need-to-know.

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128
Q

What is the Special Needs Program?

A

The SNP provides a comprehensive, coordinated, multidisciplinary approach to community support, housing, medical, educational, and personnel services for Coast Guard families with special needs.

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129
Q

What is the role of the Transition/ Relocation Manager (TRM)?

A

To administer the Coast Guard’s Transition/Relocation and Spouse Employment Assistance Program. This program is intended to assist active duty, recalled reservists, recently separated and retired personnel, civilian members, and family members during the relocation cycle.

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130
Q

Is enrollment in the Special Needs Program mandatory?

A

Yes, for active duty service members, PHS officers serving with the Coast Guard, and reserve members on
active duty for 181 days or more who have dependent family members diagnosed with medical, psychological,
physical, or educational special needs.

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131
Q

What is the latest that a member can claim Adoption Reimbursement expenses?

A

The reimbursement request must be submitted no later than 1 year after finalization of the adoption.

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132
Q

What is the respite care program for?

A

The CGMA Respite Care Program provides a “break” for a few hours a week, or month, to eligible Coast Guard clients who have responsibility 24 hours per day to care for an ill or disabled family member who lives in the same household.

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133
Q

Who is required to have an Ombudsman?

A

Coast Guard Area, District, Sector, and Base commanders, and the Superintendent of the Coast Guard Academy, shall appoint one or more ombudsmen.

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134
Q

How much legal advice can you get through CGSUPRT?

A

No less than 30 min and up to an hour free.

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135
Q

What is the cap for respite care?

A

The maximum number of respite care hours may not normally exceed 40 hours per month (average usage 8 hours per week). The maximum hourly rate for respite care may not normally exceed $20/hour.

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136
Q

Is the Eldercare Services program confidential?

A

Eldercare discussions with Work-Life and CG SUPRT personnel are confidential.

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137
Q

In regard to the Special Needs Program, what is the temporary condition?

A

6-12 Months

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138
Q

If an MPO is issued, can the affected people make contact?

A

No contact what-so-ever.

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139
Q

How are Adoption Reimbursement expenses claimed?

A

On a Coast Guard Reimbursement Registration for Adoption Expenses form.

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140
Q

Can a member separate for Care of Newborn Children?

A

Under temporary separation, career-oriented officers and enlisted members are allowed a one time separation from active duty for up to two years.

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141
Q

Who is eligible for the Critical Incident Stress Response program?

A

Active Duty, Reservists and their dependents

Civil Service employees

Exchange System and MWR employees

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142
Q

Is the Substance Abuse Prevention Program confidential?

A

Information regarding the Substance Abuse Prevention Program is not completely confidential. However, case related personal information pertaining to substance use, abuse and chemical dependency is strictly confidential and shared only on a “Need-To-Know” basis with professionals relevant to the subject matter.

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143
Q

Are child maltreatment cases restricted or unrestricted?

A

All child maltreatment cases are unrestricted.

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144
Q

Who is eligible to enroll in the Special Needs Program?

A

Active duty service members, PHS officers serving with the Coast Guard, and reserve members on active duty
for 181 days or more who have dependent family members diagnosed with medical, psychological, physical, or educational special needs.

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145
Q

Who can take a Family Advocacy Program unrestricted report?

A

Chain of command, military or civilian law enforcement, or military criminal investigative organization, and the FAP for intervention.

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146
Q

What is the Assessment Zone (AZ) of a Security Zone (SZ)?

A

The area outside the boundary is called the Assessment Zone (AZ). If conditions warrant, additional boats may be deployed into the AZ to intercept and escort, to extend the range of interception, to detect potential threats, and to escort vessels entering and leaving port.

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147
Q

What is a HCPV?

A

High Capacity Passenger Vessel

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148
Q

What is phase one of the MGBC?

A

Phase 1: PQS, done at the unit.

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149
Q

When stopping non-compliant vessels, what is the short name for Step I?

A

Command Presence

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150
Q

What is a Level I PWCS Unit?

A

Level 1 PWCS Units are classified based on assigned Limited Access Area (LAA) and/or Security Zone (SZ) enforcement activities which require Mounted Automatic Weapons (MAW).

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151
Q

What is a HVA?

A

High Value Asset

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152
Q

What should be done to a pier that a HVA will be moored at?

A

The pier to which the HVA will be moored should also be checked both from the water and from the shore. The pier area shall be carefully inspected for possible explosive devices.

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153
Q

What are Non-Level 1 PWCS Unit’s and what do they do?

A

Units not classified as Level 1 PWCS units (therefore not likely to have Tactical Coxswain/Tactical Boat Crew Members (TCOXN/TBCMs)), shall perform certain PWCS activities including Maritime Critical Infrastructure/Key Resources (MCI/KR) patrols and security boarding’s with a MAW

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154
Q

What is the optimum lateral distance when administering warning shots with LA51 munitions?

A

25yds

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155
Q

What are the parts of a security zone?

A

Reaction Zone

Intercept Zone

Sector

Boundary

Assessment Zone

Patrol Area

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156
Q

What is the effective range for stopping a VPIT with the M240?

A

Less than 875yds.

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157
Q

What items fall under Step III tactics?

A

Block Sails

Use Lines, nets, or entanglers

Sever Fuel lines

Deliver F/F Water to flood engines

Physically Blocking

Shouldering

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158
Q

What is a Sector of a Security Zone (SZ)?

A

The sector is a portion of the SZ defined by boundary lines that converge at the asset. Sectors are designated with letters (e.g., Sector A). Normally, no more than four sectors are necessary within the entire SZ, and the number of sectors may vary according to the number of RBs available for patrol. The number of sectors within the SZ need not necessarily coincide exactly with those in the RZ.

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159
Q

What things can be done when conducting Step III tactics?

A

Employ Lines, Nets or Entanglers

Sever or Disconnect Fuel Lines

Shouldering

Ramming

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160
Q

If a SAR case occurs and TACON is not the same person and the SMC, how should this be coordinated?

A

TACON may also serve as SAR Mission Coordinator (SMC) for SAR forces within that region. When this is not the case, TACON should coordinate with SMC (normally the Sector/Group/Air Station Commander).

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161
Q

What is OPCONs role in Security Zone (SZ) enforcement?

A

The designated OPCON is responsible for developing plans that will use available resources to provide for the protection of a HVA.

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162
Q

What is an RV?

A

Reaction Vessel

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163
Q

How many boats are normally involved in a Moving Security Zone (Escort)?

A

In moving SZ enforcement (protected asset is underway), a minimum of a two-boat patrol is normally required. Additional security vessels may be used as indicated by the situation and conditions.

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164
Q

If the Screening Vessel (SV) cannot reacquire the TOI, what shall they do?

A

If the SV is unable to regain its tactical position on the TOI, they shall call “I’m beat” over the VHF-FM radio alerting all SZPU assets.

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165
Q

What are the preferred weapons for stopping a VPIT?

A

M16 & M240

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166
Q

When conducting PWCS, what is an alternate to patrol orders?

A

An alternative to patrol orders is an Incident Action Plan (IAP).

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167
Q

What is considered a half load on an M240?

A

Bolt forward in battery on an empty chamber.

First round of ammunition belt in feed tray groove against the cartridge stop.

Machine gun cover closed.

Safety in the fire position.

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168
Q

When do you stop using Disabling Fire?

A

Cease fire when the vessel stops, is disabled, enters foreign territorial seas, or if it becomes unsafe to continue.

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169
Q

What are the required Tactical and Pursuit Mission specific equipment requirements?

A

Gunner Restraint Device(s)

Crew Restraint Device(s)

Helmet

Ballistic Goggles

Boat Crew Communications System (BCCS) (Level I units, bow gunner and Coxswain required)

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170
Q

What is OPCON?

A

Operational Control

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171
Q

What activities do Level I PWCS Unit’s perform?

A

High volume of Certain Dangerous Cargo (CDC) vessels transiting through Key Port Areas/Resources,

High volume escorts of High Capacity Passenger Vessels (HCPV),

Military Out-Load (MOL) facility, escort, and point protection,

Fixed Security Zone enforcement ISO NSSE/SEAR Events and at higher risk Maritime Critical Infrastructure/Key Resources (CIKR),

High Value Unit (HVU) and High Value Asset (HVA) Escorts, and

High volume of High Interest Vessel (HIV) boarding’s in the port.

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172
Q

What is MARSEC 2?

A

Means the level for which appropriate additional protective security measures shall be maintained for a period of time as a result of heightened risk of a transportation security incident.

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173
Q

What is a SV?

A

Screen Vessel

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174
Q

If the Screening Vessel (SV) calls “I’m beat” over the radio, what shall they do?

A

The SV will clear the RV Field of Fire (FOF) and, if there is sufficient time, the SV should move toward the Reaction zone to back up RV and triangulate the FOF.

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175
Q

What is considered a full load on an M240?

A

Bolt locked to the rear.

First round of ammunition belt in feed tray groove against the cartridge stop.

Machine gun cover closed.

Safety in the safe position.

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176
Q

What is the Gunner Restraint System?

A

The gunner restraint system is the approved, two-part harness which tethers the gunner to the boat.

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177
Q

What are 2 types of approaches to threats?

A

Bow-on

Opening Maneuver

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178
Q

Why are KPA’s important?

A

They determine CDC escorts.

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179
Q

What Use of Force training do TCOXNs need?

A

Vessel on Vessel JUFE.

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180
Q

When stopping non-compliant vessels, what is the short name for Step III?

A

Disrupt

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181
Q

Who can establish a Security Zone (SZ)?

A

SZs may be established only by the COTP or District Commander. The authority creating the zone will determine its physical size and restrictions it imposes on those seeking to enter or operate within it.

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182
Q

How does diverting a boat engaged in a Security Zone (SZ) enforcement work?

A

Boats assigned to SZ enforcement responsibilities should not be reassigned from those duties to respond to SAR missions, except where the urgency of the SAR incident (life could be lost if assistance is not immediately provided) requires a rapid decision and response.

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183
Q

Can boat crew use two Gunner Restraint Systems at the same time?

A

Personnel shall wear no more than one gunner restraint system at a time.

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184
Q

What is PATCOMs role in Security Zone (SZ) enforcement?

A

The Patrol Commander (PATCOM) is designated by TACON to handle the on-scene organization of larger operations. PATCOM’s primary responsibility is to direct on-scene forces and continually update TACON with the on-scene conditions while positioning RBs in the most advantageous locations to ensure the HVA’s protection.

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185
Q

How many FPCON levels are there?

A

5

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186
Q

What should be done in planning for SAR during a PWCS mission?

A

As part of the operational planning process and the pre-brief, OPCON and TACON should include identification of adequate SAR assets and availability of those assets within the geographical region where a PWCS mission is being conducted.

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187
Q

What are some examples of a moving HVA?

A

Military ships and submarines,

Merchant ships carrying high value cargo,

High capacity passenger vessels,

Vessels carrying explosives or other hazardous cargo (fuels, natural gas, chemicals).

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188
Q

RBs which are part of a SZPU assigned to protect an HVA (moving or stationary) shall assume what roles?

A

Screening Vessel (SV)

Reaction Vessel (RV)

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189
Q

Can the MAW gunner or MAW be dismounted? If so, for what reasons?

A

Yes, for weather risks.

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190
Q

What is NTAS?

A

National Terrorism Advisory System - Replaced the color coded Homeland Security Advisory. Designated to communicate terrorist threats.

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191
Q

Can a Coxswain move a gunner inside when weather/ seas pose a threat to the gunner?

A

When the weather/sea state poses a physical threat to the gunner, it may be appropriate to bring the gunner inside. The Coxswain shall notify Tactical Control (TACON) when the decision is made to remove the gunner from the bow/stern.

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192
Q

What MARSEC level is considered a “heightened risk”?

A

MARSEC 2

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193
Q

What are the three loading postures on the M-240?

A

Clear Load

Half Load

Full Load

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194
Q

What is the effective range for stopping a VPIT with the M16?

A

Less than 600yds.

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195
Q

What are the four types of Limited Access Areas (LAA)?

A

Security Zones (SZs),

Naval Vessel Protection Zones (NVPZs),

Restricted waterfront areas,

Safety zones.

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196
Q

What is a SZ?

A

Security Zone

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197
Q

Are single boat escorts tracked on the MSRO scorecard?

A

Single-boat escorts do not satisfy or contribute to meeting the escort requirements of the MSRO Scorecard.

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198
Q

When performing Step III tactics, how far over can a crew member go over to attempt to disconnect fuel lines?

A

Crews may not cross the gunwale to accomplish this while both boats are moving. Use of the boat hook is recommended.

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199
Q

What is the max effective range of the M240B?

A

1969 YDS

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200
Q

What is a HIV?

A

High Interest Vessel

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201
Q

What is the hierarchy of on-scene leadership for tactical boat operations?

A

OPFOR Operator,

Designated Trainer on the RB(s)

Safety Observer

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202
Q

When do you use a clear load on the M-240?

A

Provides appropriate balance between safety and readiness during transits to and from PWCS activities.

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203
Q

Who adds or deletes MCIKR?

A

AREA with Sector recommendations.

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204
Q

Who shall be assigned as an OPFOR operator?

A

Commands shall assign the duties of the Surface-to-Surface OPFOR operator to a Designated Trainer who possesses the competency being trained, demonstrates the necessary maturity, and has the demeanor to instruct.

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205
Q

What are Security Zones (SZs)?

A

Security Zones (SZ) are designated areas of land, water, or land and water established for such time as the Captain of the Port (COTP) deems necessary to prevent damage or injury to any vessel or waterfront facility; to safeguard ports, harbors, territories, or waters of the United States; or to secure the observance of the rights and obligations of the United States.

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206
Q

What is your reference for FPCON?

A

Physical Security and Force Protection Program

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207
Q

What items fall under Step IV tactics?

A

Disabling Fire

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208
Q

Who sets FPCON levels?

A

Commandant is responsible.

Area commanders shall direct an area-wide FPCON, and may declare a higher FPCON within their AOR.

District Commanders shall direct a FPCON throughout the district and may declare a higher FPCON within their AOR.

Commanding Officers may direct FPCON for units within their AOR.

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209
Q

What is the optimum lateral distance when administering warning shots or disabling fire?

A

Both Disabling fire and warning shots should be conducted within an optimal distance of 25 yards or less.

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210
Q

How often is M-240 currency and what do you have to shoot?

A

M240 Annual currency- 200 Rounds, 5th round tracer.

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211
Q

What is a MAW?

A

Mounted Automatic Weapon

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212
Q

What is Step III (disrupt)?

A

Actions taken to temporarily prevent a non-compliant vessel from operating under its own power or maneuvering freely.

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213
Q

What are the three pursuit phases?

A

Approach

Intercept

Engage

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214
Q

What is MSRO?

A

Maritime Security Response Operations

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215
Q

What is Step II (warn)?

A

Unambiguous audio or visual signal with the intent to indicate that consequences will be delivered if the vessel fails to heave to.

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216
Q

What needs to be done if a Single Boat Enforcement of a Fixed SZ is being setup?

A

OPCON approval (TACON for deployed shore-based units) is required before employing a single-boat patrol.

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217
Q

Who is normally OPCON for Security Zone (SZ) enforcement?

A

In most cases, the District Commander will be OPCON, but they may delegate this responsibility to a specific Captain of the Port (COTP) or Sector/Air Station Commander.

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218
Q

What is a Vessels Posing an Imminent Threat (VPIT)?

A

A VPIT is defined as a vessel which poses an imminent threat of death or serious physical injury to individuals onboard HVA or SZPU, including but not limited to firing weapons, attempting to ram, bearing explosives, etc. Any asset assigned to the SZPU can make the determination that a TOI is a VPIT.

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219
Q

Who makes the decision whether Step III tactics are acceptable?

A

The decision to engage in these tactics rests fully with the TCOXN/PCOXN/PMC.

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220
Q

What chapter of the MLEM lists the steps of force?

A

MLEM Chapter 4

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221
Q

What is TACONs role in Security Zone (SZ) enforcement?

A

TACON is responsible for oversight of assigned assets as well as providing guidance as needed.

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222
Q

What is phase four of the MGBC?

A

Phase 4: Vessel on Vessel course, gunner must complete phase 4 in order to complete the qualification process. DO NOT ALLOW LIVE AMMO O/B VESSEL.

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223
Q

What is the Patrol Area of a Security Zone (SZ)?

A

The patrol area is a portion of the SZ and surrounding area in which a unit conducts enforcement operations. SVs should maintain an active patrolling routine making sure their actions and efforts are well coordinated and synchronized. Patrol patterns should minimize gaps in the SZ.

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224
Q

What are the three levels of MCIKR?

A

Locally

Permanent

Conditional

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225
Q

What is an NCV?

A

Noncompliant Vessel

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226
Q

What are some MSRO activities?

A

LAA (fixed and escort)

Security Boarding’s

Positive Control Measures

MOL Support Patrols

National Special Security Events (NSSE)

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227
Q

Where can a SVSB be conducted?

A

Close to MCIKR if possible.

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228
Q

Are personnel firing shoulder fire small arms required to use the Gunner Restraint System?

A

Personnel firing shoulder fired small arms shall be either tethered or restrained by a crew restraint system.

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229
Q

What is required before completing a single-boat escort?

A

OPCON approval (TACON for deployed units) is required before employing a single-boat escort.

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230
Q

Is spontaneous SZ Enforcement or Pursuit Level IV training

A

SZ Enforcement or Pursuit Level IV training shall be scheduled by the Unit Command Cadre. Spontaneous training is prohibited.

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231
Q

What is a TOI?

A

Target of Interest?

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232
Q

When administering warning shots with the M16/ M240, what is the optimum lateral distance?

A

Less than 25yds.

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233
Q

What Use of Force training do TBCMs need?

A

CG JUFE

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234
Q

What is Step IV (disable)?

A

Actions taken to irreversibly prevent a non-compliant vessel from operating under its own power.

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235
Q

What are the four basic tactics for identifying, maneuvering toward, and physically altering the course of a TOI?

A

Intercept

Shadow

Herding

Shouldering

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236
Q

What is a Naval Vessel Protection Zone (NVPZ)?

A

A Naval Vessel Protection Zone (NVPZ) is a 500-yard regulated area of water surrounding U.S. naval vessels that is necessary to provide for the safety or security of these U.S. naval vessels.

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237
Q

What is the difference between Tactical and Pursuit?

A

Tactical is defensive (SZ), Pursuit is Offensive (NCV-UOF)

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238
Q

When administering disabling fire with the M870, M16, or M240, what is your target?

A

Outboard/Outdrive only

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239
Q

If you acquire an SNO for Step II tactics, does it cover Step IV tactics too?

A

If the SNO granted for Step II did not include Step IV tactics, crews must request a separate SNO.

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240
Q

What MARSEC level is considered a “significant risk”?

A

MARSEC 1

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241
Q

If a two boat patrol encounters simultaneous TOIs, what should they do?

A

In the case of simultaneous TOIs, the two boats split up to interdict each TOI and prevent approach to the HVA. In this case, both boats are more vulnerable than when they can support each other, but this is outweighed by the primacy of HVA defense.

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242
Q

What is a Pursuit Level IV Unit?

A

Units that routinely conduct NCVP during CD/AMIO need the authority to deliver Step IV tactics in accordance with NCV checklist.

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243
Q

Should the need for immediate SAR response arise in the vicinity of an ongoing PWCS mission, AND there isn’t a designated SAR response platform readily available to respond, is permission required to depart the SZ?

A

Permission from TACON and/or the TCOXN (or PATCOM when assigned) is normally required before an RB can divert.

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244
Q

How many boats are required for effective Security Zone (SZ) enforcement?

A

Effective SZ enforcement requires that a minimum of two RBs be assigned to patrolling the zone’s boundary.

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245
Q

What is the normal size of a Security Zone (SZ)?

A

If space is available, an overall SZ of 2,000 yards should be used. TACON will be required to modify the size of the SZ in areas that do not allow for 2,000 yards (entering a port/narrow channel).

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246
Q

When conducting tactical boat operations, what roles can a Safety Observer not fill?

A

The overall Safety Observer shall not be an evaluator, Designated Trainer, or Response Boat (RB) operator.

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247
Q

What kind of things can a Single Boat Enforcement of a Fixed SZ protect?

A

Floating barriers, shore-side weapons emplacements, armed Coast Guard aircraft, non-security Coast Guard boats, and/or patrol craft from other law enforcement agencies.

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248
Q

When administering disabling fire with the M870, what is the optimum lateral distance?

A

Less than 25yds.

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249
Q

What is the minimum Law Enforcement qualification that a TBCM, TCOXN, PBCM, or PCOXN must hold?

A

To certify as TBCM, TCOXN, PBCM, or PCOXN, personnel shall be currently certified as BTM, at a minimum.

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250
Q

When is it good to employ the Shadow Tactic?

A

It is good practice to employ the shadow tactics when a vessel transits near the SZ.

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251
Q

If on-scene PWCS assets receive a distress alert or observe a SAR incident directly, and are either not able to contact TACON, or communications with the TACON will result in a significant delay for response, can they respond to SAR on their own?

A

The TCOXN (or PATCOM when assigned) shall coordinate response efforts for the distress incident.

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252
Q

When stopping a VPIT with the M16 or M240, what is your target?

A

Vessel (Pilot House, Bridge, Engine Compartment).

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253
Q

What items fall under Step I tactics?

A

Communicating to vessel

Maneuvering Close aboard

Increasing number of LE units O/S

Visibly uncovering, readying, and manning weapons

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254
Q

When stopping non-compliant vessels, what is the short name for Step II?

A

Warn

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255
Q

When stopping non-compliant vessels, what is the short name for Step IV?

A

Disable

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256
Q

What are the five overlapping areas of a Security Zone (SZ)?

A

Boundary

Intercept Zone

Reaction Zone

Sector

Patrol Area

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257
Q

When do you use a full load on the M-240?

A

This posture applies to vessels whenever a significant likelihood of engaging an adversary exists.

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258
Q

Who can establish a Security Zone?

A

COTP

District

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259
Q

What is a High Value Asset (HVA)?

A

HVAs include any landside or waterside asset such as military and commercial vessels, waterfront facilities, military facilities, submarines, or commercial vessels carrying Certain Dangerous Cargoes (CDC).

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260
Q

When stopping non-compliant vessels, when are LA51 munitions used?

A

Step II

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261
Q

What is a Screening Vessel (SV)?

A

The SV is the RB that intercepts an incoming vessel to determine its intent. The SV detects, identifies, investigates, classifies, reports, warns off, and, if necessary, engages Targets of Interest (TOI).

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262
Q

When stopping non-compliant vessels, what is Step I?

A

Step I tactics include proximity, appearance, directions and/or non-contact maneuvers to influence NCV actions. Coxswains shall consider the use of these tactics to induce compliance with the order to stop.

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263
Q

What chapter in MLEM deals with PWCS?

A

Chapter 10

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264
Q

What must be done before/while employing NCV-UOF?

A

Checklist for stopping NCV, Chap 4 MLEM

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265
Q

What is an RB?

A

Response Boat

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266
Q

When administering warning shots with LA51 munitions, where is your target?

A

30-50yds forward of NCV’s bow.

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267
Q

What are moving Security Zone (SZ)s created around?

A

Moving SZs (escorts) are established around a transiting HVA.

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268
Q

What is the Boundary of a Security Zone (SZ)?

A

The boundary is the outer edge of the SZ and the point at which no person or vessel may cross without permission. It provides the legal basis for Coast Guard officers to issue lawful orders requiring persons to stay out of, or depart from, the zone.

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269
Q

What items fall under Step II tactics?

A

Warning Shots

Herding also falls under Step II

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270
Q

What kind of gun stand is mounted on response boats?

A

Each unit’s servicing armory shall install the MK 16 Stands on unit boats. Once installed, these mounts become part of the boat outfit and are specific to the mounted location. The mount shall not be removed except for maintenance.

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271
Q

What is MARSEC 3?

A

Means the level for which further specific protective security measures shall be maintained for a limited period of time when a transportation security incident is probable, imminent, or has occurred, although it may not be possible to identify the specific target.

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272
Q

What is a SVSB and what is its size limit?

A

Small Vessel Security Boarding

Less than 300 GT

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273
Q

What are the optional Tactical and Pursuit Mission specific equipment requirements?

A

Spare M127A1 parachute flares

Warning Munitions

Running Gear Entangler

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274
Q

Can the Coxswain use Night Vision Devices when operating the boat?

A

The Coxswain shall not use NVDs due to the decrease in depth perception and peripheral vision.

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275
Q

What is a Reaction Vessel (RV)?

A

The Reaction Vessel (RV) is charged with backing up the SV when it is intercepting/investigating a TOI entering the SZ.

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276
Q

What is a PATCOM?

A

Patrol Commander

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277
Q

Can you fire a M240 from the shoulder?

A

Firing an un-mounted M240B from the shoulder is not authorized.

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278
Q

How are Level 1 PWCS or Pursuit Level IV Designated Trainers documented?

A

Each Level 1 PWCS or Pursuit Level IV Unit Commander shall assign, in writing, Designated Trainers for tactical / pursuit training.

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279
Q

How should gunners firing shoulder fired weapons from the bow be positioned?

A

When firing from the bow, the gunner in kneeling position is the safest employment and gives the TCOXN/PCOXN the best visibility. When employing a shoulder fired weapon on the bow, a tactical sling shall be used.

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280
Q

Where shall train stops be set for MAW’s?

A

The train stops shall be set to stop the arc of motion no less than six inches from the cabin and/or fixed structures. The optimal setting allows for overlapping fields of fire with other MAW.

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281
Q

What is a VPIT?

A

Vessel posing Imminent Threat

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282
Q

What is phase two of the MGBC?

A

Phase 2: Judgmental use of Force, done at the unit.

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283
Q

How should gunners firing from inside of the cabin be positioned?

A

Gunners firing from inside the cabin should do so from the seated position and use the crew restraints.

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284
Q

What is the Intercept Zone (IZ) of a Security Zone (SZ)?

A

The Intercept Zone (IZ) is the area inside the SZ where TOIs should be intercepted. Initial contact is made at the outer edge of the IZ to allow maximum reaction time.

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285
Q

Can an asset within the line of sight respond to a SAR case?

A

SAR incidents occurring within line-of-sight of PWCS assets allow for a direct evaluation of the situation and normally the TCOXN (or PATCOM when assigned) will be able to dictate response rapidly. Incidents occurring at a greater distance (not in line-of-sight) require careful evaluation by TACON and SMC before assigning response assets.

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286
Q

What is Step I (command presence)?

A

Proximity, appearance, and/or directions to influence actions.

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287
Q

What is PATCOM?

A

Patrol Commander

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288
Q

In addition to a designated OPFOR operator, what should the OPFOR boat crew consist of?

A

The remainder of the OPFOR boat crew shall include a TBCM/PBCM, depending on the tactics being trained. Units should consider having an additional TCOXN/PCOXN onboard.

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289
Q

Does the call out “I’m beat” automatically classify a TOI as a VPIT?

A

Being “beat” does not automatically classify the TOI as a VPIT.

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290
Q

What are the 4 types of LAA’s (Limited Access Areas)?

A

Security Zones (protecting the asset/person/resource)

Naval Vessel Protection Zone (500YDS unless otherwise stated)

Restricted Waterfront areas

Safety Zones

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291
Q

Is it normal to divert an asset for SAR when conducting PWCS?

A

Every effort should be made to avoid diverting assets from their assigned mission.

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292
Q

Once the M240 has been mounted, what must the Coxswain do?

A

Coxswains shall verify pre-fire checks have been performed and logged.

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293
Q

What is TACON?

A

Tactical Control

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294
Q

How many different methods of carry are there with the MAW?

A

3

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295
Q

If a single-boat escort is absolutely necessary, how should the escorting boat do it?

A

The escorting boat should lead the HVA, weaving back and forth on each side of the bow to ensure visual coverage astern of the HVA.

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296
Q

What are patrol orders?

A

Outline the security missions objectives and conditions.

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297
Q

Who can sign off PQS for Level 1 PWCS or Pursuit Level IV qualifications?

A

Only the Designated Trainer may sign off on PQS. Designated Trainers shall sign PQS only for the course(s) graduated from.

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298
Q

When stopping non-compliant vessels, what is Herding?

A

Herding is a tactical boat maneuver where a Screening Vessel (SV) purposely maneuvers toward a contact of interest (there is no physical contact) in an attempt to force it away from the protected asset (or area).

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299
Q

Are personnel manning a MAW required to use the Gunner Restraint System?

A

Personnel manning the MAW are required to use this system.

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300
Q

When stopping non-compliant vessels, do you need permission to preform Step I?

A

Step I is the lowest level of the Use of Force Continuum and requires no authorization.

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301
Q

How should gunners firing shoulder fired weapons from the aft deck be positioned?

A

Gunners employing shoulder fired weapons from the aft deck of closed cabin boats should do so from a kneeling position with the gunner restraint system connecting them to the boat.

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302
Q

Can a TCOX be used to fill the role of a TBCM?

A

A TCOXN may be used to fill the role of TBCM if qualified and current on the MAW as the gunner.

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303
Q

What is a pre-escort sweep?

A

Before the HVA transit, the planned transit route should be cleared of all suspicious vessels.

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304
Q

What are the two types of Security Zones (SZs)?

A

SZs are either fixed or moving.

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305
Q

What is phase three of the MGBC?

A

Phase 3: Land based course of fire or Waterborne course of fire, must be completed prior to phase 4(member must be boat crew qualified)

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306
Q

What are the 3 Types of Self Defense?

A

Individual

Unit

National

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307
Q

When does SROE apply?

A

Unit is operating under DoD TACON, outside U.S. territorial seas (12NM), and not conducting law
enforcement missions.

Air and Maritime homeland defense missions conducted by CG units under DoD TACON, regardless of location, unless otherwise directed by the Secretary of Defense.

When engaged in national self-defense, as authorize by an authority designated in the SROE.

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308
Q

What is the minimum Law Enforcement qualification that a PMC must hold?

A

PMC shall be currently certified as BO.

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309
Q

Why do we carry the MAW?

A

To defend in case of an attack and to provide a visual deterrence.

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310
Q

To assist with on-scene coordination, what may TACON assign?

A

For larger operations involving multiple afloat assets, TACON may assign a Patrol Commander (PATCOM) to assist with the on-scene coordination.

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311
Q

What is MCIKR?

A

Maritime Critical Infrastructure Key Resource

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312
Q

When stopping non-compliant vessels, when are Copper Sabot munitions used?

A

Step IV

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313
Q

What are the requirements to become a Level 1 PWCS or Pursuit Level IV Designated Trainer?

A

Designated Trainers must have completed formal Coast Guard resident Tactical or Pursuit Training. CO/OIC’s shall ensure Designated Trainers possess the appropriate level of certification, ability, maturity and demeanor required of this position. A Designated Trainer shall be assigned to each training platform.

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314
Q

How are vessels named in a four boat escort?

A

Port Bow, Starboard Bow, Port Quarter, and Starboard Quarter.

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315
Q

Can a Non-Level I unit certify TCOXNs and TBCMs?

A

Only level-1 commands have the authority to certify TCOXNs and TBCMs.

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316
Q

What must be done prior to moving up the next step during NCV-UOF?

A

The prior step must be used or rejected as undesirable.

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317
Q

When can shoulder fired weapons be fired from the bow?

A

Shoulder-fired weapons may be utilized from the bow only when used with USCG Custom Design Single Point Sling and Weapon Attachment Set.

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318
Q

What is KPA?

A

Key Port Area

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319
Q

What is MARSEC 1?

A

The level for which minimum appropriate security measures shall be maintained at all times.

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320
Q

What is the Reaction Zone (RZ) of a Security Zone (SZ)?

A

The Reaction Zone (RZ) is the area, contained completely within the SZ, where vessels that pose an imminent threat of death or serious physical injury shall not be allowed to enter.

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321
Q

What is a Security Zone Protection Unit (SZPU)?

A

The Security Zone Protection Unit (SZPU) is the team of assets with certified crews that work together to enforce the SZ and protect the HVA.

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322
Q

What is TACON?

A

Tactical Control

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323
Q

What MARSEC level is considered a “terrorist threat imminent or post incident”?

A

MARSEC 3

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324
Q

What is the optimum defense posture for escorting a HVA?

A

The optimum defensive posture for HVA transit in unprotected waters is a four-boat escort.

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325
Q

Who can sign off PMC PQS?

A

Pursuit Mission Commander (PMC) PQS may be signed off by a Pursuit Designated Trainer or a currently certified PMC.

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326
Q

What are fixed Security Zone (SZ)s created around?

A

Fixed zones can be created around stationary assets at anchor, pier-side, or ashore.

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327
Q

When approaching a stopped VPIT, what shall the Coxswain consider?

A

Best use of weapons available

How to present the smallest profile

Triangulation if more than one boat is responding

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328
Q

What shall the Officer in Charge incorporate into their navigation standards for unit’s that conduct high speed and/or tactical maneuver training?

A

Unit Commanders shall designate authorized training locations for high speed and/or tactical maneuver training, describe conditions under which the use of high speed and specialized tactics are appropriate within the Command Navigation Standards for both operations and training.

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329
Q

When stopping non-compliant vessels, do you need permission to preform Step II?

A

The authorization to use Step II tactics may require a Flag Officer Statement of No Objection (SNO).

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330
Q

What is considered High Speed?

A

High speed is defined as speed of 30 knots or greater.

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331
Q

When performing Step III tactics, when is ramming acceptable?

A

Ramming, the act of aggressively making contact with the NCV, shall be used only as an act of self-defense or as a last resort to protect the HVA from an act of terrorism.

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332
Q

When do you use a half load on the M-240?

A

Vessels actively conducting PWCS shall be in this posture.

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333
Q

When performing Step III tactics, what is the preferred weapon for delivering disabling fire?

A

The Remington Model 870 shotgun with copper sabot slugs is the preferred weapon for delivering disabling fire against outboard engines.

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334
Q

When time and resources permit, prior to the escort of an HVA, what should be done?

A

The planned transit route, bridges, and large piers close to the transit area should be inspected for possible hazards. This inspection should also include alternate routes, emergency routes and anchorages.

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335
Q

When shall “out of position” be called on the radio?

A

The SV shall call “Out of position” over the VHF-FM radio when the SV has temporarily lost its tactical position and is unable to employ TTP to determine TOI intent.

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336
Q

Why do we conduct MSRO activities?

A

To deter actions from being taken;

To disrupt actions if they’re taken.

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337
Q

What is the purpose of the Shadow Tactic?

A

The goal of the shadow maneuver is to take up position between the TOI and the HVA, in order to keep the TOI outside of the SZ while the SV remains inside the SZ.

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338
Q

When administering warning shots with the M16/ M240, what is your target?

A

50yds forward of NCV’s Bow.

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339
Q

When performing Step III tactics, what is the purpose of shouldering?

A

The goal of shouldering is to contact a NCV with enough force to drive it in a new direction and prevent it from traveling on its intended course, or to compel compliance with orders to stop.

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340
Q

What is the definition of a transgender member?

A

A transgender member is anyone who has received a medical diagnosis from a military medical provider that gender transition is medically necessary, including any member who intends to begin transition, is undergoing transition, or has completed transition and is stable in the preferred gender.

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341
Q

When will the Coast Guard begin automatic contributions to your TSP in the Blended Retirement System?

A

The CG will automatically contribute an amount equal to 1 percent of your basic pay to your Thrift Saving Plan (TSP) after 60 days of service.

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342
Q

What is a Coast Guard Mutual Assistance SEG?

A

Supplemental Education Grant

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343
Q

In the LANTAREA People Plan, if you have less than 50 people, can you use another unit’s CDAR?

A

Units with less than 50 assigned members that are within one-hour commute of a large CG shore unit (Area/ District, Sector, ISC, Air Station) that has a CDAR may, if both units agree, designate that CDAR to serve the smaller unit.

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344
Q

What requires you, as an Officer in Charge to maintain standing orders, cutter navigation standards, the OIC’s night order book, and XPO’s morning orders?

A

Coast Guard Regulations, COMDTINST M5000.3B

Chapter 4

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345
Q

In which chapter of which manual do you find your responsibilities as an Officer in Charge listed?

A

Coast Guard Regulations, COMDTINST M5000.3B

Chapter 4, Part 3

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346
Q

If a member wishes to change their gender, when are they required to meet applicable military standards for the preferred gender?

A

Once the gender marker is changed in DEERS, the Service member will be responsible for meeting all applicable military standards of the preferred gender.

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347
Q

When will the Coast Guard begin matching contributions to your TSP in the Blended Retirement System?

A

Matching contributions by the CG will start at three

years of service.

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348
Q

What are some other educational funding sources?

A

CG Grant

MGIB

CGMA SEG

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349
Q

What is the 0, 1, 2, 3 rule?

A

0 - DUI’s

1 - Drink per hour

2 - Two drinks per occasion

3 - Drinks per day

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350
Q

What is High-Year Tenure?

A

A flexible workforce management tool that establishes standards for enlisted career progression by pay-grade.

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351
Q

Who is a Coast Guard Mutual Assistance SEG for?

A

Coast Guard men, women and their families.

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352
Q

How long are members who become pregnant for 20 weeks or less exempt from weight and body fat standards?

A

For members who are pregnant for less than 20 weeks, the six month exemption remains in effect.

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353
Q

What is the definition or sexual assault?

A

Intentional sexual contact, characterized by use of force, threats, intimidation, abuse of authority, or when a victim does not or cannot consent.

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354
Q

Who is VCG?

A

Vice Commandant

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355
Q

What is an LDAC?

A

Leadership and Diversity Advisory Council

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356
Q

What is the Coast Guard’s Human Capital Vision?

A

Providing an agile, flexible, and adaptive Human Capital System that ensures a thriving, proficient, and effective workforce for complex, global missions.

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357
Q

What does it mean to be a transgender Service member?

A

For DoD and CG policy purposes, a transgender Service member is one who has received a medical diagnosis that gender transition is medically necessary

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358
Q

Who will remain under the legacy retirement plan?

A

Anyone who joined the service in CY 2005 or earlier.

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359
Q

Is it ok for you as an OIC to accept a gift from a non-prohibited source that values at $300?

A

Donations to Unit from a non-prohibited, the OIC has the acceptance authority of $200. Anything that is over is forwarded to the next higher acceptance authority while also notifying CG Legal to ensure compliance.

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360
Q

How often are you required to allow your crew exercise?

A

Three hours per week during working hours, ops permitting, for voluntary participation in physical fitness enhancing activities.

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361
Q

What does honor mean to you?

A

Uncompromising ethical conduct and moral behavior in all situations.

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362
Q

When does the Blended Retirement System go into effect?

A

January 1, 2018

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363
Q

What happens if a member is affected by HYT but has a MED Board pending?

A

Notify PSC. Upon conclusion of the MED Board, member will be separated or retired as a result of MED Board or HYT - if found fit for full duty.

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364
Q

How long within assuming command are you required to administer a DEOCS?

A

Within 180 days of assuming command.

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365
Q

What is the last day that people grandfathered under the legacy retirement plan can opt into the Blended Retirement System?

A

December 31, 2018

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366
Q

What percent per year does the Blended Retirement System pay?

A

2%

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367
Q

How long do commands have to report a hate incident to the Civil Rights Service Provider?

A

48 Hours

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368
Q

What is the purpose of a Coast Guard Mutual Assistance SEG?

A

The SEG is designed to reimburse CGMA beneficiaries for certain costs, especially textbooks and fees, associated with a college degree program or a vocational technical training program.

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369
Q

Once a service member reaches 3 years of service, what is the maximum matching contribution the Coast Guard will make in the Blended Retirement System?

A

A maximum matching of 4 percent through the completion of 26 years of service.

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370
Q

What is a P&D 18?

A

Refusal to complete alcohol treatment.

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371
Q

What is the Hatch Act?

A

A piece of legislation that limits certain activities of employees of the executive branch, and as members of the Coast Guard workforce, it applies to all of us.

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372
Q

What is a SVC?

A

Special Victims Counsel

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373
Q

What percent per year does the legacy retirement system pay?

A

2.5%

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374
Q

What are the three priorities of the Human Capital Strategy?

A

Meet MISSION Needs

Meet SERVICE Needs

Meet PEOPLE Needs

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375
Q

When does gender transition begin on a member?

A

Gender transition begins when a Service member receives a diagnosis from a military medical provider indicating that gender transition is medically necessary.

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376
Q

What is the process for a second alcohol incident?

A

1) Issue P&D 14
2) Member meets with CDAR
3) Member meets with Medical Officer for alcohol screening
4) Issue P&D 15 for completing screening
5) Issue P&D 16 for completed education
6) Member will be processed for separation

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377
Q

What is the dollar limit for SEG?

A

$500

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378
Q

What are the four subcategories of the 28 leadership competencies?

A

Leading Self

Leading Others

Leading Performance and Change

Leading the Coast Guard

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379
Q

Can a member be dis-enrolled from the Special Needs program, if so, how?

A

Yes, the member is separated from the CG, has a change in dependency, change in medical condition/ diagnosis, or proper documentation that Special Needs are no longer needed.

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380
Q

What should you do if a creditor calls asking about a member’s financial responsibility?

A

Commanding officers shall not furnish creditors with any information concerning the personal credit rating or financial responsibility of a member even if authorized by the member.

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381
Q

If a member wishes to change their gender, what must be approved by the unit commander?

A

A transition plan in concert with their military medical provider.

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382
Q

With the Human Capital Strategy - what principles fall under Meet MISSION Needs?

A

Efficiency and Proficiency

Requirements and Data-based Decisions

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383
Q

Do reserve members wishing to transition their gender have to follow different procedures?

A

Reserve members shall follow the same policies and standards as active duty members.

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384
Q

What is WebTA used for?

A

Electronic means for submitting TA requests.

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385
Q

What units are required to have an LDAC?

A

Commanding Officers of units with 50 or more personnel shall ensure that LDACs are established.

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386
Q

What are the hourly caps for TA?

A

The Coast Guard will fund 100 percent of tuition cost not to exceed $250.00 per semester hour.

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387
Q

What does devotion to duty mean to you?

A

To be professional, accept accountability, and seek responsibility.

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388
Q

What reserve components have the option to switch to the Blended Retirement System?

A

Anyone with less than 4,320 points as of December 31, 2017.

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389
Q

What does respect mean to you?

A

To treat others with fairness, dignity, and compassion.

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390
Q

In the LANTAREA People Plan, who is considered a first termer?

A

A military member, enlisted or officer, regular or reserve with less than 48 months of Coast Guard service or, for officers, less than 48 months of commissioned Coast Guard service.

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391
Q

Who is required to complete a DEOCS?

A

Units with 25 or more assigned personnel.

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392
Q

When can you accept a gift?

A

Unsolicited with a market value of $20 or less per occasion no more than $50 per calendar year from any one source. $10 or less on an occasional basis for supervisory position.

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393
Q

How much money does CGMA offer for interest free education loans?

A

CGMA offers an interest free education loan of up to
3,000 dollars and has a program for reimbursing the loan origination fee charged to beneficiaries who obtain federal student loans.

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394
Q

What is a DAO and what do they do?

A

Decent Affairs Officer (Handles active duty, retired, and dependent deaths).

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395
Q

If a member opts in to the Blended Retirement System during the opt in phase, can they change their mind and go back to the old system?

A

The opt-in decision is irrevocable, so all members should carefully consider their own personal circumstances, time in service, career intentions, and financial situation to determine which retirement system is best for them.

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396
Q

Where can you find EOCT information?

A

ESO Vol. 1-4

CGI Website

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397
Q

What reserve components will remain under the legacy retirement plan?

A

Anyone with 4,320 points or more as of December 31, 2017.

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398
Q

Are members in the Special Needs eligible for world wide assignment?

A

Yes, AD members shall not be adversely affected in their selection for promotion, schools, or assignment.

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399
Q

What needs to happen for a member using TA after a second course or after 6 semester hours is completed?

A

Mandatory degree plans are required after the completion of the second course or after 6 semester hours using TA.

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400
Q

What is the Coast Guard Relief Valve Process?

A

Relief Valves provides members a means for discussing or reporting command climate issues outside of their chain of command.

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401
Q

What are the four strategic goals in SAPR?

A

Climate

Prevention

Response

Accountability

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402
Q

What are the Commandants Guiding Principles?

A

Service to Nation

Duty to People

Commitment to Excellence

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403
Q

What is a Professional Growth Point, or PGP?

A

The maximum time in service (TIS) based on AD base date an active duty member can remain in the service at a specific pay grade.

E9 - 30 Years

E8 - 26 Years

E7 - 24 Years

E6 - 20 Years

E5 - 16 Years

E4 - 10 Years

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404
Q

What is your reference for ethical situations?

A

Standards of Ethical Conduct, COMDTINST 5370.B

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405
Q

In the LANTAREA People Plan, how many ASIST certified people does your unit need?

A

All units should have at least one graduate of the Applied Suicide Intervention Skills Training (ASIST) program aboard.

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406
Q

What is a CACO?

A

Casualty Assistance Calls Officer

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407
Q

What are the three types of alcohol referrals?

A

Self Referral

Command Referral

Incident Referral

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408
Q

What is the process for a first alcohol incident?

A

1) Issue P&D 13
2) Member meets with CDAR
3) Member meets with Medical Officer for alcohol screening
4) Issue P&D 15 for completing screening
5) Issue P&D 16 for completed education

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409
Q

What are the three types of alcohol diagnosis?

A

Deferred

Abusive

Dependent

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410
Q

What are the 5 types of alcohol treatment options?

A

Outpatient Rehab

Intensive Outpatient/ Partial Hospitalization

Inpatient Rehab

Aftercare

Emergency Care

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411
Q

In the LANTAREA People Plan, how long do you have to complete initial IDP counseling?

A

Within 30 days of reporting aboard, their rating chain supervisor will review the IDP and conduct the initial IDP counseling session.

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412
Q

What must be done if a member receives a DUI?

A

Special set of marks,

Alcohol Incident,

Revoke driving privileges for one year,

SF-5588,

Process for separation.

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413
Q

What four things need to be met before approving TA?

A

Satisfactory progress toward completion of unit quals.

Satisfactory progress toward watch station quals.

Satisfactory proficiency of craft, and

Satisfactory conduct during the six months prior to applying.

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414
Q

What is your role with the LDAC if you are at a unit with less than 50 people?

A

Units with fewer than 50 personnel shall assign a representative to the LDAC within the unit’s chain of command that is geographically closest to them.

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415
Q

If a member of yours is wishing to transition their gender, where would you direct them?

A

www.uscg.mil/transgender

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416
Q

Can a member be involuntary separated, discharged, or denied re-enlistment solely based on their gender identity?

A

Effective immediately, no otherwise qualified Coast Guard member can be involuntarily separated, discharged, or denied re-enlistment or continuation of service, solely on the basis of their gender identify.

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417
Q

What is a SERA?

A

Senior Enlisted Reserve Advisor

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418
Q

What is a gift?

A

A gift is anything that has monetary value coming from a prohibited source(someone who wants to gain something from the Coast guard).

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419
Q

If a member wishes to change their gender, when are they required to utilize facilities for the preferred gender?

A

Once the gender marker is changed in DEERS, the Service member will utilize facilities in the preferred gender.

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420
Q

Can a member use TA for getting a second associates degree?

A

TA is only available for courses leading to the first associate, bachelor, and masters degrees.

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421
Q

How are ERATS documented and verified?

A

TMT

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422
Q

What are the maximum credit hours per quarter?

A

6

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423
Q

What is the purpose of the Work-Life program?

A

Promote a balance of Work and Life,

Improve mission performance,

Provide stress relief tools,

Strengthen the CG family.

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424
Q

What must members requesting gender transition prior to 1 October 2016 do?

A

All units with members requesting transition prior to 1 October 2016 are required to contact the Service Central Coordination Cell (SCCC) to gain initial guidance.

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425
Q

What are some examples of a relief valve in the Coast Guard Relief Valve Process?

A

XO’s Request and Complaint Mast

Chaplain

Command Gold or Silver Badge

Civil Rights Coordinator

LDAC Chair

CG SUPRT

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426
Q

Who is grandfathered under the legacy retirement plan but has the option to switch to the Blended Retirement System?

A

Anyone who joined the service between CY 2006 and CY 2017.

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427
Q

When medical diagnosis is determined to be necessary, what are some examples of transgender members?

A

A member that intends to begin transition;

A member that is undergoing transition; and

A member that has completed transition and is stable in their preferred gender.

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428
Q

What is an IDC?

A

Incident Determination Committee

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429
Q

Who is CG-1?

A

Assistant Commandant for Human Resources

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430
Q

What is a SAPS?

A

Substance Abuse Prevention Specialist

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431
Q

What is the lump sum option in the Blended Retirement System?

A

There will now be a lump sum option that will allow members to take a 25 or 50 percent lump sum at the time of retirement that will reduce the monthly retired pay by a corresponding 25 or 50 percent until age 67.

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432
Q

What is a drug incident?

A

Unlawful use, possession, or trafficking of a controlled substance.

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433
Q

How long are members who become pregnant for 20 weeks or greater exempt from weight and body fat standards?

A

Members who are pregnant for 20 weeks or longer, to be exempt from weight and body fat standards for a twelve month period upon completion of pregnancy (delivery, miscarriages, etc.).

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434
Q

In the LANTAREA People Plan, what is a running mate?

A

A person assigned to a newly reported member for a short duration (approximately two weeks).

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435
Q

What is hazing?

A

Offensive hitting, slapping, or touching and any other actions which subjects an individual to ridicule or embarrassment.

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436
Q

What is Transitional Compensation?

A

Payments made for dependents of a Coast Guard member who has been discharged due to domestic violence. Member must have been on Active Duty for more than 30 days. Payments will be made for up to 36 months.

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437
Q

What is the annual maximum cap for TA?

A

The annual cap for reimbursement of TA is $4000.

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438
Q

Do members using TA have to get a certain grade in order to not be held responsible for the costs?

A

For the purpose of reimbursement, a successful course completion is defined as a grade of a C or higher for undergraduate courses, a B or higher
for graduate courses, and a pass for pass/fail grades.

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439
Q

What is a P&D 17?

A

Failure to complete alcohol treatment.

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440
Q

With the Human Capital Strategy - what principles fall under Meet PEOPLE Needs?

A

Predictability

Professional Growth

Safety and Wellness

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441
Q

With the Human Capital Strategy - what principles fall under Meet SERVICE Needs?

A

Diversity and Inclusion

Equity and Opportunity

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442
Q

How many leadership competencies are there?

A

28

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443
Q

Who is automatically enrolled in the Blended Retirement System?

A

Anyone who joined the service in CY 2018 and beyond.

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444
Q

In the LANTAREA People Plan, what training shall be provided within 90 days of a new member reporting aboard?

A

Drug and Alcohol Awareness

Sexual Harassment Prevention

Hazing Awareness Training

Personal Financial Management

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445
Q

What is the purpose of the SCCC?

A

CG-1 established a Service Central Coordination Cell (SCCC) to assist commanders and Service members with the gender transition process.

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446
Q

Who is entitled to the second chance program?

A

A first enlistment good performer.

This requires the first flag to recommend second chance waivers to the final discharge authority.

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447
Q

What is the basis for Relief for Cause for an Officer in Charge?

A

Misconduct

Unsatisfactory Performance

Loss of Confidence

Inappropriate Relationships

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448
Q

How early must TA requests be submitted?

A

A complete TA application (uploaded degree plan, command approved) must be received by the CG Institute no less than 14 days prior to the class start date, not including the date of submission to the CG Institute nor the class start date.

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449
Q

What is the SCCC?

A

Service Central Coordination Cell

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450
Q

When would you, as the OIC, authorize your crew to perform salvage?

A

To prevent a worsening situation from happening or to prevent a complete loss of a vessel.

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451
Q

Do you have to be a Level IV Pursuit Unit to preform pursuit?

A

A unit does not have to be designated as a Pursuit Level IV Unit to conduct pursuit. However, higher authority may choose not to authorize employment of certain tactics if the boat crew is not certified in pursuit competencies.

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452
Q

What is a major discrepancy?

A

Those that degrade the effectiveness of the boat to perform one or more missions.

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453
Q

What can a written waiver be documented on?

A

A written waiver may be a letter, memorandum, e-mail, Cutter log entry, ALMIS, or record message traffic.

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454
Q

Who can grant waivers for disabling causalities?

A

Product Line

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455
Q

What is a minor discrepancy?

A

Minor discrepancies do not affect the operational readiness of the boat. However, a boat with minor discrepancies does not meet the standardization criteria as established for that boat.

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456
Q

Can you damage or abuse a boat for the defense of the United States, its citizens, and/or installations?

A

Damage to or sacrifice of the boat is acceptable risk in the defense of the United States, its citizens, and/or installations.

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457
Q

As directed by the Addendum to the National SAR Manual, what is your normal boat status how much time do you have to execute a mission?

A

B-0 (have a suitable SAR resource ready to proceed within 30 minutes).

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458
Q

What should be the coxswains initial actions following a LASER eye strike?

A

When a member receives a direct eye‐strike from a laser, the crew shall act to ensure the safety of vessel and minimize further exposure to lasers. Crewmembers should not look for the source of the laser using binoculars or other magnifying optics since this could lead to significant eye injury.

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459
Q

Can you permanently defer a task?

A

Permanent deferment applies to a unit’s inability to complete a task due to AOR constraints and/or equipment/platform constraints.

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460
Q

Is it ok to take dependents or passengers underway onboard Coast Guard assets?

A

Passengers and guests may be taken onboard unit boats, at the discretion of the unit commander, provided the numbers do not exceed the maximum safe number of passengers for the boat type, and all passengers are wearing Personal Flotation Devices.

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461
Q

What is the MAAT?

A

Mishap Analysis, Assistance, Team

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462
Q

An instructor should demonstrate what three qualities before being officially assigned instructor duties?

A

Maturity

Judgment

Patience

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463
Q

How long must crew members wait between wearing night vision goggles and driving a boat?

A

Personnel who have been wearing night vision equipment shall wait a minimum of two minutes before assuming control (helmsman).

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464
Q

What is “qualification?”

A

Qualification is the one time attainment of performance tasks for a specific competency (completion of Personnel Qualification Standards (PQS).

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465
Q

If comms remain lost with an asset after ten minutes of the communication schedule, what shall be released?

A

If the boat remains un-located, an immediate Urgent Marine Information Broadcast (UMIB) shall be released. Following the UMIB, an immediate precedence message shall be released.

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466
Q

Is single boat heavy weather training authorized?

A

Single-boat heavy weather training is authorized when two heavy weather capable platforms are not available.

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467
Q

In poor conditions - what is the initial track spacing for a PIW?

A

.1NM (200 Yards)

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468
Q

What are some additional shore based items to be included in your navigation standards?

A

Paper charts;

Key operating areas;

Navigation zones defined;

Specific hazards;

Specific guidance;

Nav/ piloting requirements;

DR plots;

Environment.

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469
Q

If a heavy weather coxswain does not have surf sign-offs completed, do they require a permanent deferral?

A

A member may be certified as a Heavy Weather Coxswain without completion of the surf tasks. The member’s completion or non-completion must be documented in the certification letter.

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470
Q

What needs to happen if you have a deferred task over 60 days?

A

Deferments lasting more than 60 days require command level documentation of actions within the E-Training System which provide the next level in the chain of command visibility of resource issues.

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471
Q

Can you issue an interim certification letter to crew members before your interim certification is approved?

A

The CO/OIC may issue interim certification letters to crew members regardless of their own certification status.

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472
Q

You have just received order to a small boat station and are reporting about the week before the COC. What should you do?

A

Review all prior inspection reports: STAN, RFO, and FORCECOM;

Conduct inspections: Galley, armory, R&S, building and assets.

Interview department heads.

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473
Q

Who will the guarding unit notify when comms have been lost with an asset?

A

The Command Cadre of the boat’s parent command shall be notified first, followed by the Operational Commander (OPCON), then the cognizant District Command Center.

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474
Q

What are your post-mission responsibilities after a crew member receives an eye strike from a LASER?

A

Boat crew who received a direct eye strike from a laser shall be evaluated by medical personnel within 24 hours following exposure.

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475
Q

Who does the BCEB consist of?

A

One experienced Engineer.

One experienced Coxswain.

If applicable, one experienced ATON, Tactical, Pursuit, Heavy Weather Coxswain or Surfman.

If applicable, senior Law Enforcement Instructor (LEI).

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476
Q

How does night vision goggles affect peripheral vision?

A

Night vision devices will limit a person’s peripheral vision substantially. A normal field of view is 190°. With night vision, this may go as low as 40°.

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477
Q

What must be completed to wear the Boat Forces Pewter Tone insignia?

A

Boat Crew Member (BCM) certification on a standard boat, consisting of PQS, Oral Board, Check Ride.

Maintain BCM currency for 1 currency cycle.

Complete Basic Boat Forces PQS.

Have one year at a Boat Forces unit.

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478
Q

Can an E5 be a Training Petty Officer?

A

Smaller units may instead assign an E-5 after notifying the Office of Boat Forces (CG-731) in writing of the deviation from policy.

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479
Q

You unit just received a new 24’ SPC-SW. How do you get everyone certified?

A

Interim certification letter - 60 days;

Clearly state that the vessel shall only be operated during transit to the unit, initial training and familiarization, and for the engine break in period.

Type tasks signed off.

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480
Q

What is LASER?

A

Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation

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481
Q

After comms have been reestablished and you no longer have a “lost communications” issue, what needs to be done?

A

When communications are reestablished with the boat, an immediate cancel of UMIB and precedence message will be sent to all addresses listed in the LOST COMMS REPORT with notification that communications have been restored.

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482
Q

If a crew gets underway on a RB-S at 0800 and returns at 1600 and gets the required 8 hours of rest, when can they get underway again?

A

That same crew is not authorized to get back underway until 0800 the following day.

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483
Q

What are the boat limitations for an RB-S II?

A

6’ Seas

25 Knot Winds

No Surf

10 Disp Ton Tow

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484
Q

If a member certifies in a position, when are they NOT required to meet proficiency requirements?

A

An Active Duty member that certifies or recertifies after 01 April or after 01 October would be within the last half of the currency cycle and would not have to complete the minimum proficiency requirements for the respective period.

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485
Q

What are engineering waiver routed through the product line for?

A

Engineering waivers may be issued on a case-by-case basis by the Product Line in order to reclassify a Disabling Discrepancy as a restrictive discrepancy, and to provide deviations from published maintenance procedures, Boat Class Maintenance Plans, or Maintenance Requirements Lists (MRL).

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486
Q

Is the Training Petty Officer required to be certified as a Boarding Officer?

A

The TPO shall maintain certification as Boarding Officer.

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487
Q

What are the two types of communication searches?

A

The two types of communications searches are the PRECOM search and EXCOM search.

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488
Q

What is a minor discrepancy?

A

Do not affect the operational readiness of the boat. Document and monitor at the unit level.

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489
Q

When are Boat Force unit self-assessments required?

A

Completed at least every 365 days,

Completed 30-90 days before a Formal BFCO STAN Assessment,

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490
Q

Can you damage or abuse a boat to prevent intense pain or suffering?

A

The possibility of saving human life or the probability of preventing or relieving intense pain or suffering warrants the risk of damage to or abuse of the boat if recovering the boat can reasonably be expected.

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491
Q

What should you do if you are underway with passengers or guests and you get a case?

A

If a unit boat is required for mission response while passengers or guests are onboard, the passengers and guests shall be disembarked prior to proceeding with the mission, if at all possible.

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492
Q

What do you do if your boat experiences a disabling casualty while underway?

A

In the event a boat sustains a disabling casualty while underway, the boat shall immediately return to the nearest safe mooring.

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493
Q

If a reserve member certifies in a position, when are they NOT required to meet proficiency requirements?

A

A Reserve member that certifies or recertifies after 01 July would be within the last half of the currency cycle and would not have to complete the minimum proficiency requirements for the respective period.

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494
Q

What are the maximum underway hours for vessels 40’ and up?

A

Seas < 4’ = 10hrs

Seas > 4’ = 8hrs

Hwx = 6hrs

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495
Q

If a restrictive discrepancy cannot be repaired within 48 hours, what needs to happen?

A

If the casualty cannot be repaired within 48 hours, a CASREP shall be sent within 24 hours of discovery of the casualty.

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496
Q

What kind of MISHAP is a LASER incident?

A

All lasing incidents shall be reported, at a minimum, as a Class D MISHAP.

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497
Q

What is a disabling casualty?

A

Those which make the boat not serviceable.

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498
Q

How many people shall Boat Force unit self-assessment team have?

A

The assessment team shall consist of at least two personnel.

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499
Q

How many launch and recoveries do cutter boat coxswains need to get per currency cycle?

A

8 days and 2 nights semi-annually.

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500
Q

What are the heavy weather training limits?

A

Seas

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501
Q

Are XO/XPO’s required to be BO’s?

A

A Station XO/XPO shall maintain Boarding Officer certification. No waiver is permitted for this requirement.

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502
Q

When can a coxswain leave a boat?

A

Generally, the Coxswain is not permitted to leave the boat during any operation. However, when a situation exists onboard the distressed vessel that only the Coxswain is capable of alleviating, and the Coxswain can ensure the safety of the unit boat, it may be permissible.

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503
Q

What is B0 response time defined as?

A

A Bravo-Zero (B-0) response time is defined as a SAR unit underway within 30 minutes of notification of a distress.

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504
Q

How long are verbal waivers good for?

A

A verbal waiver is authorized as long as it is followed with a written waiver within 4 hours.

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505
Q

What are the operational limitations for a basic MLB coxswain?

A

10’ seas and 30kt winds.

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506
Q

When may the OIC defer a task?

A

When situations exist that preclude a member from completing qualification tasks, the CO/OICs may defer tasks.

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507
Q

Are waivers documented in ALMIS sufficient to be a “written waiver”?

A

Waivers for restrictive casualties documented in the Asset Logistics Management Information System (ALMIS) are equivalent to official written waivers.

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508
Q

What are the boat limitations for an MLB?

A

30’ Seas

50 Knot Winds

20’ Surf

150 Disp Ton Tow

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509
Q

What is the recommended qualification timeline for a Reserve Engineer qualification?

A

Within 6 months of Reserve Crew Member certification.

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510
Q

Does time trailering count toward crew fatigue?

A

Trailering hours shall be counted towards underway limitations for designated boat crews.

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511
Q

What is the environment required to be a heavy weather station?

A

For the MLB platforms, seas (height) are greater than 10 FT and/or winds exceed 30 KTS.

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512
Q

How long is an interim certification good for?

A

Interim certifications should not exceed 60 days. However, CO/OICs may issue extensions until requirements are met.

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513
Q

In your own words, what is Risk vs. Gain?

A

Determines whether or not the Gain (benefits) outweigh the degree of risk.

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514
Q

Which two missions may require special considerations prior to using force to the political or international complexities associated with each mission or the strategic desired outcome supporting due the mission?

A

Migrant Interdiction

Living Marine Resources (LMR)

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515
Q

What is a restrictive discrepancy?

A

Those which restrict the operations of the boat such that it can perform some missions but not all missions safely.

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516
Q

What is a Temporary Deferred Task interim certification?

A

Temporary Deferred Tasks- Interim certifications may be provided to allow member to operate when specific qualification tasks cannot be accomplished in a reasonable amount of time.

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517
Q

What needs to happen if you experience a disabling casualty while underway?

A

In the event a boat sustains a disabling casualty while underway, it shall immediately return to the nearest safe mooring and be placed into “Charlie” status. In many cases, the boat will require assistance from another vessel.

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518
Q

Who shall serve as the chairman of the Training Board?

A

XO/XPO

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519
Q

What are some examples of a QEB?

A

Boat Crew Examining Board (BCEB),

Law Enforcement Qualification Board (LEQB),

Ice Rescue Examination Board (IREB)

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520
Q

Per Coast Guard Standards, what is meant by the term Heavy Weather?

A

Seas/swell conditions combining to exceed 8 FT and/or winds exceeding 30 KTS.

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521
Q

Who shall chair QEB’s?

A

The XO/XPO shall chair all QEBs.

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522
Q

You have assumed command of a station that has been running a 24 hour comms watch. Can you change it?

A

Yes, check with Sector to see if they have direction of manning hours. BOAT Manual leaves comms watch to the discretion of the OIC as long as the area has sector coverage.

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523
Q

How much rest is required when fatigue hours are met?

A

8hrs

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524
Q

What are some required PPE items for Pursuit/ PWCS units?

A

Helmets

BCCS (coxswain and gunner)

PFD and Pyro Vest

Body Armor

Gun Belt

Gunner Restraint Fwd and Aft

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525
Q

What extra gear is required during high speed operations?

A

Helmets and seatbelts.

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526
Q

How long do Boat Forces Command Cadre have to certify?

A

Boat Forces Command Cadre shall certify within a reasonable amount of time (within six months of reporting aboard, unless stated otherwise below).

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527
Q

Can you damage or abuse a boat to protect or save property?

A

The probability of saving property of the United States or its citizens warrants the risk of damage to the boat if the value of the property to be saved is unquestionably greater than the cost of boat damage and the boat is fully expected to be recoverable.

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528
Q

Who can grant waivers for restrictive discrepancies?

A

Operational Commander or delegated authority.

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529
Q

Who is required to approve the Unit Training Plan?

A

CO/OIC

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530
Q

Who are restrictive discrepancies reported to and how long do you have to report them?

A

Restrictive discrepancies shall be reported to the Operational Commander if the discrepancy cannot be repaired within 1 hour.

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531
Q

Who sets open/closed dated for Station (smalls)?

A

District Commanders shall publish alert postures for their District boat stations to include open/close dates for seasonal station (smalls).

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532
Q

What are the two drifting search patterns?

A

Sector Search

Expanding Square

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533
Q

Is there a temporary entitlement to wear a Boat Forces Pewter Tone insignia?

A

Temporary entitlement no longer exists. The insignia is considered permanent upon earning.

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534
Q

What is a restrictive discrepancy?

A

Restrictive discrepancies are those which restrict the operations of the boat such that it can perform some activities but not all activities safely.

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535
Q

What are the minimum memberships for the Training Board?

A

XO/XPO,

All department heads,

Training Petty Officer,

ANT Supervisor (if assigned).

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536
Q

Are you authorized to perform salvage?

A

Yes - OIC must authorize it.

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537
Q

How long must boat crew personnel have between periods of drinking and operating a boat?

A

The boat crew, duty section, and any other persons who might reasonably be expected to be recalled to support unit operations are restricted from underway operations for 12 hours after last alcohol use and must have no residual effects.

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538
Q

Who is normally assigned as the Training Petty Officer?

A

The TPO will normally be staffed with a Boatswain’s Mate (BM) E-6 or above.

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539
Q

What is the recommended qualification timeline for a Reserve initial coxswain qualification?

A

Initial Qualification within 24 months of Reserve Crew Member certification.

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540
Q

Who develops the unit training plan? Who approves it?

A

Training Petty Officer develops it;

Officer in Charge approves it.

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541
Q

How does crew fatigue work at anchor?

A

Time spent at a sheltered anchorage can extend the maximum underway hours for crew by 50%. For example, if a boat crew takes shelter from a storm and finds a sheltered anchorage for 1 hour that crew gets 30 minutes back towards underway time.

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542
Q

What must be completed to wear the Boat Forces Advanced insignia?

A

Complete Boat Forces PQS (both Basic and Advanced)

Pass an Advanced Boat Forces PQS qualification board.

Maintain BCM certification on a standard boat for two currency cycles.

Complete one of the following: SAR Fundamentals Course, BTM/BO certification.

Five years cumulative service at Boat Forces units.

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543
Q

Can you damage or abuse a boat recover evidence?

A

The possibility of recovering evidence and interdicting or apprehending alleged violators of Federal law does not warrant probable damage to or abuse of the boat, unless in defense of self or others.

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544
Q

What are the boat limitations for an RB-M?

A

10’ Seas

30 Knot Winds

No Surf

100 Disp Ton Tow

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545
Q

Who has the authority to transport a victim for a MEDEVAC?

A

The aircraft commander, cutter commanding officer, or coxswain on scene.

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546
Q

Is the Coast Guard required to preform searches for bodies?

A

The Coast Guard is not required to conduct searches for bodies. If requests are received from responsible agencies, such as local police, military commands, etc., Coast Guard units may participate in body searches provided that these searches do not interfere with the primary duties of the units.

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547
Q

What action shall be taken against a BM2 who is unable to qualify as a coxswain within a reasonable amount of time?

A

OIC shall begin the process for reduction in rate for incompetence.

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548
Q

Who can authorize the use of cell phones on a boat?

A

The use of cell phones/texting devices and phone applications aboard Boat Force assets is prohibited without permission of the Coxswain; permission can be granted only on a case by case basis.

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549
Q

What does it mean to have a “Bravo (Restricted)” boat?

A

“Bravo (Restricted)”: The boat has one or more restrictive discrepancies with waivers.

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550
Q

When do you initiate lost comms procedures?

A

If a boat fails to check in on the primary or secondary frequency within ten minutes of the communication schedule, the guarding unit shall initiate actions.

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551
Q

When are Command Cadre members required to complete the BFCC course?

A

Members shall make all efforts to attend the course prior to reporting, or, if unable to attend prior, within 6 months of being in command cadre position.

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552
Q

What is the decertification override used for?

A

The unit commander will have the ability to override the system’s decertification of any member at their unit in the event of system errors.

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553
Q

What is a Provisional interim certification?

A

Provisional Interim- Interim certifications are provided when unit has an inability to complete training towards a specific competency either due to a new competency designation at a unit or a unit-wide decertification.

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554
Q

What are the operational limitations for a heavy weather MLB coxswain?

A

20’ seas, 8’ surf, and 30kt winds.

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555
Q

How often are unit materiel inspections required?

A

Unit Commanders shall conduct a materiel inspection of each boat assigned to the unit at least once per month or per Maintenance Procedure Plans.

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556
Q

How should you address family members wishing to participate in a SAR case?

A

While unit commanders may not be able to control family members’ actions (e.g. self-launching to conduct their own search), it is important to convey to the family that untrained vessels in the search area are likely to complicate and slow the efforts of the Coast Guard and trained SRUs.

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557
Q

Is spontaneous PWCS training authorized?

A

PWCS training should be highly structured. Training shall be planned, not spontaneous.

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558
Q

What is the recommended qualification timeline for a Reserve coxswain recertification?

A

Recertification within 12 months of reporting.

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559
Q

What is the frequency required to be a heavy weather station?

A

For at least 10% of the calendar year (36 days), averaged over at least five-years. A heavy weather day consists of a minimum of three hours of sustained HWX conditions.

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560
Q

If your crew launches during a higher risk mission and they got less than 6 hours of sleep, how much sleep do they need upon returning?

A

Less than a six-hour sleep period – they need at least a six-hour sleep period to control fatigue on subsequent missions.

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561
Q

What are some things that would go into your navigation standards in relation to Pursuit or Tactical training?

A

Authorized locations;

Acceptable conditions;

Speed restrictions;

Weather Limits;

Gunner placement;

Boat operations.

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562
Q

What is the recommended qualification timeline for a Reserve Boarding Team Member qualification?

A

Within 12 months of reporting.

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563
Q

What is an Amsler Grid Eye Chart?

A

The Amsler Grid is a convenient tool for assessment of laser impact on vision. Each grid includes easy to follow instructions designed for field use.

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564
Q

What are the three types of interim certifications?

A

New Platform

Provisional Interim

Temporary Deferred Tasks

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565
Q

What are the four precision search patterns?

A

Parallel Search

Creeping Line

Trackline Return

Trackline Non-Return

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566
Q

What are the maximum underway hours for less than 40’?

A

Seas < 4’ = 8hrs

Seas > 4’ = 6hrs

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567
Q

What is the maximum trailering fatigue standards?

A

350 miles or 8hrs

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568
Q

What is a New Platform interim certification?

A

New Platform- Interim certifications are provided when unit receives a new boat “type” on which no one has been previously qualified or certified.

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569
Q

How are turns made on a VS?

A

120 degrees to the right.

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570
Q

At a minimum, what roles need to be filled during a Boat Force unit self-assessment?

A

Team Leader (Boatswain’s Mate)

Naval Engineer/Machinery Technician

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571
Q

Why do we use a CS?

A

Narrow search area and the object is likely to be found at one end.

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572
Q

If you cannot gain permission to enter private property, what circumstances can allow you to trespass?

A

If this is not possible, then the SMC must grant permission before private property is entered.

Only when saving a person’s life can immediate action be taken.

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573
Q

Upon discovering a restrictive discrepancy, how long do you have to notify OPCON?

A

Reported to the Operational Commander if discrepancy cannot be repaired within 1 hour.

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574
Q

What is the recommended qualification timeline for a Reserve Boarding Officer qualification?

A

Within 24 months of Boarding Team Member certification.

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575
Q

What must be done if you have no additional crew members and your crew has returned from a mission and is requiring rest due to fatigue?

A

When a Station’s alert posture is compromised due to crew fatigue, a Crew Fatigue Message shall be sent.

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576
Q

Who can grant waivers for fatigue?

A

Operational Commander

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577
Q

What things have to be done before conducting heavy weather training?

A

Stations shall conduct a pre-brief (including elements of risk assessment) of the heavy weather training plan prior to commencing training.

Crews shall be properly outfitted with personal protective equipment.

The CO/OIC shall notify the Operational Commander when wind conditions exceed 40 KTS.

A certified Heavy Weather Coxswain shall be onboard each heavy weather capable boat.

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578
Q

How do you obtain a permanently deferred task?

A

Unit shall obtain a waiver from Commandant (CG-731) via Operational Commander to request a permanent deferment of a task that applies

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579
Q

How often should you conduct a material inspection of unit assets?

A

Monthly

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580
Q

How many heavy weather platforms is a heavy weather station required to have?

A

Heavy Weather Stations shall have a minimum of two heavy weather-capable boats assigned. To the greatest extent possible, these boats shall be of the same class and type.

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581
Q

What is the definition of high speed operations?

A

Speeds of 30 knots or greater.

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582
Q

What are the specific objectives of the RFO and STAN team visits?

A

Evaluate material condition;

Evaluate crew performance;

Verify R&S/ Standard Ops are being followed;

Provide guidance to unit/ RFO team.

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583
Q

Who is required to attend the Boat Forces Underwater Egress course?

A

All personnel assigned into billets marked with boat crew competencies at a unit with enclosed cabin boats shall attend this course within the first 12 months of assignment to their first Boat Forces Unit.

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584
Q

What are some required PPE items for Surf/ Heavy Weather units?

A

Helmets

PFD and Pyro Vest

Heavy Weather Belt

Goggles

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585
Q

How long do you have to submit a MISHAP for a LASER incident?

A

All lasing incidents shall be reported in the e-MisReps system within 72 hours of the event.

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586
Q

If your crew launches during a higher risk mission and they got over 6 hours of sleep, how much sleep do they need upon returning?

A

More than a six-hour sleep period but less than a seven-hour sleep period – they need at least a two-hour sleep period to control fatigue on subsequent missions.

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587
Q

How many hours are reserve crew members required to get in their yearly currency cycle?

A

Underway hours for Reserve Currency are now a total of 66, with a minimum of 17 hours at night.

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588
Q

What does it mean to have a “Bravo” boat?

A

“Bravo”: The boat has no disabling casualties or restrictive discrepancies.

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589
Q

Can you defer a boat crew qualification task? If so, for how long?

A

Yes, 60 days.

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590
Q

What does it mean to have a “Charlie” boat?

A

“Charlie”: The boat has one or more disabling casualties or the boat has restrictive discrepancies without waivers.

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591
Q

What are the three phases pertaining to SAR?

A

Uncertainty

Alert

Distress

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592
Q

After a LASER incident, what should the crew preform before continuing the mission?

A

After an incident, crew members receiving a direct eye strike from a laser should be assessed using the Amsler Grid Eye Chart and the coxswain shall determine if the crew can safely continue the mission.

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593
Q

What is the primary role of the MAAT?

A

The primary role of the MAAT is to respond immediately to mishaps for the purpose of gathering and preserving evidence in advance of a Commandant - Level MAB and assisting the Health Safety and Work-life Service Center (HSWL SC (se)) level MAB.

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594
Q

When the product line reclassifies a disabling casualty as a restrictive discrepancy, what must be done to operate the boat?

A

Once an engineering waiver reclassifies a disabling discrepancy as a restrictive discrepancy, the process for a restrictive discrepancy shall be followed.

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595
Q

Can unit boats be used in support of community and media relations?

A

Unit boats may be used in support of community and media relations. Units shall ensure the Operational Commander is informed of all unit commitments. All requests should be routed through the unit’s Operational Commander.

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596
Q

What is the primary purpose of a flight surgeon?

A

To provide a medical advice.

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597
Q

What is the minimum requirement for establishing communications with small boats?

A

Boats underway shall establish communications contact at least every thirty (30) minutes.

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598
Q

What things are required to be considered a heavy weather station?

A

Designation as Heavy Weather Station.

Assignment of heavy weather capable boats.

Assignment of Heavy Weather competencies.

Use of certified HWX Coxswain.

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599
Q

If you do not have two heavy weather platforms to train on, what can you do as a possible solution?

A

Local Cutter support.

Neighboring heavy weather Coast Guard Stations.

Local fishermen, police, or fire rescue vessels of appropriate size/capability.

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600
Q

What is the recommended qualification timeline for a Reserve Boat Crew Member qualification?

A

Within 12 months of reporting.

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601
Q

How long are verbal waivers good for?

A

A verbal waiver is authorized, as long as it is followed with a written waiver within 4 hours.

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602
Q

What is a disabling casualty?

A

Disabling casualties are those which make the boat not serviceable.

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603
Q

What items go on a restrictive waiver?

A

Identify the specific discrepancy which is waived;

Describe the conditions under which the boat may be operated; and

Stipulate concurrence on the measures to be taken to lessen or negate the hazard posed by the discrepancy.

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604
Q

What five things are grouped into Crew Endurance Management?

A

Time-of-day;

Sleep duration and quality;

Stability of sleep/wake schedule;

Continuous vs. split sleep;

Period of sustained wakefulness.

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605
Q

How long do units have to initiate action when an initial report of distress has been received?

A

Initiate action within five minutes of initial notification of a distress incident.

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606
Q

What needs to happen if a casualty cannot be repaired within 48 hours?

A

Either an ALMIS entry or CASREP shall be made within 24 hours of discovery of the casualty. Operational Commanders are responsible for monitoring the status of repairs to disabling casualties.

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607
Q

Can a boat be operated with a restrictive discrepancy?

A

Boats with restrictive discrepancies shall only be operated if the Operational Commander has issued a written waiver.

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608
Q

You’re the OIC at STA Elizabeth City with a CG owned AUX asset. Can your AD crews operate this vessel for power trials?

A

Yes. Prefer to use AUX crews.

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609
Q

When are “higher risk missions” deemed to exist?

A

Any mission occurring between 2300 and 0500 should be considered “Higher Risk” because it interrupts crew’s normal physiological cycles.

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610
Q

How are turns made on a SS?

A

90 degrees to the right.

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611
Q

Can you enter private property when preforming SAR?

A

Coast Guard personnel engaged in SAR operations should obtain permission from the owner or occupant before entering private property.

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612
Q

Who can grant waivers for operational parameters?

A

Operational Commander

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613
Q

Who are disabling causalities reported to and how long do you have to report them?

A

Disabling casualties shall be reported to the Operational Commander and Sector Engineer Officer by the most expeditious means, followed up by a boat status message as soon as possible but no later than 12 hours after the casualty is discovered.

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614
Q

What is a major discrepancy?

A

Major discrepancies are those that degrade the effectiveness of the boat to perform one or more missions.

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615
Q

Can you damage or abuse a boat to save a life?

A

The probability of saving human life warrants a maximum effort. When no suitable alternative exists and the mission has a reasonable chance of success, the risk of damage to or abuse of the boat is acceptable, even though such damage or abuse may render the boat unrecoverable.

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616
Q

What is unit self defense?

A

The act of defending a particular unit of U.S. military forces or law enforcement agency assets from imminent danger.

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617
Q

What is the definition of level 6 in the use of force continuum?

A

Deadly Force: Any force that is likely to cause death or serious physical injury, including the proper use of standard service weapons.

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618
Q

What are the three elements of jurisdiction?

A

Substantive law;

Vessel status/flag; and

Location.

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619
Q

What is the commandant’s use of force policy?

A

Only that force reasonably necessary under the circumstances may be used. Force shall not be used where assigned duties can be discharged without it. Excessive force may never be used; however, nothing in the application of the Coast Guard Use of Force Policy shall be construed as to require personnel to meet force with equal or lesser force.

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620
Q

What is NMFS?

A

National Marine Fisheries Service

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621
Q

What is the definition of national self defense?

A

Defense of the United States, U.S. Forces, and, in certain circumstances, U.S. persons and their property, and/or U.S. commercial assets from a hostile act or demonstration of hostile intent.

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622
Q

Who has jurisdiction over vessels without nationality, or those assimilated as such?

A

In general, vessels (or aircraft) without nationality, and those assimilated as such, are subject to the jurisdiction of any nation.

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623
Q

What is the definition of level 1 in the use of force continuum?

A

Officer Presence: Appearance, demeanor, verbal and non-verbal communications that create an atmosphere of compliance.

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624
Q

What needs to happen if you are taking media or observers along on a boarding?

A

District Commander has approved the request to accompany the boarding team;

The media or other observers have obtained the owner/operator’s permission to be present before boarding the vessel; and

No media or other observer shall embark the boarded vessel until the boarding team has completed the BISS and the Boarding Officer has authorized embarkation.

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625
Q

Can you board a Coast Guard Auxiliary vessel?

A

Auxiliary vessels are subject to LE boarding’s. However, when under Coast Guard orders, such as for SAR or regatta patrols, Auxiliary vessels should normally not be boarded.

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626
Q

You suspect a vessel at a local marina in conducting some illegal operations at night. Can you have a couple of you crew stake it out? If so, how? If no, then what do you do?

A

Station personnel can only officially observe while in official capacity, ie uniform, boat, or gv.

Initiate a FIR and request assistance through CGIS and local law enforcement.

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627
Q

Does the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act apply to vessels operating beyond the U.S. EEZ?

A

Seaward of the U.S. EEZ, the MSFCMA applies to vessels under the authority and jurisdiction of the United States on the high seas.

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628
Q

What is LEAPS?

A

Listen

Empathize

Ask Questions

Paraphrase

Summarize

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629
Q

What is considered territorial sea?

A

The waters 12 nautical miles wide adjacent to the coast of the United States and seaward of the baseline.

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630
Q

When is a use of force report required?

A

Whenever any technique or action higher than level 2 of the use of force continuum is used (normal application of handcuffs does not apply);

Whenever any tactic higher than step 2 is used against a non-compliant vessel;

Whenever any incident involving the use or potential use of force is deemed noteworthy by the OIC.

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631
Q

What gives Coast Guard petty officers, warrant officers, and commissioned officers customs authority.

A

14 U.S.C. 143 and 19 U.S.C. 1401

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632
Q

What does 14 U.S.C. 141 say?

A

14 U.S.C. 141 allows federal, state, and local agencies to request Coast Guard LE assistance when Coast Guard facilities and persons are especially qualified to perform a particular activity.

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633
Q

What is a Extended Initial Safety Sweep (EISS)?

A

Part of the protective sweep (BISS) of a vessel for the safety of the boarding team, but is more focused.

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634
Q

What are the three types of self defense?

A

Individual

Unit

National

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635
Q

What does the Magnuson Act give the Coast Guard?

A

National Security Authority

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636
Q

What is the Contiguous Zone?

A

International law allows for the establishment of a contiguous zone, adjacent to the territorial sea and extending 24 NM from the baseline, in which a coastal State may exercise the control necessary to prevent and punish infringements of its fiscal, immigration, sanitary, and customs laws.

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637
Q

What is MARSEC 3?

A

MARSEC 3 is the Coast Guard’s most focused security posture, normally set when attack is deemed imminent or has already occurred.

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638
Q

If you approach a North Atlantic Right Whale, how far must you keep away from it?

A

Regulations contained in 50 CFR 224.103 make it unlawful to approach within 500 yards of a North Atlantic right whale by a vessel, aircraft or other means, or to fail to take required avoidance measures.

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639
Q

What is Assistance Entry?

A

Assistance entry is the right of non-interference for a vessel (or aircraft in certain circumstances) to enter a foreign territorial sea to conduct a bona fide rescue of those in danger or distress at sea.

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640
Q

When does SROE apply?

A

Coast Guard unit is operating under a DoD TACON, outside of U.S. Territorial Seas (seaward of the outer boundary on the 12 NM territorial sea), and not conducting law enforcement missions;

Air and Marine homeland defense missions conducted by Coast Guard units under DoD TACON, regardless of location, unless otherwise directed by the secretary of defense;

When engaged in national self-defense, as authorized by an authority designated in the SROE.

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641
Q

Can foreign flagged commercial fishing vessels fish in the EEZ?

A

Under the MSFCMA, foreign flag commercial fishing vessels are prohibited from fishing in the U.S. waters unless they are in possession of a valid fishing permit issued by NOAA, are engaged in Department of State approved scientific research, or are operating subject to the provisions of a bilateral/multilateral agreement.

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642
Q

What is a BISS?

A

A BISS is a quick and limited protective sweep of a vessel for boarding team safety.

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643
Q

Who does the Coast Guard conduct LE intelligence database checks through?

A

DHS National Targeting Center (NTC)

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644
Q

What are the three elements that comprise jurisdiction?

A

Substantive law;

Vessel status/flag; and

Location.

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645
Q

What areas fall under the SMTJ?

A

High seas

U.S. vessels in foreign waters

Great lakes

Federal reservations

Lands/Waters not within nor between the 50 states

Territorial Seas

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646
Q

Are post SAR boarding’s required?

A

If practicable, units shall conduct a boarding of all U.S. vessels receiving SAR assistance, either at-sea or after the vessel is moored.

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647
Q

What is Right of Approach?

A

Under international law, a warship, military aircraft, or other duly authorized vessel may approach in international waters any vessel, other than a warship or government vessel on non-commercial service, to verify its nationality.

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648
Q

What is Peace of the Port?

A

Under the “peace of the port” doctrine, the U.S. may choose to refrain from asserting its jurisdiction over foreign flag vessels in its territorial sea and internal waters, leaving control of the matter to the flag State.

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649
Q

What is the commandant’s use of force policy?

A

Only that force reasonably necessary under the circumstances may be used. Force shall never be used where duties can be discharged without them. Excessive force shall never be used.

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650
Q

What is the definition of detention?

A

Detention of a person is the temporary limitation of that person’s freedom of movement.

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651
Q

If you see a whale while underway and are unsure what kind of whale it is, what should you do?

A

For vessels operating in the Atlantic AOR, all observed whales should be treated as a North Atlantic right whale unless or until the whale is positively identified as another whale species.

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652
Q

What is a confined space?

A

Spaces not designed for continuous human occupancy
• Limited or restricted means of entry and exit
• Limited means of ventilation

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653
Q

What is Maritime Critical Infrastructure/Key Resources (MCI/KR)?

A

MCI/KR are facilities, structures, systems, assets or services so vital to the port and its economy that their disruption, incapacity, or destruction would have a debilitating impact on defense, security, the environment, long-term economic prosperity, public health, or safety of the port.

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654
Q

What is individual self defense?

A

The act of defending oneself or other persons from imminent danger.

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655
Q

Can foreign recreational vessels fish in the U.S. EEZ?

A

Foreign vessels not operating for profit may conduct recreational fishing within the U.S. EEZ or state waters.

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656
Q

What are considered customs waters?

A

Customs waters for the U.S. are generally those waters shoreward of a line drawn 12 NM from the baseline (including territorial sea and internal waters with ready access to the sea).

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657
Q

What are the five fundamental sources of Coast Guard enforcement authority?

A

Maritime Law Enforcement (MLE);

Customs;

Protection and Security of Vessels, Harbors, and Waterfront Facilities, including Law Enforcement (LE) Ashore;

Assistance; and

Coast Guard Investigative Service (CGIS) Special Agents.

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658
Q

If seizing fish, who is the preferred agency to take the lead on the process?

A

It is preferred that NOAA OLE agents complete seizure and sale or donation of a catch.

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659
Q

What is the ESA?

A

Endangered Species Act

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660
Q

What is the definition of level 3 in the use of force continuum?

A

Control Techniques: Techniques or actions with a low probability of causing connective tissue damage, lacerations of the skin, or broken bones.

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661
Q

Is the standard boarding team authorized to conduct a security boarding on 300 gross tons or greater, or are additional people required?

A

For Security Boarding’s greater than 300 gross tons, teams shall be comprised of a minimum of 6 qualified armed LE personnel, at least one of whom shall be a certified Coast Guard Boarding Officer.

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662
Q

If you approach a large whale, how far must you keep away from it?

A

Generally, if a whale surfaces within 100 yards of the vessel, the unit shall take action as prudent and appropriate to ensure the safety of both the crew and the whale and to minimize damage to the vessel.

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663
Q

What is the difference between a security zone and a naval vessel protection zone?

A

Security Zone - Established by the COTP, District, or Area Commander, can be fixed or moving, and have variable restrictions and size.

NVPZ - Fixed in size, established by law, in force at all times around all naval vessels 100’ in length or greater. 500 yards area, must be at minimum speed, nothing within 500 yards.

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664
Q

What are the four types of subjects?

A

Passive Compliant

Passive Resistor

Active Resistor

Active Aggressor

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665
Q

Once an EISS has started, when should it stop?

A

Once the unaccounted for person, weapon, or safety hazard has been located, or the basis for the suspicion is otherwise addressed.

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666
Q

Where does the MMPA apply?

A

The MMPA applies to any person or vessel shoreward of 3 NM from the baseline and to
U.S. persons and vessels wherever located, except in the territorial sea of a foreign nation.

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667
Q

What is Force Majeure?

A

The principle of force majeure means that a vessel forced into coastal State waters by virtue of distress, whether brought about by natural or man-made causes, is generally not subject to coastal State jurisdiction during a reasonable period of time necessary to remedy such distress.

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668
Q

What is the Fourth Amendment?

A

The Fourth Amendment protects U.S. persons and foreign persons in U.S. territory from searches that unreasonably interfere with a person’s reasonable expectation of privacy, and thus applies to inspections conducted to ensure compliance with governmental regulations.

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669
Q

What is a Basic Initial Safety Sweep (BISS)?

A

A quick and limited protective inspection of a vessel for boarding team safety.

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670
Q

The MLEM mentions NOAA OLE, what is that?

A

National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration Officer for Law Enforcement

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671
Q

What is the Exclusive Economic Zone?

A

International law allows for the establishment of an EEZ, adjacent to the territorial sea and extending 200 nautical miles (NM) from the baseline, in which a coastal State may exercise the control necessary to protect natural resources.

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672
Q

What is the definition of level 2 in the use of force continuum?

A

Verbal Commands: Verbal commands in the form of task direction with consequences aimed at the subject.

673
Q

What is the definition of jurisdiction?

A

Jurisdiction is a government’s power to exercise legal authority over its persons, vessels, and territory.

674
Q

What is national self defense?

A

Defense of the United States, U.S. Forces, and, in certain circumstances, U.S. persons and their property, and/or U.S. commercial assets from a hostile act or demonstration of hostile intent.

675
Q

You need to purchase body armor - what level are you required to buy?

A

Level IIIa

676
Q

What is the definition of level 4 in the use of force continuum?

A

Aggressive Response Techniques: Techniques or actions likely to result in connective tissue damage, lacerations of the skin, or broken bones, or that will produce irritation of the skin, eyes, and/or mucous membranes.

677
Q

What is the definition of level 5 in the use of force continuum?

A

Intermediate Weapons: Techniques or actions with a high probability of causing connective tissue damage, lacerations of the skin, or broken bones.

678
Q

What is LEOSA?

A

Law Enforcement Officer Safety Act

679
Q

If operation in a seasonal management area of protected North Atlantic Right Whale’s, what is your speed restriction?

A

In addition, regulations contained in 50 CFR 224.105 specify speed restrictions of no more than 10 knots on most ships under U.S. jurisdiction, 65 feet and over, while within seasonal management areas (SMA) to protect the North Atlantic right whale.

680
Q

What is the purpose of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act?

A

The MSFCMA establishes a national program for the conservation and management of the fishery resources of the U.S. to prevent overfishing, to rebuild over-fished stocks, and to facilitate long-term protection of essential fish habitats.

681
Q

What is MARSEC 1?

A

MARSEC 1 is the Coast Guard’s baseline security posture.

682
Q

What is a custodial situation?

A

Whether a reasonable innocent person in the suspect’s position would feel a restraint on his/her freedom of movement to such an extent that it approaches a formal arrest.

683
Q

What is Innocent Passage?

A

Innocent passage is the right of non-interference for a vessel transiting inbound, outbound, or through a foreign territorial sea.

684
Q

What is the reference you would use to create a use of force report?

A

MLEM, appendix E.

685
Q

What particular hazards are addressed by the EISS?

A

Known weapons

Unaccounted for person(s)

Safety hazards

686
Q

What is the definition of authority?

A

Authority is the government’s legal power to act.

687
Q

What is the contiguous zone?

A

The Contiguous zone is adjacent to the territorial
sea and extending 24 NM from the baseline, in which a coastal state may exercise the control necessary to prevent and punish infringements of its fiscal, immigration, sanitary, and customs laws.

688
Q

What are the two times a personal defense weapon may be drawn from the holster or a long gun loaded with lethal munitions may be shouldered in preparation to fire.

A

Deadly force is authorized.

OR

There is a reasonable possibility that the use of deadly force may be required.

689
Q

What is the timeline to submit a use of force report?

A

72 hours

690
Q

What is considered international waters?

A

International waters are the waters seaward of the outer limit of the territorial sea of any nation, but encompassing the high seas EEZ and the contiguous zone.

691
Q

What is the definition of substantive law?

A

A substantive law is one that prohibits certain action or requires affirmative conduct.

692
Q

What is a Key Port Area?

A

Key Port Areas are zones within ports or along navigable waterways where heavily populated areas, DoD assets, choke points, or Maritime Critical Infrastructure/Key Resources (MCI/KR) would be vulnerable to attacks.

693
Q

What is the MMPA?

A

Marine Mammal Protection Act

694
Q

What are the six levels in the use of force continuum?

A

Level 1, Officer Presence

Level 2, Verbal Commands

Level 3, Control Techniques

Level 4, Aggressive Response Techniques

Level 5, Intermediate Weapons

Level 6, Deadly Force

695
Q

What is the purpose of the MMPA?

A

The Marine Mammal Protection Act (MMPA) established a program to ensure “optimum sustainable populations” of marine mammals.

696
Q

What is MARSEC 2?

A

MARSEC 2 is an increased security posture, normally set when there is a perception of heightened general risk.

697
Q

In relation to Law Enforcement, what does 14 U.S.C. 2 state?

A

The Coast Guard shall enforce or assist in the enforcement of all applicable federal laws on, under, and over the high seas and waters subject to the jurisdiction of the United States.

698
Q

What are considered internal waters?

A

Internal waters for the U.S. are those shoreward of the baseline, including all waters on the U.S. side of the international boundary of the Great Lakes.

699
Q

What are some examples of universal crimes?

A

Piracy

Transport of Slaves

Unauthorized Broadcasting

700
Q

What are exclusive state waters?

A

Internal waters wholly within a single state.

701
Q

When is it appropriate to conduct a BISS?

A

A BISS shall be conducted as part of every boarding.

702
Q

What are FISC laws?

A

U.S. Fiscal, Immigration, Sanitary, and Customs

703
Q

What does 14 U.S.C. 89a state?

A

The Coast Guard may make inquiries, examinations, inspections, searches, seizures, and arrests upon the high seas and waters over which the United States has jurisdiction, for the prevention, detection, and suppression of violations of laws of the United States. For such purposes, commissioned, warrant, and petty officers may at any time go on board of any vessel subject to the jurisdiction or to the operation of any law of the United States, address inquiries to those on board, examine the ship ’s documents and papers, and examine, inspect, and search the vessel, and use all necessary force to compel compliance.

704
Q

What is the purpose of the Lacy Act?

A

The Lacey Act prohibits unlawful transportation of certain fish or wildlife.

705
Q

What is a Consensual Boarding?

A

A “consensual boarding” means the master or person in charge of a foreign flagged vessel, Boarding other than a warship, on the high seas or other waters not within coastal State jurisdiction consents to the boarding of his/her vessel, regardless of whether the team otherwise has jurisdiction to board.

706
Q

What are the five pressure points used with level 3 techniques?

A

Infra-orbital nerve

Hypoglossal nerve

Mandibular nerve

C-clamp

Jugular notch

707
Q

What are some things the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act regulates?

A

Administrative provisions

Catch limitations

Closed areas

Gear restrictions

Other requirements for particular species.

708
Q

What is Transit Passage?

A

Transit passage is the right of non-interference for a vessel or aircraft transiting through a foreign territorial sea that comprises an international strait used for navigation between areas of international waters.

709
Q

If you traveled 1.6 NM in 6 minutes, how fast were you going?

A

16 knots

710
Q

If you traveled 2.4 NM in 6 minutes, how fast were you going?

A

24 knots

711
Q

How often are dental exams completed?

A

Annually

712
Q

If you are traveling 13 knots for 6 minutes, how far will you go?

A

1.3 NM (2,600 yards)

713
Q

If your Cutter has an approved WQS and you receive a member that completed DCPQS or SEOPS, what must be done?

A

Members reporting to a SEOPS or a WQS cutter who attained basic/advanced damage control qualifications should, at a minimum, complete all SEOPS/WQS ship-specific training required on the member’s new cutter.

714
Q

How long should it normally take to complete the Indoctrination Program on a Cutter?

A

The Indoctrination Program shall be structured so that it can normally be completed within two months of the member reporting aboard. Completion of assigned PQS or WQS qualifications may take longer.

715
Q

If you are traveling 28 knots for 3 minutes, how far will you go?

A

2,800 yards (1.4 NM)

716
Q

What are dynamic forces?

A

External Forces

717
Q

According to the Cutter Training and Qualification manual, how are personnel who can sign off qualifications documented?

A

These qualifiers shall be designated in writing by the Command and made know to all members of the Command.

718
Q

Adding weight to the topside of a cutter will do what to KG?

A

Adding weight topside will move the center of gravity towards that weight addition. Removing weight will move the center of gravity away from the weight removal. Shifting weight will move the center of gravity parallel to, and in the same direction as the weight shift.

719
Q

If you traveled 1.6 NM in 25 minutes, how fast were you going?

A

3.84 knots

720
Q

What are the four required OBTT’s you need for a Cutter you could command?

A

Damage Control Training Team (DCTT).

Engineering Training Team (ETT).

Navigation and Seamanship Training Team (NSTT).

Force Protection Training Team (FPTT)

721
Q

How are you going to keep track of your unit’s readiness?

A

Monthly viewing of CGBI

Training Board Meetings

Qualification Tracker

722
Q

What should your relationship be like with your XPO?

A

XPO should be your right hand person, carrying out your orders,

You should include your XPO in decision making and get their advice,

Give the XPO opportunities to learn, develop, and be in charge.

723
Q

How do you monitor your unit’s readiness?

A

CGBI

724
Q

What is the maximum pitch and roll to launch the 87 WPB CB-M?

A

8° Pitch and 10° Roll

725
Q

What is RFS?

A

Ready for Sea

726
Q

What are your responsibilities for an afloat training program as an OIC?

A

Carry out an active training plan;

Advise members to frequently check their training summary;

Ensure TMT and DA are fully up to date.

727
Q

How should the 87 WPB CB-M be launched or recovered in heavier seas (4-6 feet)?

A

With the seas off the beam.

728
Q

When is a Shakedown Cruise required?

A

All cutters shall conduct a Shakedown Cruise following an inport period exceeding 60 days.

729
Q

Who shall be the only person allowed to certify people for positions in TMT?

A

Cutter CO/OIC or acting CO/OIC shall approve/certify all entries made in TMT.

730
Q

How much time does someone required to fill an underway OOD billet have to get qualified?

A

Subject to the discretion of the commanding officer or officer-in-charge, final qualification as an OOD shall not exceed 12 months.

731
Q

At 10 knots, how far will you go in 3 minutes?

A

1,000 Yards

732
Q

If your unit will be undergoing CART/ TSTA, when do you have to submit your self-assessment to the Afloat Training Organization?

A

2 Weeks

733
Q

What are some areas that are tracked in CGBI?

A

Medical

Dental

Immunizations

Medical Tests

Evaluations

Weigh-In’s

Mandated Training

734
Q

Does a WPB 87 have to have a Unit Training Board?

A

The following cutter classes are not required to have a Unit Training Board; these responsibilities shall be assumed by their unit training officer or training petty officer: WPBs, WLIs, WLICs, WLRs and WYTLs.

735
Q

If you traveled 0.3 NM in 6 minutes, how fast were you going?

A

3 knots

736
Q

What is ETT?

A

Engineering Training Team

737
Q

If you are traveling at 13 knots for 54 minutes, how far have you gone?

A

11.7 NM

738
Q

What is the minimum amount of time to be covered on a Unit Training Plan for a Cutter?

A

At a minimum, monthly plans are required.

739
Q

How long can an Officer in Charge issue an interim qualification on a Cutter?

A

Interim qualifications are not to exceed 3 months and should be issued in very limited situations.

740
Q

What is down flooding?

A

Down flooding is the entry of water into the hull, resulting in progressive flooding and loss of stability.

741
Q

Where can you access the Master Training Lists (MTLs) for a Cutter?

A

All MTLs are posted and maintained on the Commandant (CG-751) website.

742
Q

What is the role of the EPO?

A

Oversee the operation and maintenance of all machinery and damage control equipment,

Be part of the command and be a source of advice.

743
Q

If you are traveled 4.7 knots for 43 minutes, how far did you travel?

A

3.37 NM

744
Q

If you are traveling 16 knots for 3 minutes, how far will you go?

A

1,600 yards (0.8 NM)

745
Q

What takes precedence: WQS or PQS?

A

WQS shall be used by affected cutters for individual qualification instead of Navy/Coast Guard PQS, locally generated JQRs or SEOPS programs.

746
Q

If you are traveling 3 knots for 6 minutes, how far will you go?

A

0.3 NM (600 yards)

747
Q

If you are traveling 6 knots for 6 minutes, how far will you go?

A

0.6 NM (1,200 yards)

748
Q

When is the Unit Training Board required to meet?

A

Meets at least once per month to review training program requirements and establish/update training plans based on the cutter’s schedule and operating status.

749
Q

How would you go about changing your Master Training List (MTL)?

A

Units should submit MTL change recommendations via their chain-of-command and operational commander to Commandant (CG-751) for consideration.

750
Q

When can you conduct live man overboards?

A

Never

751
Q

What is FPTT?

A

Force Protection Training Team

752
Q

What are the two primary forces that affect stability?

A

Gravity and Buoyancy

753
Q

When is the ideal timeframe to submit change requests for your Master Training List (MTL)?

A

Ideally, change recommendations should be forwarded during the August to September time frame each year.

754
Q

If you traveled 800 yards in 3 minutes, how fast were you going?

A

8 knots

755
Q

What are static forces?

A

Internal Forces

756
Q

What are your responsibilities as an OIC of a cutter?

A

Safe navigation of your ship,

Ensure your ship is operationally ready to perform all assigned missions,

Observe the functioning of ATON and report discrepancies,

Be alert to reports or rumors of distress and respond to any reports received,

Maintain discipline aboard your ship.

757
Q

If you are traveling 12 knots for 3 minutes, how far will you go?

A

1,200 yards (0.6 NM)

758
Q

What is the “metacenter”?

A

The metacenter is the center of the arc through which the centers of buoyancy move.

759
Q

What is free surface affect?

A

The detrimental effect on which a partially filled tank or compartment can have on the stability of a vessel.

760
Q

What is NSTT?

A

Navigation and Seamanship Training Team

761
Q

You are traveling 16.5 knots, how far will you go in 3 minutes?

A

1,650 Yards

762
Q

What is the distance of a tenth of a nautical mile in yards?

A

200 yards

763
Q

If you traveled 2.1 NM in 6 minutes, how fast were you going?

A

21 knots

764
Q

What is the purpose of the Unit Training Board?

A

The board’s purpose is to identify training requirements, establish and maintain training policy in a unit instruction, set priorities for training, develop a unit training plan and coordinate qualification oral boards.

765
Q

If you are traveling 21 knots for 3 minutes, how far will you go?

A

2,100 yards (1.05 NM)

766
Q

What is the exemption of a POIC going on a familiarization ride?

A

Exempted from this requirement are individuals who have previously served as officer-in-charge or executive petty officer of that cutter class.

767
Q

What are some factors that help determine ROC?

A

No appreciable bearing change;

Decreasing Range;

CBDR

768
Q

If you traveled 2,375 yards in 3 minutes, how fast were you going?

A

23.75 knots

769
Q

For cutters 175 feet or less in length, who shall be present during a Shakedown Cruise?

A

A Sector or District representative shall be present.

770
Q

What is “KG” in reference to stability?

A

KG is the vertical position of gravity; the distance from the baseline (keel) to the center of gravity.

771
Q

What are the five elements of the Unit Training Program?

A

Formal Schools

Mandated Training

Individual Qualification Programs

Drills and Exercises

Professional Development

772
Q

What are your main references for afloat training?

A

Cutter Training and Qualification Manual,

Master Training Lists,

Watch Qualification Standards.

773
Q

When conducting drills or exercises on a cutter and you score a 79% or less, what must be done?

A

Drills/exercises scored with grades of 79% or less shall be repeated.

774
Q

You travel 1.8 NM in 6 minutes, how fast are you going?

A

18 Knots

775
Q

What type of information do you want your DWO to give you when they call you with a contact at 0200?

A

Relative bearing;

CPA, range, bearing, time;

Rules of the Road situation;

Recommendation.

776
Q

What is a restricted maneuvering doctrine?

A

A written agreement between the CO and EO regarding the level of initial casualty control actions to be taken during periods of restricted maneuverability. It covers the particular machinery that the engine room can take control of in the event of a casualty.

777
Q

If you traveled 4300 yards in 7 minutes, how fast were you going?

A

18.43 knots

778
Q

When conducting drills or exercises on a Cutter, what is the minimum passing score to enter it into TMT?

A

Drills/exercises scored with grades of 80% or higher shall be considered successful and can be entered into TMT as completed.

779
Q

What should the Unit Training Plan be prepared on?

A

The Unit Training Plan, Form CG-5293 or locally created forms, spreadsheets or the Microsoft Outlook Calendar application as an alternative to the Unit Training Plan, Form CG-5293.

780
Q

When is a Ready for Sea (RFS) required?

A

RFS is a specialized training and evaluation period that includes ATG participation for newly commissioned cutters or for cutters departing extended drydocks, maintenance or non-operational periods of six months or greater.

781
Q

If you are traveling 9 knots for 6 minutes, how far will you go?

A

0.9 NM (1,800 yards)

782
Q

If you are traveling 29 knots for 3 minutes, how far will you go?

A

2,900 yards (1.45 NM)

783
Q

When an actual casualty occurs on a Cutter, can it be tracked as a drill or exercise?

A

Actual evolutions (e.g., boardings, refueling at sea) may be credited as exercises, provided they are properly observed, evaluated and critiqued.

784
Q

How should the 87 WPB CB-M be launched or recovered in calm seas (less than 3-4 feet)?

A

Heading into the seas with a speed of 4 to 6 knots is ideal.

785
Q

On small Cutters, does the OBTT have to be a certain size?

A

On small cutters, a team may consist of one or two people.

786
Q

When conducting a Oral Examination Board, who is required to attend at a minimum?

A

A board shall have a minimum of two members, but shall consist of:

At least one qualified OOD; EOW; or Tactical Action Officer (TAO) depending on the watchstation for which the member is qualifying.

Division officer or department head responsible for the watchstation.

787
Q

If you traveled 1,800 yards in 3 minutes, how fast were you going?

A

18 knots

788
Q

If you traveled 2.9 NM in 6 minutes, how fast were you going?

A

29 knots

789
Q

Where can you find guidance for stability on a WPB?

A

Stability and Loading Data Book.

790
Q

What drills can a Cutter expect during an RFO?

A

Main Propulsion Space Fire

Underwater Hull Damage

Man Overboard

Preparations for Abandon Ship

Cutter Boat Launch and Recovery

Low Visibility Piloting by ECINS

Steering Casualty

Other Basic Engineering Casualty Control Exercises (BECCEs) and underway cutter boat drills.

791
Q

Can certifications in TMT be delegated?

A

This responsibility cannot be delegated.

792
Q

Once training has been entered into TMT, is it required to retain your PQS?

A

No specific requirement exists to retain any portion of the actual PQS booklet after a qualification has been fully documented. Personnel are encouraged to keep copies of final qualification sign-off sheets and qualification letters.

793
Q

What is DCTT?

A

Damage Control Training Team

794
Q

What are some duties that a member of the OBTT may have?

A

Team Leader

Evaluator

Safety Observer

795
Q

According to the Cutter Training and Qualification manual, how long are you required to retain your Unit Training Plans?

A

Retained in unit files for two years. Electronic folders/ files are acceptable as long as final versions of Unit Training Plans are available for viewing or printing.

796
Q

What is the purpose of Ready for Sea (RFS)?

A

The purpose of the RFS process is to assess the cutter’s ability to operate safely and effectively until it can complete a full training cycle (CART/TSTA or SEOPS).

797
Q

If you are traveling 8 knots for 6 minutes, how far will you go?

A

0.8 NM (1,600 yards)

798
Q

What does the Onboard Training Team (OBTT) do?

A

OBTTs are composed of the most qualified officers and petty officers organized to assist the commanding officer in training individuals and teams, and in evaluating performance during training scenarios.

799
Q

What is free communication with the sea?

A

The negative effect on stability caused by the rupture of one, or more, exterior boundaries of a ship so that the sea may flow freely into, and out of the damaged compartment as the ship roles.

800
Q

What type of lean is a is a “heel”?

A

Temporary

801
Q

What is a Williamson Turn used for?

A

PIW in darkness, restricted visibility, or exact time is unknown.

802
Q

When are PHA’s completed?

A

Annually, on the members birth month.

803
Q

Can your Unit Training Plan have items like “drills” or “mandated training” in it?

A

These training evolutions should be indicated in the plan by specific drill numbers, course codes, topic names or specific identifiers; indicating generic “drills”, “mandated training”, etc. is not sufficient.

804
Q

If you traveled 10.6 NM in 53 minutes, how fast were you going?

A

12 knots

805
Q

What is the Coast Guard’s primary reporting system that provides an efficient way to determine the training status of personnel assigned to cutters?

A

Coast Guard Business Intelligence (CGBI)

806
Q

If you traveled 750 yards in 3 minutes, how fast were you going?

A

7.5 knots

807
Q

If you are traveling 27 knots for 6 minutes, how far will you go?

A

2.7 NM (5,400 yards)

808
Q

If you are traveling 4 knots for 3 minutes, how far will you go?

A

400 yards (0.2 NM)

809
Q

As a POIC, can you preform underway familiarization on the same vessel you are being assigned to?

A

Underway familiarization shall not be conducted on the same vessel to which the member is being assigned.

810
Q

What are the two principle types of stability?

A

Transverse and Longitudinal

811
Q

If you traveled 300 yards in 3 minutes, how fast were you going?

A

3 knots

812
Q

Who serves as chairman of the Unit Training Board?

A

The Executive Petty Officer

813
Q

What is considered a successful unit self-assessment for CART/ TSTA?

A

A successful unit self assessment is one that has no more than a 10 percent difference compared to ATO’s CART Assessment.

814
Q

If you traveled 1.9 NM in 6 minutes, how fast were you going?

A

19 knots

815
Q

According to the Cutter Training and Qualification manual, who is required to be on the Unit Training Board?

A

Unit Training Board membership shall, at a minimum, include the executive officer (XO) or executive petty officer (XPO), training officer or training petty officer and/or assistant, all department heads, educational services officer (if assigned), damage control assistant (if assigned) and corpsman (if assigned).

816
Q

If you are traveling at 15 knots for an 1 hour and 12 minutes, how far have you gone?

A

18 NM

817
Q

If you are traveling 16 knots for 6 minutes, how far will you go?

A

1.6 NM (3,200 yards)

818
Q

How does EAL fit into the training picture on a ship?

A

All drills and operations are entered into EAL, which feed TMT and CGBI.

819
Q

What is metacenter?

A

The intersection of the vertical line through the center of buoyancy and the vertical centerline is called the metacenter.

820
Q

Before conducting training that the OBTT has developed, what must the Officer in Charge do?

A

Before the execution of the training scenario, a thorough brief approved and signed by the Officer in Charge is required.

821
Q

If your boat is in a foreign port and a local comes to your boat requesting asylum, what do you do?

A

Provide a safe haven; notify OPCON, and the liaison officer for that area.

822
Q

What does a Ready for Sea (RFS) normally review?

A

Though every assessment may be different, a basic RFS will include a doctrine review, CART/SEOPS checklist review and the execution of critical or core drills.

823
Q

How often is CART/TSTA and SEOPS?

A

During this transition, CART/TSTA training cycles and SEOPS visits will continue on a biannual basis.

824
Q

If you are traveling at 16 knots for 27 minutes, how far have you gone?

A

7.2 NM

825
Q

What type of lean is a is a “list”?

A

Permanent

826
Q

Who is the president of the unit training board?

A

XPO

827
Q

If you don’t have line handlers on the pier, can you authorize a member to jump from the ship to shore?

A

The OOD shall not use “dock jumpers” when mooring unless dockside line handlers are not available. Deliver line handlers to the dock by small boat if possible. The First Lieutenant shall indoctrinate “dock jumpers” to ensure that they understand their duties and safety precautions.

828
Q

What is SEOPS?

A

Special and Emergency Operations and Procedures

829
Q

What are the maximum sea state limitations for the 87 WPB CM-M?

A

6’

830
Q

What are the three modes of afloat training?

A

Walk Through (Crew notified);

Training (Crew not notified, limited intervention);

Evaluation (Crew not notified, no intervention).

831
Q

What is the purpose of a Shakedown Cruise?

A

The purpose of a Shakedown Cruise is to provide dedicated training time to assist cutter crews in acquiring skills essential for the safe and effective operation of the cutter.

832
Q

If you traveled 7.3 NM in 17 minutes, how fast were you going?

A

25.76 knots

833
Q

If you traveled 0.8 NM in 6 minutes, how fast were you going?

A

8 knots

834
Q

When does your compass need to be swung and what is the maximum deviation before it needs to be replaced?

A

Annually, after a yard availability with alterations, after hot work, and it is allowed 5 degrees.

835
Q

How can you use a trial maneuver?

A

Input different courses and speeds to evaluate rules of the road situations.

836
Q

If you traveled 2,100 yards in 3 minutes, how fast were you going?

A

21 knots

837
Q

According to the Cutter Training and Qualification manual, who can sign off qualifications?

A

Officers, petty officers, department heads or equivalent authorized to attest to individual attainment of qualification standards shall, at a minimum, be E-5 or above and be certified in that watchstation.

838
Q

What class of cutters are enrolled in the Electronic Asset Logbook (EAL)?

A

WPB-87, WPB-110, WPC-154 and WMEC-210.

839
Q

What extension cords are authorized on ships?

A

Extension cords do not exceed 25 feet in length, with the exception of repair locker equipment. Two extension cords may be used in tandem, where a 25-foot length is insufficient.

840
Q

If you traveled 3,200 yards in 3 minutes, how fast were you going?

A

32 knots

841
Q

What is the free surface effect?

A

The term free surface effect refers to the determinable effect on which a partially filled tank or compartment can have on the stability of a vessel. The effect is due to the shifting of liquids as the vessel heels and results in the rise of the center of gravity.

842
Q

What is the first thing you do when a cutter goes into dry-dock?

A

Hull inspection

843
Q

Who is required to ensure an active unit training program is carried out as per the Cutter Training and Qualification manual?

A

The Officer in Charge

844
Q

If you traveled 2,800 yards in 3 minutes, how fast were you going?

A

28 knots

845
Q

Where should emergency eyewash stations be placed on a ship?

A

Emergency eyewash stations are located throughout the ship, especially in areas where there is a frequent risk of exposure to eye damage. Eyewash stations must be located within 10 seconds or 100 unobstructed feet of the eye hazard or eye hazardous operation.

846
Q

If you are traveled 7.9 knots for 43 minutes, how far did you travel?

A

5.66 NM

847
Q

If you are traveling 8 knots for 3 minutes, how far will you go?

A

800 yards (0.4 NM)

848
Q

What is ARPA?

A

Automatic RADAR Plotting Aid

849
Q

If you are traveling 23 knots for 6 minutes, how far will you go?

A

2.3 NM (4,600 yards)

850
Q

If you traveled 3.2 NM in 6 minutes, how fast were you going?

A

32 knots

851
Q

What Cutters are required to have an RFO?

A

RFOs assessments are conducted aboard cutters 175 feet or less in length.

852
Q

If you are traveling at 20 knots for 45 minutes, how far have you gone?

A

15 NM

853
Q

What is normally evaluated during a Shakedown Cruise?

A

Ship control, navigation, damage control and engineering will normally be stressed.

854
Q

What is a vessel’s righting moment?

A

Force causing a vessel to react against a roll and return to an even keel.

855
Q

If you traveled 2,500 yards in 5 minutes, how fast were you going?

A

15 knots

856
Q

Are there fatigue standards for ships?

A

No, OIC’s best judgment.

857
Q

What is an OBTT?

A

Onboard Training Team

858
Q

Where can you find the latest drill checklist for a cutter?

A

Office of Cutter Forces, CG 751 webpage.

859
Q

Who approved the Unit Training Plan?

A

The Officer in Charge

860
Q

Are Standing Orders, Cutter Navigation Standards, CO/OIC Night Orders, and XO/XPO morning orders mandated?

A

Yes, in accordance with Coast Guard Regulations Article 4-2-2A and Coast Guard Navigation Standards, COMDTINST M3530.2

861
Q

At night, you have a RADAR contact at 000 degrees. You are traveling at 10 knots and the contact is showing 0 knots relative speed and maintaining range. What could it be?

A

A vessel on the same heading making 10 knots.

862
Q

If you are traveling 6 knots for 3 minutes, how far will you go?

A

600 yards (0.3 NM)

863
Q

If you traveled 2,800 yards in 3 minutes, how fast were you going?

A

28 knots

864
Q

How is a Williamson Turn done?

A

Full rudder and alter your course 60 degrees, then shift your rudder until on the reciprocal of your base course.

865
Q

If you receive orders to be the Officer in Charge of a Cutter, are you required to do a familiarization ride?

A

All prospective commanding officers (PCOs) and officers in charge (POICs) are required to spend a period of underway familiarization on a cutter of the same class as their new command.

866
Q

What is a Shakedown Cruise?

A

Shakedown Cruises are cutter self-assessments and are similar in nature to Ready for Sea (RFS) assessments, without ATG/SEOPS involvement.

867
Q

What is required to allow cardholder to make purchases?

A

Letter of designated Procurement Authority.

868
Q

What are AFC-30 Funds?

A

Operating and Maintenance Funds

869
Q

What is a split purchase?

A

Separate purchases made for the same item under the micro-purchase limit, for the purpose of exceeding the micro-purchase limit.

870
Q

What is a ratification?

A

Approving an unauthorized purchase, if warranted.

871
Q

Can printing be ratified?

A

Printing is Non-Ratifiable.

872
Q

Can you purchase from Exchanges?

A

Yes, mandatory sources of supply must still be followed.

873
Q

What are your spend down rates?

A

25% 1st Quarter

50% 2nd Quarter

75% 3rd Quarter

100% 4th Quarter

874
Q

What is required to be on GP PROPERTY?

A

Leased/Rented/Borrowed property

MWR items costing over $5000

Items over $5000

Silver service and silverware

Artwork/models and artifacts with historical significance

Licensed Software

Foreign gifts and decorations retained by CG valued at $255 or more

AE/IT equipment(monitors, keyboards, mice, and speakers are exempt

875
Q

What is a unit approved plan?

A

Written document specifying who is authorized certain roles in the procurement process.

876
Q

What is the micro-purchase threshold of construction?

A

$2000

877
Q

What are some optional items to be on GP PROPERTY?

A

Items that have Popular appeal

Items that are difficult to control

Are easily misappropriated for personal gains or for other reasons which justify their accountability

878
Q

What are your responsibilities if you are an approving official?

A

Ensure purchases are from authorized vendors,

Ensure the purchases are under the micro-purchase limit,

Follow procurement priorities,

Certify the card holders PCA.

879
Q

When must an AO certify statements in PCA?

A

From the 19th to the 26th.

880
Q

What is PCA and what is it used for?

A

Purchase Card Application; used to verify (cardholder) and certify (AO) credit card purchases.

881
Q

What is a ratification?

A

A process of approving an unauthorized commitment by an official who has the authority to do so. The individual who made the unauthorized commitment must state the facts, which precipitated the action. If the person who made the purchase is no longer available, the immediate supervisor must provide the info.

882
Q

Where can you get printing services done?

A

Govt. Printing Office (GPO) ONLY.

883
Q

What do you do if you need to procure something over the micro-purchase threshold?

A

Conduct market research,

Provide at least three estimates,

Work through the Sector/ COCO to decide on the appropriate source.

884
Q

What are your purchasing dollar limits?

A

Supplies - $3,500

Services - $2,500

Construction - $2,000

885
Q

Who can conduct a survey?

A

E7 or above - requires 3 people.

886
Q

What are the possible negative outcomes of an illegal purchase?

A

Member making purchase could have to pay for the purchase personally.

887
Q

Can you authorize members to use government equipment for personal use?

A

Yes, within reason.

888
Q

What are AFC 45 funds?

A

Naval Engineering

889
Q

What are some examples of restricted purchases?

A

Rental or lease of real property

Telephone services (except cell phones)

Cash Transactions

Personal Purchases

Savings Bonds

Payment of freight transportation services

890
Q

What is a spend plan?

A

Plan on how a unit will spend its allotted funds, taking into account SMAs, planned maintenance, etc.

891
Q

What is FPD?

A

Financial Procurement Desktop - A computerized database where PR’s are initiated and unit spending is tracked.

892
Q

How long are purchasing records required to be maintained?

A

6 years 3 months

893
Q

What is the micro-purchase threshold of services?

A

$2500

894
Q

What are fall out funds?

A

Excess funds available for distribution.

895
Q

How often in AO refresher training required?

A

AO’s must receive refresher training every 2 years.

896
Q

When must the cardholder verify their statement in PCA?

A

From the 12th to the 19th.

897
Q

What is an SSL?

A

Standard Support Level

898
Q

What is the micro-purchase threshold of supplies?

A

$3500

899
Q

What is the name and number of the form used to report destruction of classified material?

A

COMSEC Material Report (SF 153)

900
Q

What do you change combinations on safes?

A

Upon receipt.

At least annually.

When someone having the combination no longer requires access.

When the combination has been compromised or the container has been discovered unlocked and unattended.

901
Q

What is FPCON D?

A

Critical threat: This condition applies in the immediate area where a terrorist attack has occurred or when intelligence has been received that terrorist action against a specific location is likely. Normally, this FPCON is declared as a localized warning.

902
Q

What is FPCON Normal?

A

This condition applies when a general threat of possible terrorist activity exists but warrants only routine security posture.

903
Q

What is FPCON C?

A

High threat: This condition applies when an incident occurs or when intelligence is received indicating that some form of terrorist action against units and personnel is imminent. Implementation of this measure for more than a short period will probably create hardship and will affect the peacetime activities of the unit and its personnel. All previous measures remain in effect.

904
Q

What is FPCON A?

A

Low threat: This condition applies when there is a general threat of possible terrorist activity directed against units and personnel, the nature and extent of which are unpredictable, and the circumstances do not justify full implementation of the measures of FPCON BRAVO. However, it may be necessary to implement certain selected measures from FPCON BRAVO as a result of intelligence received or as a deterrent. The measures in this FPCON must be capable of being maintained indefinitely.

905
Q

What is FPCON B?

A

Medium threat: This condition applies when an increased and more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists. The measures in this FPCON must be capable of being maintained for weeks without causing undue hardship, without affecting operational capability, and without aggravating relations with local authorities. All previous measures remain in effect.

906
Q

What is a CAT 4 CASREP?

A

Worse than CAT 3, and causes a loss of at least one primary mission.

907
Q

When is a safety and occupational health briefing required?

A

CO/OICs shall ensure that all personnel on board cutters entering a shipyard or commercial dockside availability are instructed in industrial safety requirements.

908
Q

What does the Asset Material Manager (AMM) do?

A

Responsible for requisition of Product Line supplied parts.

909
Q

What should you do if you show up to a unit and HAZMAT is an issue?

A

Contact CEU and the Sector EO.

910
Q

What are the requirements to throw food or solid waste overboard?

A

Disposal of paper rags, glass, metal, or food permitted only if shredded to less than 1-inch pieces.

911
Q

What is a danger tag used for?

A

It prohibits operation of equipment that could jeopardize safety of personnel or endanger equipment, systems, or components.

912
Q

What is an FTO?

A

Field Terminal Operator

913
Q

What is a CAT 2 CASREP?

A

Minor degradation in a primary mission; or a major degradation or total loss of a secondary mission.

914
Q

How often are docks and bulkheads inspected?

A

Every 5 years

915
Q

Can Civilians ride in Govt Vehicles?

A

No, But there are few instances where spouses can receive ride(from duty location to official function and return trip).

916
Q

What is the purpose of the tool control program?

A

Tool Control Program (TCP) is designed to provide quality tools and test equipment for asset maintenance while ensuring tool accountability and security.

917
Q

How many sets of CCOL’s are cutters required to have?

A

Three sets of CCOL sheets are supplied to each cutter.

918
Q

When are CCOL’s updated?

A

CCOL is updated after a Change, dry-dock, or pier side.

919
Q

What is your naval engineering chain of command?

A

Sector

PL

SFLC

CG-45

CG-4

920
Q

What is NESSS?

A

Naval Electronic System Supply Support

921
Q

What are you required to have onboard your ship that provides information on garbage disposal at sea?

A

A Garbage Management Plan must be maintained on board. (MARPOL Annex V, Regulation 9)

922
Q

How many tag-out logs are you required to keep on a cutter you could command?

A

A single tag-out log is required for other cutter and boats.

923
Q

What is an out of commission tag used for?

A

To identify instruments that will not correctly indicate parameters because the instruments are defective or isolated from the system.

924
Q

Who is required to maintain a casualty control manual?

A

All cutters 65 feet in length and greater are required to prepare and maintain an Engineering Casualty Control Manual.

925
Q

What do you have to provide to dock master prior to Dry-docking?

A

Liquid load list and docking position.

926
Q

A person attaching the tag must have who’s approval before attaching any tag(s)?

A

The Authorizing Officer

927
Q

What are the price limits for self help money?

A

More than $5K but less than $10K.

928
Q

What is ALARA?

A

As Low as Reasonably Achievable

929
Q

How often are corrosion inspections completed?

A

Corrosion Control Prevention conducted Weekly IAW CCP Guide. (Enter in Special Inspection’s in ALMIS.)

930
Q

What color is an out of calibration tag?

A

Orange

931
Q

What Manual contains information regarding Environmental Stewardship?

A

Vessel Environmental Manual (COMDTINST M16455.1)

932
Q

What can a TCTO be issued for?

A

Engineering Changes (EC)

Time-critical maintenance actions

Time-critical inspections

Temporary operational configuration changes

933
Q

Who designates Quality Assurance?

A

Sector EO

934
Q

What kind of electrical Safety programs do you have on a Cutter/ Station?

A

Cutter- Lock out/ Tag out log

Station- Lock out Procedures IAW OSHA

935
Q

What are the three branches of the SBPL?

A

Engineering

Depot

Supply

936
Q

Who is required to have an in-op fitting log?

A

All cutters shall maintain a current In-Op Fitting Log.

937
Q

What is the Repair Party TTP used for?

A

TTP for damage control, firefighting TTP, and all bills required of a cutter 175 or less.

938
Q

What are the two types of cutter engineering reports?

A

Assets not enrolled in EAL and ACMS

Assets enrolled in EAL and ACMS

939
Q

What are the four types of CASREPs?

A

Initial

Update

Correct

Cancel

940
Q

How often is an LCI?

A

Every three years

941
Q

What do you have to log when pumping the OWS overboard?

A

Log bilge water discharges including activity, location, date, time, and quantity.

942
Q

What is NMCM?

A

Not Mission Capable Maintenance

943
Q

What are the four types of CASREP’s?

A

Initial

Update

Correct

Cancel

944
Q

What is SFLC?

A

Surface Forces Logistics Center

945
Q

If you have the boat in the water and the trailer is unusable what is the boats status?

A

Partially Mission Capable

946
Q

What is a TCTO?

A

Time Compliance Technical Order

947
Q

What is IDLH?

A

Immediately Dangerous to Life or Health

948
Q

How often are spot checks on tools and tool boxes required?

A

The program requires maintainer ensure daily spot checks of tools and tool boxes is accomplished as outlined in the unit’s tool control instruction.

949
Q

What does the Field Terminal Operator (FTO) do?

A

Enters in MPC’s and other data.

950
Q

How often are you required to complete a USAT?

A

Annually

951
Q

What is your civil engineering chain of command?

A

Sector

CEU

SILC

CG-43

CG-4

952
Q

What is ALMIS?

A

Asset Logistics Management Information System

953
Q

What is CEU Threshold amount?

A

$5,000

954
Q

What is the yellow sheet in ALMIS?

A

Pre-Mission Record

955
Q

Where could you find information on the required engineering logs for your unit?

A

Chapter 090

956
Q

When should a CASREP be submitted?

A

Within 24 hours of discovery of an equipment or system deficiency.

957
Q

Who does the cutter engineering report go to?

A

Submit the report to the Product Line Manager via the assigned SFLC Port Engineer. One copy shall be retained on board for the cutter files.

958
Q

What are the four chapters of the ECCM?

A

1) Machinery Readiness
2) Engineering Casualties (BECCEs)
3) General Emergency Casualties
4) Damage Control Organization

959
Q

What is EAL?

A

Electronic Asset Logbook

960
Q

Does a waiver for restrictive or disabling documented in the EAL suffice as a written waiver?

A

Waivers for restrictive or disabling casualties documented in EAL are equivalent to official written waivers.

961
Q

What color is a danger tag?

A

Red

962
Q

How is the Material Condition of Readiness documented on cutters 140’ or less?

A

All vessels less than 140’ in length shall at a minimum record current Material Condition of Readiness in the Ship’s Log, or at CO/OINC’s discretion maintain a formal DC Closure Log.

963
Q

What happens in ALMIS if a MISHAP occurs involving a death?

A

Lock ALMIS Record (EO or call help desk).

964
Q

How often is the OIC required to conduct a safety inspection?

A

OIC is required to conduct a safety inspection at least yearly.

965
Q

What is AMMIS?

A

Asset Material Management Information System

966
Q

Where can you find specific information for preparing the ECCM?

A

Specific instructions for the preparation of the ECCM are contained in Chapter 079 of the NEM.

967
Q

How often are stability tests conducted?

A

Stability Tests conducted every 10 years on a single asset of each class of cutter.

968
Q

What can you reference information on the lockout program?

A

29 CFR 1910

29 CFR 1915

Required by OSHA

969
Q

What times can inport watchstanding requirements be reduced and what must the ship have to allow it?

A

Between the hours of 2200 and 0600, in port inspection requirements can be further reduced if all berthing areas are equipped with adequate installed flooding and fire sensor alarms to alert a sleeping watchstander, provided the watchstander is on board at all times.

970
Q

Who is responsible for developing watch standing policies and procedures which establish and maintain the integrity and safe operation of the cutter’s or boat’s mechanical plant?

A

Engineer Officers and Engineer Petty Officers (EO/EPO).

971
Q

Can asset maintenance be preformed with tools not enrolled in the Tool Control Program?

A

Only those tools enrolled in the TCP are authorized for asset maintenance.

972
Q

Who is the cutter engineering report submitted to?

A

Submit the report to the Product Line Manager via the assigned SFLC Port Engineer.

973
Q

What is the purpose of tool accountability and tool security?

A

Tool accountability reduces Foreign Object Damage (FOD) or injury due to tools adrift on the asset. Tool security reduces replacement costs and ensures tool availability.

974
Q

How often are CASREP updates required?

A

Every 30 days.

975
Q

What is the ALMIS monetary value for a cutter?

A

$250

976
Q

What is LCI and how often is it?

A

LCI- Logistic Compliance Inspection (Every 3 years)

977
Q

What is NMCM?

A

Not Mission Capable Maintenance

978
Q

How often are GV checks required?

A

Motor Pool Managers shall schedule a check of engine fluids, tire air pressure, and visually inspect each vehicle periodically not less than every 2 weeks.

979
Q

What is acceptable level on an overdue MDL(maintenance due list)?

A

Zero Items

980
Q

When are Tier 2 inspections for fuel required?

A

Required for Fuel Tanks over 10,000 lbs and must be on file with the community right to know with the State.

981
Q

What is the difference between a controlled parts exchange and cannibalization?

A

Unlike controlled parts exchange, cannibalization is performed with the intent of not replacing or returning a part to the donor asset.

982
Q

In the modernized small boat world, who plans and schedules all yard availabilities and maintenance beyond the units capabilities?

A

Planned Depot Maintenance Section

983
Q

What are the requirements to throw pulped garbage overboard?

A

Pulped, ground or comminuted garbage capable of passing through a screen with openings no greater than 12 mm (0.47 in).

984
Q

Who is required to have a Stability and Loading Data Booklet?

A

SLDBs are required on all cutters 65 feet in length and greater that are not required to maintain DC Books.

985
Q

Who is an authorizing officer in the tag out program?

A

The person with the authority to sign tags/labels to be issued or cleared in the authorizing officer.

986
Q

How often are fire alarm systems inspected?

A

Annually (Ashore/Afloat)

987
Q

What types of safety programs are required at your unit?

A

Hearing/ Sight Conservation, Fire Prevention, Haz Comms, Haz waste, heat stress, Respiratory Protection.

988
Q

What program tracks and schedules all standard small boat maintenance?

A

ALMIS/ EAL

989
Q

What happens if the person who attached a tag is not available? Can it be removed?

A

In the rare instance that the person is not available, the Commanding Officer may grant the Engineer or Operations Officer permission to clear the tag(s).

990
Q

Who is responsible for the preparation and upkeep of the WQSB?

A

The EO/EPO is responsible for the preparation and upkeep of the department Watch, Quarter, and Station Bill.

991
Q

What is an ECCM?

A

Engineering Casualty Control Manual

992
Q

What is DSS?

A

Decision Support System

993
Q

What is a POP Board?

A

Planned Obligation Prioritization Board

994
Q

What is an out of calibration tag used for?

A

To identify instruments that are out of calibration and will not accurately indicate parameters.

995
Q

What is OMSEP?

A

Occupational Medical Surveillance and Evaluation Program; a database to track safety and health of unit personnel.

996
Q

Can you expedite an SSMR?

A

Yes, Invite Sector EO, if something is failing you can CASREP.

997
Q

What chapter of the NEM can you find information of firefighting?

A

Chapter 555

998
Q

What kind of unit’s/ assets is the tag-out program used for?

A

Aboard all cutters and boats.

999
Q

Once a boat is disabled in ALMIS, who is able to release the boat?

A

Sector EO

1000
Q

What division of SFLC oversees small boats?

A

SBPL

1001
Q

What are the two types of bi-level maintenance?

A

Organizational Level Maintenance

Depot Level Maintenance

1002
Q

Who is responsible for WQSB maintenance?

A

EPO

1003
Q

What gives information on Hazmat Storage?

A

Hazardous Waste Manual

1004
Q

What is a CG-22

A

Maintenance/Publication Feedback

1005
Q

How do you disable a boat in ALMIS?

A

You need to check the disable button in EAL when an open discrepancy is created. This is usually done by the technician and prevents the coxswain from checking the boat out.

1006
Q

What are self help funds for?

A

You as the Unit identifies a project that your believe you can do yourself or you can find someone to do for you and it will not cost more than 10K but will cost more than 5K.

1007
Q

How long are inactive tag-out sheets retained?

A

Six months.

1008
Q

What is ALMIS?

A

Asset Logistics Management Information System

1009
Q

What is SMAC?

A

Stop, Move Away, Alert, & Close Off.

1010
Q

What is your reference for knowing what DC equipment you are required to have onboard your cutter?

A

Cutter Standard Repair Locker Inventory, COMDTINST 9664.1 (series)

1011
Q

How long is EPO required to maintain Hazardous Waste Manifest?

A

From cradle to grave.

1012
Q

Are the EPO’s night orders required when inport?

A

The EO/EPO shall provide a Night Order Book to be read and initialed by the Engineer Officer of the Watch for each night, in port and at sea.

1013
Q

Where can you find information on items to include in the cutter engineering report?

A

A list of items to include in the report is in chapter 90 NEM.

1014
Q

What is the blue sheet in ALMIS?

A

Mission Record

1015
Q

How much fire hose shall be at each fire station?

A

At minimum, two 1-1/2 inch (or 1-3/4 inch with 1-1/2 inch fittings), 50-FT lengths of hose shall be located at each fire station on the main weather deck, lower decks, and superstructures, with one 50-FT length connected to each fireplug.

1016
Q

How often are Level 1 weight handling inspections required?

A

Annually

1017
Q

Who is normally granted Maintenance Release Authority (MRA)?

A

Typically the Engineering Officer and an alternate, usually the Maintenance Control Officer, are designated to perform this action.

1018
Q

What db is hearing protection required?

A

84 Single Protection

104 Double Protection

1019
Q

Who transfers assets in ALMIS?

A

Sector EO

1020
Q

What things are listed in CASREP?

A

Proper routing information, what the casualty was, type of casualty, assistance required, ETR, and if engine, serial number, hours, type.

1021
Q

What is the pink sheet in ALMIS?

A

Maintenance Record

1022
Q

Who is required to walk the blocks when going into dry dock?

A

OINC, EPO, Port Engineer, and Yardmaster should provide measurements.

1023
Q

What is an initial CASREP for?

A

Identifies the status of casualty and parts or assistance required.

1024
Q

What guides the EPO in DC Locker Inventory?

A

NSTM 074 and the Cutter Standard Repair Locker Inventory.

1025
Q

What are the three sets of CCOL’s supplied to each cutter?

A

Master set

Spare copy

Posted in the compartment

1026
Q

What is a CAT 3 CASREP?

A

Major degradation, but not the loss of a primary mission.

1027
Q

Who is the only person that can remove a tag?

A

The person attaching the tag(s) shall be the ONLY person that removes the tag(s) and submits them for clearance.

1028
Q

Where is the CCM kept on board the cutter?

A

Main control, Engineering Assist location, all repair lockers, DCC and the pilot house.

1029
Q

What is the process for a main space fire on a cutter?

A

100% personnel accountability prior to lighting off CO2 (OIC Permission).

15 Min effectiveness of CO2 prior to indirect attack using fixed AFFF system. (3 Cans).

OIC permission for fire team to enter space within 2 minutes of indirect attack.

1030
Q

What do OSHA diving regulations require when putting divers overboard?

A

Minimum of 2 divers with one safety observer (dive master)

1031
Q

What command oversees all logistical support for your asset?

A

SFLC

1032
Q

Who is required to sign a Priority 2 parts request?

A

The Maintenance Officer or Engineering Officer.

1033
Q

What is an AMM?

A

Asset Material Manager

1034
Q

What is a CMP and NEPL?

A

Class Maintenance Plan, Naval Engineering Project List of scheduled work to be completed through the life of the cutter to help ensure a longer operational period.

1035
Q

What is the self help limit for AFC-43 funds?

A

5K - 25K

1036
Q

What chapter of the NEM can you find info on Repair Parties?

A

Chapter 79

1037
Q

What is an SSMR?

A

Shore Station Maintenance Record

1038
Q

Before clearing a tag, who must grant approval?

A

The Authorizing Officer

1039
Q

How many PPM must OWS reduce Oily water to?

A

15 PPM

1040
Q

How often must machinery be checked when inport?

A

Cutters and below can reduce inspection requirements while in port. Operating machinery must be checked at least once every four hours when in port, on electrical shore-tie between the hours of 0600 and 2200.

1041
Q

Who maintains the tag-out log?

A

On cutters and boats with a single tag-out log requirement, the Engineering Department shall maintain this log.

1042
Q

In the lockout program, what is the definition of lockout?

A

The placement of a lockout device on an energy isolating device, in accordance with an established procedure, ensuring that the energy isolating device and the equipment being controlled cannot be operated until the lockout device is removed.

1043
Q

What is a report of survey used for?

A

Reporting the condition of aircraft, boats, and vehicles for incidents of loss, theft, damage.

1044
Q

What is NTNO?

A

Navy Type Navy Owned

1045
Q

What is the purpose of the Engineering Casualty Control Manual (ECCM)?

A

The ECCM shall contain emergency procedures to be followed by personnel assigned to the various Watch Stations if a casualty or machinery derangement occurs.

1046
Q

Where can you find a list of required bills for your cutter?

A

Naval Engineering Manual, COMDTINST M9000.6 (series)

1047
Q

What is a caution tag used for?

A

It is a precaution to provide temporary special instructions or to indicate that unusual caution must be exercised to operate equipment.

1048
Q

How many chapters are in the ECCM?

A

4

1049
Q

What is CF?

A

Carried Forward

1050
Q

What is a CCOL?

A

Compartment Check off List- An itemized list of classified and unclassified fittings and damaged control equipment for setting material conditions of readiness.

1051
Q

What is PP?

A

Parts Pending

1052
Q

Who is responsible for maintaining the WQSB?

A

EPO is responsible for preparation and upkeep of the WQSB.

1053
Q

What is an cancel CASREP for?

A

Used to cancel a CASREP

1054
Q

In regard to the Main Space Fire Doctrine, how long do you have to get a charged hose into a space after a report of a liquid leak?

A

For liquid leak scenario: 2 mins to get charged hose into space (Minimum of 2 Cans of AFFF).

1055
Q

What is an LCI?

A

Logistics Compliance Inspection

1056
Q

What are the three types of maintenance?

A

Corrective Maintenance (CM)

Preventive Maintenance

Alterative Maintenance

1057
Q

What are SSMR’s for when dealing with shore facilities?

A

A planning tool to identify future maintenance needs. They are used to report the need for maintenance or repair of an item that is:

Beyond the capability of a unit’s personnel resources.

Beyond the unit’s financial resources.

Cost exceeds $5K.

Alterations to structures/ facilities.

1058
Q

In the lockout program, what is considered a lockout device?

A

A device that utilizes a positive means such as a lock, either key or combination type, to hold an energy isolating device in the safe position and prevent the energizing of a machine or equipment. Included are blank flanges and bolted slip blinds.

1059
Q

What kind of AFFF are cutters required to carry?

A

All cutters are equipped with either 3% proportioning equipment designed for Type 3 AFFF concentrate or 6% proportioning equipment designed for Type 6 AFFF concentrate.

1060
Q

Who is responsible for maintenance completion on a cutter?

A

Cutter Commanding Officer (CO) has ultimate responsibility for maintenance completion on the cutter.

1061
Q

How often are fire extinguishers inspected?

A

Monthly (Ashore/Afloat)

1062
Q

How often do cutters equipped with video and electronic monitoring systems have to do rounds?

A

Cutters equipped with video and electronic control and monitoring systems that in addition to monitoring spaces for fire and flooding, can alert the watchstander of abnormal system parameters prior to failure, can reduce inspection requirements on operating machinery to at least once every four hours.

1063
Q

A cutters required to have an agreement with their local fire department?

A

All cutters should formalize a local fire department agreement and conduct familiarization training at least Bi-annually.

1064
Q

What is a CSMP?

A

Current Ship’s Maintenance Projects, used to document corrective maintenance needs only.

1065
Q

What chapter of the ECCM would you find the restricted maneuvering doctrine?

A

Chapter One

1066
Q

What is the ALMIS monetary value for a small boat?

A

$50

1067
Q

What is OM&S?

A

Operating Materials and Supplies

1068
Q

How often is a SMART inspection?

A

Every 3 Years

1069
Q

What color is an out of commission tag?

A

Red

1070
Q

How often shall cutter and boat machinery be inspected and logged?

A

All cutter and boat operating machinery shall be inspected every hour, and readings shall be recorded.

1071
Q

What color is a caution tag?

A

Yellow

1072
Q

What are the three reporting procedures for repairs to discrepancies to buildings, structures, and unit grounds?

A

CASREP

DISCREP

SSMR

1073
Q

What is ACMS?

A

Asset Computerized Maintenance System

1074
Q

What is an update CASREP for?

A

Provides an update on efforts to resolve an equipment malfunction or degradation.

1075
Q

What happens in ALMIS when a disabling discrepancy is entered?

A

When a disabling discrepancy is entered, the asset

condition is automatically set to a downward pointing red arrow.

1076
Q

What is required to drive a GV under 5 tons?

A

A valid Driver’s License

1077
Q

Who is required to sign a Priority 5 parts request?

A

The shop supervisor.

1078
Q

What is a CMM?

A

Centralized Maintenance Manager

1079
Q

What is a “special tool”?

A

Special tools are those tools not in the standard tool box, but called out on an MPC to complete a given task.

1080
Q

How are parts ordered in ALMIS?

A

A CG-4491 Parts & Material Request Form.

1081
Q

Who has maintenance release authority?

A

Sector EO

1082
Q

What chapter of the ECCM would you find the Machinery Space Firefighting Doctrine?

A

Chapter Four

1083
Q

How often are Level 3 weight handling inspections required?

A

Condition Based Maintenance

1084
Q

When is the cutter engineering report due?

A

Submit this report no later than 31 January; if at sea at the end of the reporting period, submit the report upon reaching a port.

1085
Q

What is CFD?

A

Carried Forward Depot

1086
Q

What is an correct CASREP for?

A

(CASCOR) this is the final report for a material casualty repaired by unit (sent within 24 hours of repair).

1087
Q

What is a TCTO?

A

Time Compliance Technical Order (Configuration Change, Allotted Time Frame, if not completed disable boat).

1088
Q

What are requirements to certify/ recertify as a Gas Free Engineer (GFE)?

A

40 hour OJT requirement waived

Must issue at least 1 GFE certificate per quarter to keep certifications current.

1089
Q

How often are fire drills required ashore?

A

Every 6 Months

1090
Q

Can one person attach a danger/ caution tag?

A

No, it requires two person integrity and the second person must initial.

1091
Q

What are a few of the required logs and records required to be kept and maintained by the EPO on a cutter?

A

Engineering Department Standing Orders

Night Order Book

Steaming Orders

Light Off Schedule

Securing Schedule

WQSB

ECCM

Cutter Engineering Report

1092
Q

How many DCPO’s should your unit have?

A

Small units 160 feet in length and below shall assign 1-2 DCPOs

1093
Q

Does your EPO have to establish standing orders?

A

Yes, approved by the OIC, also required to have night order book.

1094
Q

What are the parts of the cutter engineering report?

A

Section I- Safety Items

Section II- Hull

Section III- Machinery/Electrical

Section IV- Administrative Programs

Section V- Cutter Engineering Summary

Section VI- Remarks

1095
Q

Is a tool control program required?

A

A Tool Control Program must be established at each integrated unit.

1096
Q

What are DISCREP’s for when dealing with shore facilities?

A

A repair that does not impair the operational capability of a unit but fits the AFC 43 chargeable expense.

Must be more than $5K.

1097
Q

Who is required to sign a dive chit?

A

Officer in Charge

1098
Q

Can you use any cleaning product on a Standard Boat?

A

As long as it is on the authorized chemical list for that vessel.

1099
Q

What is NMCS?

A

Not Mission Capable Supply

1100
Q

What is a Priority 5 parts request used for?

A

Asset has limited mission capability and required part is not in unit inventory.

1101
Q

What is ACMS?

A

Asset Computerized Maintenance System

1102
Q

How often are Level 2 weight handling inspections required?

A

Quadrennial

1103
Q

When are power trials conducted?

A

Annual, within 6 months of CG receiving new asset, and TCTO or major overhaul effecting machinery propulsion.

1104
Q

How many spanner wrenches shall be placed at each fire station?

A

Two

1105
Q

How are safe to sail waivers processed?

A

Submit to Sector

Product Line Reviews

District Approves

1106
Q

Who’s responsibility is it to ensure maintenance is completed on a cutter?

A

It is the CO’s responsibility to ensure that maintenance is completed in an orderly and timely manner to meet the assigned mission requirements.

1107
Q

What are the oxygen percentages that are considered IDLH?

A

Oxygen levels less than 19.5 percent or greater than 22 percent shall be considered as IDLH.

1108
Q

What are AFC-43 funds used for?

A

Depot Level maintenance expenses incurred in support of the Shore Unit Logistics Support Program.

1109
Q

Who can grant a maintenance release?

A

Maintenance Release Authority (MRA) must be delegated in writing by the Sector/DSF Unit Commanding Officer.

1110
Q

How much of your budget does the Small Boat Product Line take?

A

Small boat product line takes 71% of budget.

1111
Q

When is the cutter engineering report due?

A

Cutter Engineering Report is due NLT Jan 31st.

1112
Q

Are CAT 1 CASREP’s used in the Coast Guard?

A

Not used in CG.

1113
Q

What COMDTINST manual specifically lists what determines if your small boat is safe to operate?

A

Boat type operator’s handbook. This instruction clearly outlines what a disabling casualty is and what a restrictive discrepancy is.

1114
Q

What must be done if a piece of NTNO equipment fails, what must be done?

A

NTNO support requests must be documented in EAL as necessary AND communicated using the CASREP system in accordance with current Navy requirements.

1115
Q

What are the four chapters of the ECCM?

A

Chapter 1 - Machinery Readiness

Chapter 2 - Engineering Casualties (BECCEs)

Chapter 3 - General Emergency Casualties

Chapter 4 - Damage Control Organization

1116
Q

What is the OIC’s role in designating authorizing officials in the tag out program?

A

The Officer in Charge shall designate the authorizing officers in writing.

1117
Q

What things does an LCI look at?

A

ALMIS

ENG Programs

Hazmat

Supply

Configuration

1118
Q

How often is the OIC required to conduct inspections of shipboard spaces and machinery to ensure the proper equipment operation, maintenance of material readiness and watertight integrity?

A

These inspections are normally carried out weekly while underway and bi-weekly in port.

1119
Q

How often is the tag-out log required to be audited?

A

The cognizant department head is responsible for ensuring that checks and audits of all tag-outs are performed once every two weeks.

1120
Q

At what temperature should you initiate Heat Stress Program?

A

100 degrees (take readings hourly)

1121
Q

What is a Priority 2 parts request used for?

A

Asset is disabled, requires disabling discrepancy in EAL.

1122
Q

What are CASREP’s for when dealing with shore facilities?

A

Shore facilities or shore equipment failures that impair the operational capability of a unit.

The condition must degrade the operational capability.

Must be more than $5K.

1123
Q

What do you do if your small boat has a casualty?

A

Call the Helpdesk and have them lock the boat record in ALMIS.

1124
Q

What resources are available to assist you with the civil engineering process?

A

CEU FAM (facility asset manager)

District FAM

Sector Engineer Officer

1125
Q

Who signs danger/ caution tags?

A

The Authorizing Officer

1126
Q

What is the self help limit for AFC-30 funds?

A

0 - 5K

1127
Q

What is FLS?

A

Fleet Logistics System

1128
Q

When do you give someone their Miranda/Tempia rights?

A

Before you question anyone on what you believe may lead the member to being charged under the UCMJ.

1129
Q

What two things must have happened if giving an Alcohol Incident to a member?

A

Alcohol is the Significant or Causative Factor

Alcohol Must be Consumed

1130
Q

What are the enlistment intervals for reenlistment?

A

All enlisted personnel are allowed to reenlist for periods of three, four, five, or six years.

1131
Q

During the Pre-Complaint process for discrimination complaints, if resolution is not met within 15 days, what should happen on the 16th day?

A

But if the matter is not resolved with the Command within that 15-day period, on the 16th day the military member may initiate the pre-complaint process with an EO Counselor.

1132
Q

What happens to members who are unable or unwilling to conform with the tattoo policy?

A

Members unable or unwilling to take the steps to satisfy requirements of this policy will be administratively separated.

1133
Q

Can you mandate that a member provide you monthly financial statements if they are negligent?

A

When the commanding officer is convinced that a member is negligent or careless in regard to personal finances, the individual may be advised to submit a statement of monthly finances and outstanding obligations. Such a request should not be placed in the form of an order and failure to comply with the advice should not be the occasion for disciplinary action.

1134
Q

Is there a time limit that members must have served at their current OCONUS unit before they can be considered for TEMPSEP?

A

For OCONUS units, members applying for temporary separation for CNC must have completed at least two years at their current duty station prior to separation.

1135
Q

What are the only two fundraising activities that can be officially conducted in the workplace?

A

CFC and CGMA are the only fundraising activities that may be conducted in an official capacity in the workplace.

1136
Q

What is the maximum amount of time for a TEMPSEP?

A

The maximum amount of time for TEMPSEP is two years, including processing time to return to active duty.

1137
Q

Can TEMPSEP be granted for Care of a Newborn Child (CNC) that is adopted?

A

This applies to both adoptions and to biological parents.

1138
Q

What should be done in the event that a financially irresponsible member transfers to another unit?

A

If a member is transferred prior to satisfactory resolution of the problem, all current correspondence shall be forwarded to the member’s new commanding officer.

1139
Q

How much prenatal convalescent leave can be granted?

A

30 days.

1140
Q

Is a TEMPSEP request guaranteed?

A

Eligibility for TEMPSEP does not guarantee approval. Commander (CG PSC-OPM/EPM-1), must approve or deny eligible requests based on the needs of the Service and the member’s record.

1141
Q

If the Officer in Charge and competent medical authority order a member to undergo an alcohol treatment and they violate an alcohol rehabilitation aftercare plan, what will happen?

A

They are normally are processed for separation.

1142
Q

If a member Self-Refers, is diagnosed as Alcohol Dependent, and a relapse occurs during the aftercare phase of their treatment plan, what will happen?

A

The relapse will be documented as their first alcohol incident and a new aftercare program will be reinstated effective the date the relapse was identified.

1143
Q

What is the purpose of the TEMPSEP program?

A

The Temporary Separation (TEMPSEP) program allows Coast Guard active duty members to return to active duty after a temporary separation, allowing the member to focus on personal interests/issues they might be precluded from performing by remaining on active duty.

1144
Q

What are the two types of relief for cause?

A

Temporary relief for cause, and

Permanent relief for cause

1145
Q

Before arranging for the release of a member to Coast Guard custody, what considerations should you make?

A

The nature of the alleged offense(s);

The physical and mental condition of the accused;

The impact of the member’s presence on the unit; and

The unit’s ability to ensure the member will be available at the request of the civilian authorities.

1146
Q

What is DEOMI?

A

Defense Equal Opportunity Management Institute

1147
Q

What is an individual development plan used for?

A

Tool to help individuals reach career goals. Action plan to move the individual from where they are to where they want to go.

1148
Q

When must all eligibility requirements be met to participate in the SWE?

A

Each active duty member must complete and meet the eligibility requirements listed below by the SED of 1 February for the May SWE or 1 August for the November SWE.

1149
Q

Can a member who exceeds the allowable weight standards be advanced?

A

A member on an advancement list will have the advancement withheld until weight is met.

1150
Q

What is the difference between inappropriate relationships and prohibited relationships?

A

Inappropriate: Unacceptable and not allowed under service policy.

Prohibited: Violates UCMJ

1151
Q

Who substantiates child abuse?

A

After receiving the final report of investigation, the District Commander, Commanding Officer, or Officer in Charge “substantiates” the abuse.

1152
Q

How many years of service does a member need to be eligible for TEMPSEP under Care of a Newborn Child (CNC)?

A

Enlisted members must have at least four years of continuous active duty instead of at least six years of active duty per Article 3.F.1 of this Manual.

1153
Q

How much paternity leave is authorized?

A

10 days.

1154
Q

How much maternity leave is authorized?

A

84 days.

1155
Q

How long do active duty and reservist have to appeal their marks?

A

The member must submit the appeal within 15 calendar days (30 calendar days for reservist).

1156
Q

Are innocuous practical jokes, such as fetching “relative bearing grease” or “prop wash” considered hazing?

A

Innocuous practical jokes, such as fetching “relative bearing grease” or “prop wash” do not constitute hazing as long as they are not intended to and actually do not humiliate, ridicule, or ostracize.

1157
Q

How long does a member have to appeal their marks?

A

15 Days

1158
Q

Is there a time limit that members must have served at their current CONUS unit before they can be considered for TEMPSEP?

A

For CONUS units, members applying for temporary separation for CNC must have completed at least one year at their current duty station prior to separation.

1159
Q

How many days does an EO counselor have to inquire, resolve, or issue a right to file (RTF) a formal complaint after a command was unable to achieve resolution?

A

30 Days

1160
Q

What is SAFE?

A

Substance Abuse-Free Environment

1161
Q

What report should be submitted if a member receives a civil conviction?

A

A copy of the Personnel Security Action, Form CG-5588, used to report any civil conviction shall be submitted to Commander (CG PSC-OPM) or (CG PSC-EPM), as applicable, and (CG PSC-PSD-MR).

1162
Q

Who are IDP’s required for?

A

E2-E6/ O1-O4/ W2’s within their first 48 months of service.

1163
Q

Can a member have tattoos on their hands?

A

No, with the exception of a tattoo in the form of a ring are authorized on the wearers finger with the limitation of one per hand (w/ the exception of thumbs).

1164
Q

Can the IDP be used as a performance evaluation tool?

A

No

1165
Q

How long does the command have to report a hate incident?

A

A commander who becomes aware of a hate incident will electronically report the incident within 48 hours to a Civil Rights Service Provider using memo format.

1166
Q

Is the Coast Guard obligated to provide treatment to members being processed for discharge with a preexisting condition?

A

The Coast Guard is not obligated to offer treatment prior to separation to individuals’ diagnosed with conditions that existed prior to enlistment.

1167
Q

What is the three strike rule in regard to weight and body fat standards?

A

Three consecutive failed semi-annual weigh-ins. Members who fail to maintain compliance with weight and body fat standards for three consecutive weigh-ins (Apr-Oct-Apr or Oct-Apr-Oct).

1168
Q

Are E-3 and below eligible for the TEMPSEP program?

A

Members in the pay-grade E-3 or less are ineligible.

1169
Q

What is the duration of a HUMS?

A

Commander, (CGPC-epm) normally authorizes no-cost TAD orders for a maximum of six months for a HUMS because the situation involved is usually temporary.

1170
Q

What is the maximum amount of liberty you can grant as an OIC?

A

72 hours

1171
Q

Is under age drinking considered an Alcohol Incident?

A

Underage drinking is considered an alcohol incident. Should an incident occur, the CDAR shall counsel the member and initiate an alcohol screening.

1172
Q

What happens if a member is near the end of a HUMS assignment and there is no sign of improvement?

A

If it appears the member will not be available for unlimited reassignment on completing the HUMS, Commander, (CGPC-epm) considers the hardship a permanent situation and normally will initiate discharge by reason of hardship.

1173
Q

What do you do if a member refuses to submit to urinalysis, even after a search authorization?

A

Handle the matter under the UCMJ for direct disobedience of an order, start an official investigation on the possible drug usage charge.

1174
Q

Is TEMPSEP guaranteed for members that report they were the victim in an unrestricted sexual assault case?

A

Requests under this section must not be based on needs of the Service, and Commander (CG PSC-OPM/EPM-1), must endeavor to grant these requests as much as possible.

1175
Q

When does weight probation begin?

A

Immediately upon a non-compliant weigh-in.

1176
Q

What happens to E-2 and below personnel that receive an Alcohol Incident and have more than two years of service?

A

Following one alcohol incident, enlisted members who have not advanced beyond pay grade E-2 and have more than two years of Coast Guard service shall normally be separated by reason of unsuitability due to alcohol abuse

1177
Q

What do you do with a member if their urinalysis test comes back positive?

A

You must investigate any drug incident, process the member for discharge, possible UCMJ charges, and consider treatment.

1178
Q

What shall the Officer in Charge do if they determine they have a member with a preexisting chemical dependency within six months of their enlistment?

A

Members diagnosed with alcohol abuse or alcohol dependence within six months of enlistment are not physically qualified for enlistment. If appropriate, unit commanders shall recommend discharge

1179
Q

How are mutual request submitted?

A

Requests shall be submitted via Coast Guard Memorandum directly to Commander (CG PSC-EPM-2) with unit command endorsement, and in the case of a mutual, a copy to the other member’s command.

1180
Q

Can a member display a political sticker on their POV?

A

Yes, one sticker only.

1181
Q

Is a HUMS at cost to the member or the government?

A

HUMS are at no cost to the government. However, in some very limited, unusual cases, the Service may decide the overall situation warrants the Service’s funding a permanent change of station (PCS) transfer.

1182
Q

Who has discharge authority?

A

Commander, Coast Guard Personnel Center is the discharge authority in all cases of administrative separation. (EPM-1)

1183
Q

If a member is being processed for discharge for chemical dependency and refuses rehabilitation treatment, what must be done?

A

Members that decline rehabilitation treatment shall sign an Administrative Remarks, Form CG-3307, entry indicating they waive their right to benefits under the Department of Veterans Affairs program for treatment of chemical dependency.

1184
Q

How long do you have to submit a travel claim?

A

Travelers are required to submit travel claims for local administrative review at their unit within three working days from the termination of the travel.

1185
Q

What pay grade requires supporting remarks, documenting the individual’s leadership potential, along with the commanding officer’s advancement recommendation?

A

E-6

1186
Q

If a member Self-Refers for Alcohol Abuse but did not receive an Alcohol Incident, can they have the screening letter removed from their PDR?

A

Unless there is an associated alcohol incident, the member may request removal of the screening letter and treatment plan from his or her Personnel Data Record after successfully completing the prescribed aftercare.

1187
Q

Does a screening by the Collateral Duty Alcohol Representative (CDAR) fulfill the requirements for an Alcohol Screening?

A

An evaluation by a Collateral Duty Alcohol Representative (CDAR) does not satisfy the screening requirement contained in this Manual.

1188
Q

What is included in the Formal Complaint Process for discrimination complaints?

A

Filing discrimination complaint.

Investigation of complaint.

Adjudication and other post-investigative processes.

1189
Q

If an under age member receives an Alcohol Incident, how many years must they wait to be eligible to remove it from their record?

A

Three Years

1190
Q

If a TEMPSEP is approved, can a member cancel it?

A

Members approved for TEMPSEP may request to cancel, prior to their separation date, their approved TEMPSEP agreement to remain on active duty or separate without TEMPSEP.

1191
Q

What is the Pre-Complaint process for discrimination complaints?

A

This involves the initiation of counseling where an aggrieved individual may obtain information about determining whether his/her issue may be resolved through means other than a formal complaint, including alternative dispute resolution options.

1192
Q

Unsuitability would best be described as what?

A

Members can be considered unsuitable for further service because of inaptitude, no adaptability, want or readiness of skill, clumsiness or inability to learn, personality disorders, apathy, defective attitudes, adjustment disorders, unsanitary habits, alcohol abuse, or financial irresponsibility.

1193
Q

What are the three stages of the Discrimination Complaint Process?

A

The Pre-Complaint process

The Alternative Dispute Resolution process

The Formal Complaint process

1194
Q

When is an Administrative Discharge Board required for drug or alcohol separations?

A

When the member has served a total of eight or more years.

1195
Q

If the Officer in Charge and competent medical authority order a member to undergo an alcohol treatment and they fail to complete the treatment, what will happen?

A

They are normally are processed for separation.

1196
Q

Can a member with three years of time in service be eligible for TEMPSEP?

A

Members with less than six years of continuous active duty service in the Coast Guard are ineligible. Service in another military service must not be creditable towards TEMPSEP eligibility.

1197
Q

Before processing a member for discharge for chemical dependency, what must the Officer in Charge offer?

A

Officers in Charge shall ensure that members diagnosed as chemically dependent by competent medical authority are offered rehabilitation treatment before discharge if they are amenable to the treatment.

1198
Q

You drop in expectantly on a Saturday afternoon and notice one of your non rates acting strangely. You believe him to be under the influence of something. Can you make a member submit to a urinalysis?

A

No, you need probable cause and a search authorization to single out a member for a urinalysis. Work through OPCON as only a Commanding Officer or Military Judge can grant a search authorization. There is no need for a search authorization if the urinalysis is random.

1199
Q

What are the two categories of sexual harassment?

A

Tangible Employment Action

Hostile Environment

1200
Q

What is the Alternative Dispute Resolution process for discrimination complaints?

A

At any point in the complaint process, an aggrieved person may opt for Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR), which is a prompt and informal alternative to the conventional complaint process.

1201
Q

Would purchasing alcohol for a minor constitute an Alcohol Incident?

A

Purchasing alcohol for use by minors is not an alcohol incident, but does represent a serious breach of discipline and subjects the member to civil or military (UCMJ) penalties.

1202
Q

When do you reduce a pregnant members work schedule to a 40 hour work week?

A

Week 28 and beyond.

1203
Q

When are romantic relationships unacceptable in the work place?

A

Members have a supervisor and subordinate relationship

Members are assigned to the same small shore unit (less than 60 members)

Members are assigned to the same cutter

The relationship is between chief petty officers (E-7/8/9) and junior enlisted personnel (E-4 and below)

The relationship is manifested in the work environment in a way which disrupts the effective conduct of daily business.

1204
Q

What manual can you find information of inappropriate relationships?

A

Discipline and Conduct

1205
Q

Is a member who is on body fat probation eligible for TEMPSEP?

A

Members on a current body fat probation are ineligible. Members may be on an exemption or abeyance.

1206
Q

What are some examples of prohibited off duty employment?

A

1) Distracts from unit readiness or poses a security risk of any kind.
2) By reason of the hours or nature of work interferes with or is not compatible with efficient performance of military duties.
3) May reasonably be expected to bring discredit on the service.
4) Is unethical in view of the possible exercise of influence attending the member’s military position.
5) Involves a conflict of interest, generally having a direct business relationship with the CG as a vendor, contractor, or subcontractor.

1207
Q

Can a first class petty officer be a marking official?

A

The marking official shall be an officer, civilian, chief petty officer, or first class petty officer. However, a first class petty officer me be designated as an executive petty officer. A marking official who is designated as an executive petty officer does not have to be one pay grade senior to the evaluee.

1208
Q

What things are considered to be an Unacceptable Romantic Relationship?

A

1) Members who have a supervisor and subordinate relationship.
2) Members assigned to the same small shore unit (less than 60 members active duty).
3) Members assigned to the same cutter.
4) The relationship is between Chief Petty Officers (E7/8/9) and junior personnel (E4 and below).
5) The relationship is manifested in the work environment in a way which disrupts the effective conduct of daily business.

1209
Q

What is a HUMS?

A

A Humanitarian Assignment is a special assignment authorized to alleviate a hardship so severe an emergency leave cannot fully resolve it.

1210
Q

Following receipt of a positive confirmed urinalysis result or any other evidence of drug abuse, what shall the Officer in Charge do?

A

Officers in Charge shall initiate an investigation into a possible drug incident.

1211
Q

If your unit is underway, can members of your crew take the test early?

A

Tests may never be given early. However, ships may administer within 10 days after the scheduled date if underway during the entire period.

1212
Q

How soon does a member have to notify their command of a pregnancy after confirmation?

A

As soon as possible, but no later than two weeks after diagnosis of pregnancy.

1213
Q

Following an Alcohol Incident, what shall the Officer in Charge do in regard to a member’s security clearance?

A

Following an alcohol incident, commanding officers shall review the member’s security clearance and access to classified material to determine whether the member’s clearance should be suspended.

1214
Q

Who is the approving authority for TEMPSEP requests?

A

Commander (CG PSC-OPM/EPM-1) must act as approving authority to approve or deny requests for TEMPSEP.

1215
Q

When a member becomes pregnant, how long do they have to notify their command?

A

Must notify command within 2 weeks of knowing of pregnancy.

1216
Q

Who is eligible for weight probation?

A

Members exceeding max allowable body fat by less than 8% or weight by 35 pounds, all others are ineligible for probation and will be processed for separation.

1217
Q

Is a member who is not tour complete eligible for TEMPSEP?

A

Members who are not tour complete at the time of separation are ineligible.

1218
Q

If an EEO/EO Formal Complaint is filed, how many days does the Coast Guard have to complete a formal investigation.

A

180 Days

1219
Q

What relationships or conduct, regardless of rank, grade, or position of the persons involved is prohibited?

A

Engaging in sexually intimate behavior aboard any Coast Guard vessel, or in any Coast Guard-controlled work place,

Romantic relationships outside of marriage between commissioned officers and enlisted personnel.

Personal and romantic relationships between instructors at training commands and students.

1220
Q

What is the transfer policy for two married enlisted members?

A

The assignment policy offers married active duty members the opportunity to collocate or reside jointly whenever possible.

1221
Q

How far are tattoos or brands allowed to go down the arm?

A

No tattoos or brands on the arms shall exceed below the wrist.

1222
Q

When must counseling for EER’s take place?

A

30 days from the period end date.

1223
Q

If the Officer in Charge and competent medical authority order a member to undergo an alcohol treatment and they refuse the treatment, what will happen?

A

They are normally are processed for separation.

1224
Q

When are unscheduled EER’s performed?

A

Transfer marks outside of 92 days

NJP

Advancement to E7

Change in Rate

Reduction in Rate

Performance

1225
Q

In regard to emergency leave, who is considered immediate family?

A

Immediate family means: father, mother, person standing in loco parentis, spouse, children, brother, sister, or only living relative. In loco parentis is defined as a person who stood in place of a parent for the Service member 24 hours a day for a period of at least 5 years before the Service member became 21 years old or entered military service.

1226
Q

What happens if a HUMS goes beyond six months?

A

In some cases, if the hardship continues after six months, Commander, (CGPC-epm) may authorize no-cost PCS orders for up to two years for humanitarian reasons.

1227
Q

When shall pregnant members be removed from sea duty?

A

20th week (3rd trimester)

1228
Q

Before being questioned in relation to a drug incident, what are members entitled to?

A

Members are entitled to be advised of their rights under Article 31, UCMJ. This applies whether or not disciplinary action under the UCMJ is contemplated.

1229
Q

If an EEO/EO Complaint is raised, how many days does the command have to attempt resolution?

A

15 Days

1230
Q

Can a male member be eligible for TEMPSEP under Care of a Newborn Child (CNC)?

A

If he is on an approved list for adoption with an adoption agency.

1231
Q

When are you required to enter reviewer comments on an EER in DA?

A

Comments are required for all ratings of 1, 2, 7, U, or N in the Review Rating Comments section under the Reviewers tab.

1232
Q

If your BM1 decides he’s tired of his responsibilities and wants to go to SK ‘A’ School, what must be done before he departs?

A

A petty officer first class, who requests assignment to a basic petty officer course and receives orders to it, shall be reduced to pay grade E-5 prior to departing present unit.

1233
Q

When a member receives an Alcohol Incident and gets an Alcohol Screening, how is it documented?

A

The results of this alcohol screening shall be recorded and acknowledged on an Administrative Remarks, Form CG-3307, entry or letter, as appropriate, in the member’s PDR.

1234
Q

When should commands not offer treatment for a member being processed for discharge with a preexisting condition?

A

Commands should not offer treatment to members with conditions that EPTE if said treatment will delay separation beyond 180 days of active Coast Guard service.

1235
Q

Is branding a design on your body authorized?

A

Yes, maximum 4” x 4” in size.

1236
Q

Is self referral to alcohol treatment considered an Alcohol Incident?

A

Self-referral to alcohol treatment, by itself, is not considered an alcohol incident.

1237
Q

Before retirement, involuntary separation, or Release from Active Duty (RELAD) into the Ready Reserves (selected drilling or IRR), every enlisted member, except those discharged or retired for physical or mental disability, shall be given a complete physical exam within how many months?

A

12 months.

1238
Q

How much leave can an OIC grant?

A

Earned leave, plus 30 days.

Military Assignments and Authorized Absences, COMDTINST M1000.8

1239
Q

Are members with an approved TEMPSEP required to affiliate with the reserves?

A

All members who TEMPSEP must affiliate with the Coast Guard Reserve.

1240
Q

If a member of yours has a two year old and requests a TEMPSEP under Care of a Newborn Child (CNC), is this authorized?

A

The child must be less than 1 year old at the time of separation.

1241
Q

When must EER’s be submitted?

A

21 days prior to the period end date.

1242
Q

If an EEO/EO Complaint is raised and the command does not reach resolution by 15 days, what will the EO counselor do and how long do they have to do it?

A

EO Counselor has 30 days to inquire, resolve, or issue a right to file (RTF) a formal complaint.

1243
Q

What are Article 31 warnings under the UCMJ?

A

Miranda/Tempia rights.

1244
Q

What is the criteria for a TEMPSEP in relation to an unrestricted report of sexual assault?

A

These members must meet the following additional criteria:

1) Have submitted a Victim Reporting Preference Statement, Form CG-6095, with the unrestricted reporting option selected, within two years of the requested separation date.
2) Commander (CG PSC-OPM/EPM-1) (with consultation from LSC-PSC) determine that preponderance of the evidence that a crime of sexual assault may have occurred.

1245
Q

During the Pre-Complaint process for discrimination complaints, how many days does the member have to initiate contact with the CRSP or CO/OIC?

A

Military members may initiate contact with a CRSP or the CO/OIC within the 45 days of the event.

1246
Q

After the a formal investigation is completed for a EEO/EO Formal Complaint, who issues Final Action and how long do they have to do it?

A

USCG/CRD issues Final Action within 60 days.

1247
Q

What is sexual harassment?

A

Sexual harassment is defined as unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature.

1248
Q

Can Sea Time be waived to go on a supplemental advancement list?

A

No, the date of the message to be placed on the supplemental list is the date all qualifications must be completed.

1249
Q

What is the minimum amount of time for a TEMPSEP?

A

The minimum amount of time for a TEMPSEP is six months. Requests for a period of less than 6 months shall be reviewed on a case by case basis and will be subject to the needs of the service.

1250
Q

What is a Social Climate Incident?

A

An action or incident committed by a member or members of the local community against a Coast Guard military member or a dependent of a military member that is harassing, or perceived as discriminatory in nature.

1251
Q

Following a Self-Referral to Alcohol Treatment and a relapse occurs during the aftercare phase of their treatment plan, what happens if they relapse a second time?

A

Should the self-referred member fail to complete the second aftercare plan they will be processed for separation.

1252
Q

What things are considered to be a prohibited relationship?

A

1) Engaging in sexual intimate behavior aboard any CG vessel, or in a CG controlled workspace.
2) Romantic relationships outside of marriage between commissioned officers and enlisted personnel.
3) Personal and romantic relationships between instructors at training commands and students.

1253
Q

What days are performing extra duties prohibited?

A

No extra duties are to be performed on the member’s Sabbath day.

1254
Q

What is NJP used for?

A

Minor offenses/ Maintenance of Discipline

1255
Q

What are the four dispositions a PIO can recommend?

A

1) Dismissal
2) NJP
3) Court-Martial
4) Other Administrative Action

1256
Q

What can be done if the OIC does not have adequate authority to award the appropriate punishment when issuing NJP?

A

Forwarding a matter to the next superior officer in the chain of command for disposition may also be appropriate when the appropriate punishment may be beyond the limits of the commanding officer’s NJP authority.

1257
Q

If you administer NJP and award 14 days extra duty/ 14 days restriction on your SK1, and they work Monday through Friday - can they take the weekends off and resume the following Monday?

A

Once commenced, restriction runs continuously and cannot be interrupted, except during the service of a punishment of confinement or restriction adjudged by a court-martial, an appeal of the NJP, or emergency leave.

1258
Q

What does Article 15 of the UCMJ do?

A

Provides OINC’s with the authority to impose NJP without resort to the judicial forum of Courts Martial.

1259
Q

Can NJP be performed when the OIC is not present?

A

Any officer who succeeds to command in the absence of the assigned commanding officer because of death, incapacitation, illness, Temporary Additional Duty (TAD), relief for cause or leave has the power of the assigned commanding officer to impose punishment.

1260
Q

What are your references for the UCMJ/ Booking process?

A

Military Justice Manual

Manual for Courts Martial

1261
Q

Who do NJP appeals go to?

A

Appeals shall be submitted through the commanding officer who imposed the NJP and any superiors in his/her chain of command to the “superior authority” designated by this section to act upon that appeal.

1262
Q

What is the purpose of NJP?

A

Maintenance of Discipline - Each commanding officer is responsible for the maintenance of discipline within his or her command.

1263
Q

What kind of offenses can NJP be imposed for?

A

NJP may be imposed for minor offenses made punishable by the UCMJ as defined in Part IV, MCM.

1264
Q

What would you consider a “minor offense” when administering NJP?

A

Ordinarily, an offense should be considered minor if the maximum sentence that could be awarded at a general court-martial does not include a dishonorable discharge or confinement for more than 1 year.

1265
Q

What supplements Article 15 of the UCMJ and provides procedural guidance?

A

Part V, Manual for Courts-Martial [MCM], supplements Article 15, UCMJ, and provides procedural guidance.

1266
Q

Can NJP be imposed for civil offences?

A

You must receive Commandant Authorization prior to imposing NJP for civil offences pending trial or tried by state court. You cannot for cases prosecuted in Federal Court.

1267
Q

Can NJP be imposed for an offense prosecuted in the United States federal court?

A

As a matter of Coast Guard policy, authorization from the Judge Advocate General (CG-094) must be obtained before NJP may be imposed for an offense pending trial or tried by a state or foreign criminal court.

1268
Q

Can you award punishment under NJP while underway and defer it until the ship returns to port?

A

A OIC imposing punishment may defer punishment at the Time of NJP. The execution of restriction or restriction with extra duties may be delayed until arrival of the vessel in port.

1269
Q

Can you award NJP to a Reservist at your unit?

A

A member of the Reserve is subject to the UCMJ while performing Inactive Duty for Training [IDT], Active Duty for Training [ADT], or active duty.

1270
Q

If a court-martial occurs and they are found not guilty, can you impose NJP?

A

NJP may not be imposed for an offense previously tried by court-martial and resulting in a finding of guilty or not guilty.

1271
Q

Would your XPO have authority to impose NJP?

A

Yes, When acting they assume the same authority as the regularly assigned OIC.

1272
Q

How long can a punishment be suspended?

A

A suspension must be for a definite period, not to exceed six months, and this period shall be specified when the punishment is suspended.

1273
Q

If you are imposing NJP on a member, are you required to provide copies of the PIO’s report and supporting materials?

A

The commanding officer may, though he or she is not required to, also allow the member to copy all or parts of the PIO’s report and other supporting materials.

1274
Q

What is the basis to appeal NJP?

A

A member punished under Article 15, UCMJ, may appeal if he or she considers the punishment imposed “unjust” or “disproportionate” to the acts of misconduct for which punished.

1275
Q

When do you issue Article 31 rights?

A

Before you question anyone on what you believe may lead to a member being charged under UCMJ.

1276
Q

What things should you consider when choosing the appropriate punishment for NJP?

A

1) Seriousness of the offense;
2) Circumstances surrounding the offense;
3) Member’s prior performance and potential;
4) Potential rehabilitative effect of punishment on the particular member;
5) Mitigating and extenuating circumstances;
6) Effect of offense upon the good order and discipline within the command;
7) Beneficial effect of immediate punishment;
8) Deterrent effect of punishment on potential offenders;
9) Recommendations from any subordinate commanders; and
10) Potential adverse administrative consequences (e.g., loss of eligibility for good conduct award; eligibility for reenlistment or promotion; show cause board; recoupment of selective reenlistment bonus; administrative discharge).

1277
Q

What is the maximum punishment that can be imposed by an OIC?

A

14 Days Restriction

14 Days Extra Duty

3 Days Pay

1278
Q

One day while sitting at your desk the local chief of police shows up with an arrest warrant for a member of your crew; what do you do?

A

This is covered under the Military Justice Manual. If a warrant is presented and generated by the state your unit is located you should turn the member over.

1279
Q

What is suspension of punishment?

A

To suspend a punishment means to hold it in abeyance, or not execute it, for a specified period, with remission at the end of that period.

1280
Q

Does a CG-4910 have to be drafted to begin preliminary inquiries?

A

A Report of Offense and Disposition, CG-4910 is not required to initiate a preliminary inquiry

1281
Q

What are your maximum NJP punishments as an OIC?

A

14 Days extra duty;

14 Days restriction;

3 Days forfeiture of pay.

1282
Q

Who can generate a CG-4910?

A

Any member of the armed forces who is aware of an offense may submit a Report of Offense and Disposition, CG-4910.

1283
Q

What is “burden of proof?”

A

The burden of proof required in order to award punishment at NJP is a preponderance of evidence, the commanding officer must determine it is “more likely than not” that the member committed an offense(s) defined by the UCMJ

1284
Q

What are some considerations to make if you decide to get a member out of police custody?

A

The nature of the alleged offense(s);

The physical and mental condition of the accused;

The impact of the member’s presence on the unit; and

The unit’s ability to house the individual

1285
Q

What is a CG-4910?

A

Report of Offense and Disposition

1286
Q

What is EMI?

A

EMI is defined as instruction in a phase of military duty in which an individual is deficient.

1287
Q

Can you award NJP to a TAD person at your unit?

A

NJP may be imposed upon TAD personnel by the commanding officer of the member’s permanent unit or by the commanding officer of the unit to which the member is temporarily assigned.

1288
Q

When is suspension of punishment appropriate?

A

Suspension of punishment may be especially appropriate when it is the member’s first offense or where there are extenuating or mitigating circumstances.

1289
Q

If you are imposing NJP on a member, are you required to let them examine documents and other evidence?

A

Prior to imposition of NJP, the member must be allowed to examine documents and other evidence that the NJP authority will examine and consider in determining whether to impose NJP.

1290
Q

After punishment has been awarded, can you add to the amount of punishment?

A

After NJP is imposed, the amount of punishment may not be increased on appeal or for any other reason.

1291
Q

What is the benefit of suspending a punishment?

A

Suspension provides the member with an additional incentive for proper behavior.

1292
Q

Is a mast representative required to perform NJP?

A

A mast representative shall be appointed to assist the member in preparing for and participating in the mast proceedings, unless the member declines appointment of a mast representative.

1293
Q

Can a reservist be retained on ADT or IDT for purposes of NJP?

A

A reservist may not be retained on IDT or ADT solely for the purpose of maintaining NJP authority.

1294
Q

What are the mandatory reporting items to CGIS?

A

Felony level UCMJ Violations

Violations of Federal Criminal Law

Victim Status

Lost Stolen misappropriated government property

Death of covered person

Workplace violence and threatening behavior

Personally identifiable information

Cyber Crime

Child Porn

Child Abuse, Spouse Abuse

TWIC criminal investigation and enforcement actions

Security violations

Desertion or disappearance of a CG member on AD

Protective Service operation

Fraud, waste and abuse

Information of significant interest – criminal investigation

Prisoner transport

1295
Q

Where do you find a mast script?

A

Military Justice Manual Enclosure (1)

1296
Q

If extra duties are imposed following a mast, when are they done?

A

Extra duties are performed after regular working hours.

1297
Q

You drop in to your station unexpectedly on a saturday and notice one of your petty officers acting strangely and believe they may be under the influence of something. Can you make the member submit to a urinalysis drug test?

A

No, you need probable cause and a search authorization to single out a member for urinalysis;

Ask the member to submit to a Consent Search;

Work through OPCON as only a CO or military judge can grant a search authorization;

No need for search authorization if urinalysis is random.

1298
Q

What is the maximum amount of EMI per day?

A

2 Hours

1299
Q

What are the three levels of Court Martial?

A

Summary, Special, and General.

1300
Q

Can a non-rate serve as a mast representative?

A

The representative should be an officer or petty officer and must, if practicable, be attached to the unit of the commanding officer conducting the mast.

1301
Q

An extra duties be imposed on an E7?

A

Extra duties may only be imposed on members of the grade of E-6 and below.

1302
Q

Can you impose NJP on TAD personnel?

A

NJP may be imposed upon TAD personnel by the commanding officer of the member’s permanent unit or by the commanding officer of the unit to which the member is temporarily assigned.

1303
Q

Does the person generating a CG-4910 have to have witnessed the alleged act?

A

The person submitting the Report of Offense and Disposition, CG-4910 may rely upon information received from other sources and does not have to have personally witnessed the alleged act of misconduct.

1304
Q

What gives the OIC authority to impose NJP?

A

Article 15, Uniform Code of Military Justice [UCMJ], provides commanding officers with the authority to impose NJP without resort to the judicial forum of a courts-martial.

1305
Q

When should the OIC consider NJP?

A

When a minor offense has been committed and lesser administrative measures are considered insufficient to meet the needs of good order and discipline, a commanding officer should consider invoking his or her authority under Article 15, UCMJ, to impose NJP.

1306
Q

What things can an OIC conduct an Admin Inspection at anytime for?

A

Safety and Security

Operational Readiness

Health and Welfare

1307
Q

If a member appeals punishment, do you have to wait for the appeal authority to approve/deny the request before carrying out punishment?

A

A member who appeals his or her NJP is required to serve any punishment while appeal is pending. If action by the appeal authority is not taken within 5 calendar days after submission, however, upon the member’s request, any un-served punishment involving restraint or extra duties shall be deferred until action on the appeal is taken.

1308
Q

You are going to impose NJP on one of your members and they tell you that their attorney will be present to represent them. Is this ok?

A

A mast is not an adversarial proceeding. It is different from courts-martial; a member has no right to be represented by an attorney at mast. It is possible, however, that the member may obtain the services of an attorney or any other person, at no expense to the government, to appear as his or her spokesperson

1309
Q

Can your XPO amend a CG-4910?

A

The executive officer may amend the Report of Offense and Disposition, CG-4910 as necessary to ensure the Details of Offenses are supported by evidence. A copy of any amended Report of Offense and Disposition, CG-4910 shall be provided to the member.

1310
Q

How long does a member have to appeal NJP?

A

The appeal must be submitted in writing within 5 calendar days of the imposition of the punishment, or the right to appeal shall be waived in the absence of good cause shown.

1311
Q

What is the maximum amount of extra duty that can be performed in one day?

A

The number of hours to be served daily, not to exceed two hours daily.

1312
Q

What are Article 31 (b) rights for?

A

Under Article 31(b), UCMJ a military member suspected of an offense may not be questioned unless he or she is informed of the nature of the offense, advised that he or she does not have to make a statement, and informed that any statement made may be used as evidence.

1313
Q

What happens if you suspend a punishment and the member transfers?

A

When a mast punishment is suspended for a specified period and the member is transferred before the end of the period, the punishment is automatically remitted when the member is transferred.

1314
Q

What are some rights you cannot administratively withhold from a member?

A

Medical

Dental

Chaplain

Pay

Leave

Liberty

1315
Q

What is Burden of Proof?

A

The burden of proof required in order to award punishment at NJP is a preponderance of evidence. This standard means that before NJP may be awarded, the commanding officer must determine it is “more likely than not” that the member committed an offense(s) defined by the UCMJ.

1316
Q

What are some privileges you can administratively withhold from a member?

A

Special Liberty

Base or Ship Movies

MWR Events

On Base Driving

Commissary

Duty Swaps

Base Clubs

Civilian Clothes on Unit

On base Parking

1317
Q

How many days does member who received NJP have to appeal?

A

5 Calendar Days

1318
Q

If you are conducting a mast and find that the offenses are too serious to be disposed of through NJP, what can you do?

A

If the commanding officer determines that the alleged offense is too serious to be disposed of through NJP, he or she should not announce a finding or impose NJP. The commanding officer should inform the member that he or she intends to consider referring the matter for trial by court-martial or referring the matter to his or her superior commander, and that the member will be informed when a decision is made.

1319
Q

Does the day of Sabbath count toward a day of completed extra duty?

A

The member will receive credit for performing extra duty on the Sabbath day if it falls within the prescribed period of extra duty

1320
Q

Can you suspend a punishment when imposing NJP?

A

When imposing NJP, the commanding officer should also consider whether to suspend all or part of the punishment imposed.

1321
Q

What is EMI and what is its purpose?

A

Extra Military Instruction, phase of military duty in which an individual is deficient, directed towards the correction of that deficiency. Not to be substituted for NJP.

1322
Q

Three months after your FS1 retires, you find that they committed an offense that warrants NJP. Can they be recalled for you to impose NJP?

A

A retiree may not be recalled to active duty solely for the imposition of NJP.

1323
Q

What is in a Mast Package?

A

4910

Rights advice Form

PIO Report and all report enclosures

1324
Q

What is Unlawful Command Influence (UCI)?

A

UCI occurs when senior personnel knowingly or unknowingly influence court members, witnesses, or others participating in military justice cases to the detriment of the accused.

1325
Q

What items are grouped into Class D MISHAP’s?

A

A work-related injury or illness requires more than simple first aid treatment but does not meet the criteria of a Class C mishap.

Non-aviation property damage of $5,000 or more but less than $50,000.

Near misses (High Potential for Loss).

1326
Q

What items are grouped into Class A MISHAP’s?

A

An injury or occupational illness results in a fatality or permanent total disability.

The cost of reportable property damage is $2,000,000 or greater.

A Coast Guard aircraft, including an Unmanned Aerial System (UAS) or cutter is missing, abandoned, recovery is impossible or impractical, or is beyond economical repair.

A Coast Guard boat has reportable property value of $100,000 or more and is missing or abandoned, for which recovery is impossible or impractical, or is beyond economical repair.

Any Coast Guard personnel are missing or missing in action.

1327
Q

What kind of MISHAP would be required if a member received a static shock during helicopter hoisting operations?

A

An incident where boat crew members or other aircrew members receive a static shock during hoisting operations is considered a reportable Class D mishap.

1328
Q

What is a HIPO MISHAP?

A

High Potential for loss (HIPO). HIPO events include near misses and have Coast Guard-wide implications. HIPO incidents shall be reported, even with minimal or no injury, illness, or damage. They are usually associated with Class C or D mishaps since they have a potential to be a more severe mishap.

1329
Q

What is the preliminary database entry requirement for a Class C or D HIPO MISHAP?

A

72 Hours

1330
Q

When is the final MISHAP report submission due for a Class C MISHAP?

A

14 Days

1331
Q

What items are grouped into Class C MISHAP’s?

A

An injury or occupational illness that requires treatment by a medical professional and results in, for any time beyond the day or shift in which it occurred:

(a) Loss of time from work;
(b) Placement on a limited duty or restricted duty status;
(c) Removal from flight status, and/or;
(d) Transfer of any individual(s) to a different job.

The resulting cost of reportable property damage, or damage to cutters and aircraft (including UAS), is $50,000 or more, but less than $500,000.

Coast Guard boats that incur repairable damage of $50,000 or more, but less than $100,000.

1332
Q

What is a MISHAP?

A

An unplanned, unexpected, or undesirable event or series of events resulting in death, injury, occupational illness, or damage to or loss of materiel.

1333
Q

When is the final MISHAP report submission due for a Class D MISHAP?

A

21 Days

1334
Q

What items are grouped into Class B MISHAP’s?

A

Any injury or occupational illness results in permanent partial disability.

The resulting cost of reportable property damage, or damage to cutters and aircraft (including UAS), is $500,000 or more, but less than $2,000,000.

Three or more personnel are hospitalized inpatient.

A Coast Guard boat has repairable damage of $100,000 or more.

1335
Q

What is the preliminary database entry requirement for a Class A or B MISHAP?

A

12 Hours

1336
Q

Who puts out BDFA?

A

CG-83 Office of Resource Management

1337
Q

What account or operating funds does the galley fall under?

A

AFC-82

1338
Q

What is BDFA?

A

Basic Daily Food Allowance; amount of money required to provide a daily ration.

1339
Q

What inventory system is used onboard small cutters?

A

Purchase vs. Allowance

1340
Q

Who must you contact when disestablishing a Galley?

A

FSAT and FINCEN. SPO if on an afloat unit.

1341
Q

What are the two types of dining facility inventories and how are they different?

A

Purchase vs. Allowance: Purchases support the menu.

Perpetual Inventory: Menu is driven by inventory.

1342
Q

Your CGDF has exceeded its allowable deficit. What are you required to do?

A

OIC must send a written memo to HQ explaining the cause and how you are going to correct it. Notify FSAT.

1343
Q

Is your FS allowed to purchase napkins, foil, and paper plates with their credit card?

A

No, These items need to be purchased with unit operating funds

1344
Q

What does FSAT do?

A

Provide unit assessments

Provide on the job training for FS’s

Provide assistance to FS and command in administering a dining facility

1345
Q

How do you manage a coffee mess ashore?

A

If used, must be operated separately by non FS personnel, members cannot be charged meals to cover coffee mess.

1346
Q

Who inspects the unit’s galley and how often?

A

XPO, weekly

1347
Q

Can you purchase bottled water for your galley?

A

Yes, if on the menu, max 1 liter bottles.

1348
Q

What is FSAT?

A

Food Service Assistance and Training Team

1349
Q

How can you tell if your FS is doing a good job?

A

Funds are being managed properly.

Quality of meals is acceptable.

Crew has minimal complaints.

1350
Q

What is a temporary galley disestablishment and how do you do it?

A

For maintenance (dry-dock/ dockside):

Email FSAT

Note on CGDFOS

Switch crew to BAS

1351
Q

Can leftovers be maintained in your galley?

A

Leftovers- May be retained 24 hours chilled or for 5 hours if maintained Hot.

1352
Q

What is a permanent galley disestablishment and how do you do it?

A

For a permanent closure:

Notify CG-1111 via letter through the chain of command with copies to the FINCEN and FSAT.

Note the reason for closure, disposition of stores, and affect on the crew.

1353
Q

What is BDFA/how often is it updated?

A

Basic Daily Food Allowance.

10 Days prior to the start of each calendar quarter.

1354
Q

When is the dining facility CG-2576 CGDFOS report due?

A

NLT 10th of each month.

1355
Q

What are some prohibited galley purchases?

A

Energy Drinks

Meal Supplements

Pre-Made Meals (no Boston Market meals)

1356
Q

What forms do you have to sign in the galley’s monthly report?

A

CGDFOS (CG-2576)

Provisional Inventory Report (CG-4261)

Supply Fund Report

DHS 1501 (for each purchase card)

Menu

Procurement Request (CG-4200)

1357
Q

What are the two types of galley disestablishments?

A

Temporary and Permanent

1358
Q

What are you looking for in the galley’s monthly report?

A

That the amount of money being spent is within 10% of the rations claimed.

That all purchases are from authorized vendors.

1359
Q

What is your reference for galley issues?

A

Food Service Manual COMDTINST M4061.5 (series)

1360
Q

What do you do if your reefer fails?

A

Try to transfer stores to another unit until it is fixed.

If you cannot salvage food: Donate it to a non-profit group, survey lost items, note on CGDFOS.

1361
Q

What temperatures should your food be kept at?

A

41F or below

140F or above

Frozen Foods 0F or below

1362
Q

How do you manage a coffee mess afloat?

A

Can be run out of galley funds as long as coffee is on the menu, only allowed at meal times.

1363
Q

How many galley credit cards are required?

A

At least two

1364
Q

How much deficit or surplus can you carry over on the dining facility report?

A

10%

1365
Q

How is your galley funded?

A

SIK (daily rations)

1366
Q

How often is the galley audited and by who?

A

Annually, By a CPO or above (outside of the galley chain of command).

1367
Q

Who is required to pass the DWO initial or renewal prior to executing orders?

A

Prospective cutter, station, or ANT Commanding Officers, Officers-in-Charge, Executive Officers and Executive Petty Officers shall pass the appropriate (Initial or Renewal) DWO Examination prior to executing orders.

1368
Q

If you are required to pass the DWO initial or renewal prior to executing orders and do not pass, what will happen?

A

Failure to pass the examination within two attempts following receipt of orders will result in the cancellation of those orders and documentation, at a minimum, via an administrative remarks entry.

1369
Q

Rule 24 - What will a towing vessel less than 50 meters in length with a tow exceeding 200 meters exhibit?

A

1) Side light;
2) Stern light;
3) Towing light;
4) Three masthead lights in a vertical line.

1370
Q

Rule 19 - When altering course in restricted visibility, so far as possible, what actions shall be avoided?

A

1) An alteration of course to port for a vessel forward of the beam, other than for a vessel being overtaken;
2) An alteration of course towards a vessel abeam or abaft the beam.

1371
Q

What is the short name for Rule 5?

A

Look Out

1372
Q

Rule 24 - When you you display a diamond day shape and where would you put it?

A

When the length of a tow exceeds 200 meters a diamond shape shall be exhibited where it can best be seen.

1373
Q

What is the short name for Rule 9?

A

Narrow Channels

1374
Q

Rule 14 - When shall a head on situation be deemed to exist?

A

Such a situation shall be deemed to exist when a vessel sees the other ahead or nearly ahead and by night she could see the masthead lights of the other in a line or nearly in a line and/ or both sidelights and by day she observes the corresponding aspect of the other vessel.

1375
Q

What is the danger area for a vessel engaged in minesweeping?

A

1,000 Meters

1376
Q

Rule 1 - What may a submarine display?

A

An intermittent flashing amber (yellow) beacon with a sequence of operation of one flash per second for three (3) seconds followed by a three (3) second off period.

1377
Q

Rule 14 Inland - What does this rule state?

A

Unless otherwise agreed, when two power driven vessels are meeting on reciprocal or nearly reciprocal courses so as to involve risk of collision each shall alter her course to starboard so that each shall pass on the port side of the other.

1378
Q

Rule 9 Inland - What does this rule state about vessels proceeding upbound against the current?

A

The vessel proceeding upbound against the current shall hold as necessary to permit safe passing.

1379
Q

Rule 14 - What shall you do if you are unsure if you are in a head on situation with a another vessel?

A

When a vessel is in any doubt as to whether such a situation exists she shall assume that it does exist and act accordingly.

1380
Q

Rule 9 - What does this rule state about crossing a narrow channel or fairway?

A

A vessel shall not cross a narrow channel or fairway if such crossing impedes the passage of a vessel which can only safely navigate only within such a channel or fairway.

1381
Q

If you are required to pass the DWO initial or renewal prior to executing orders, how long is your test good for?

A

For prospective cutter, station, or ANT command cadre and designated cutter operations personnel, the October-December time frame is within the one-year requirement of the typical summer PCS season.

1382
Q

Rule 24 Inland - What shall a vessel being towed alongside exhibit?

A

A vessel being towed alongside shall exhibit a sternlight and at the forward end, sidelights and a special flashing light.

1383
Q

What is the short name for Annex I?

A

Positioning and Technical Details of Lights and Shapes

1384
Q

What is the short name for Annex II?

A

Additional Signals for Fishing Vessels Fishing in Close Proximity

1385
Q

Rule 6 - What are the two types of vessels that are factored into this rule?

A

All vessels and vessels equipped with radar.

1386
Q

Rule 24 - When a pushing vessel and vessel being pushed ahead are rigidly connected in a composite unit, what shall the be regarded as?

A

A regular power driven vessel of its size and class.

1387
Q

Rule 9 International - What does this rule state?

A

A vessel proceeding along the course of a narrow channel or fairway shall keep as near to the outer limit of the channel or fairway which lies on her starboard side as is safe and practicable.

1388
Q

Rule 17 - What shall a vessel in a crossing situation avoid doing to prevent collision?

A

A power driven vessel which takes action in a crossing situation with another power driven vessel shall, if the circumstances of the case admit, not alter course to port for a vessel on her own port side.

1389
Q

Rule 9 - What does this rule state about vessels engaged in fishing?

A

A vessel engaged in fishing shall not shall not impede the passage of any other vessel navigating within a narrow channel or fairway.

1390
Q

Rule 15 - What does this rule state?

A

When two power driven vessels are crossing so as to involve risk of collision, the vessel which has the other on her own starboard side shall keep out of the way and shall, if the circumstances of the case admit, avoid crossing ahead of the the other vessel.

1391
Q

Rule 18 - What shall a vessel engaged in fishing keep out of the way of?

A

1) A vessel not under command;

2) A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver.

1392
Q

As there an alternative to taking the Coast Guard DWO examination?

A

The Rules of the Road examination module for International + Inland, Module Number Q100 is the only authorized substitute for the DWINTO.

1393
Q

Rule 3 - What is a Vessel Constrained by Her Draft?

A

A power driven vessel which, because of her draft in relation to the available depth and width of navigable water is severely restricted in her ability to deviate from the course she is following.

1394
Q

Rule 8 - What does this rule state?

A

Any action taken to avoid collision shall, if the circumstances of the case admit, be positive, made in ample time, and with due regard to the observance of good seamanship.

1395
Q

Rule 17 - What does this rule state?

A

Where one of two vessels is to keep out of the way the other shall keep her course and speed.

1396
Q

Rule 13 - What does this rule state?

A

Any vessel overtaking any other shall keep out of the way of the vessel being overtaken.

1397
Q

Rule 12 - When two sailing vessels have wind on the same side, who has the right of way?

A

When both have the wind on the same side, the vessel which is to the windward shall keep out of the way of the vessel which is to leeward.

1398
Q

Rule 24 - What shall a vessel being towed exhibit?

A

Side lights and a stern light.

1399
Q

Rule 23 - What shall an air cushion vessel exhibit when operating in non-displacement mode?

A

An all round flashing yellow light (120 fpm).

1400
Q

Does a member with a Merchant Mariner Credential have to take the DWO examination?

A

Members who possess a valid Merchant Mariner Credential are not waived from the requirements of this Instruction. Members are required to take the Initial DWO Examination (DWINTO) if they do not meet the requirements of a renewal examination.

1401
Q

Rule 14 Inland - What does this rule state about proceeding down bound with a following current?

A

A power driven vessel operating on the Great Lakes, Western Rivers, or waters specified by the Secretary, and proceeding down bound with a following current shall have the right of way over an up bound vessel, shall propose the manner and place of passage, and shall initiate maneuvering signals as appropriate.

1402
Q

If a member takes the DWO renewal exam and does not pass, does that decertify them?

A

An examination failure does not necessarily require a decertification of an OOD or coxswain qualification unless the Commanding Officer/Officer-in-Charge (CO/OIC) has lost faith in the member’s overall ability.

1403
Q

What should happen if a billeted underway OOD cannot pass the DWO after six months of reporting?

A

If the member fails to pass the examination within six months after reporting, that fact shall be documented, at a minimum, via an administrative remarks entry, and the member will normally be transferred during the next assignment season.

1404
Q

What are the two versions of the DWO examination?

A

Initial and the renewal.

1405
Q

Rule 7 - What does this rule state?

A

Every vessel shall use all available means appropriate to the prevailing circumstances and conditions to determine if risk of collision exists. If there is any doubt such risk shall be deemed to exist.

1406
Q

Can a BM that is not current on their DWO examination be eligible for advancement?

A

BMs shall be current in the appropriate (Initial or Renewal) DWO Examination for advancement. BMs that have not passed the DWO examination are not eligible to advance, or be placed on the supplemental or striker eligibility lists.

1407
Q

Rule 6 - What does this rule state?

A

Every vessel shall at all times proceed at a safe speed so that she can take proper and effective action to avoid collision and be stopped within a distance appropriate to the prevailing circumstances and conditions.

1408
Q

Rule 9 Inland - What does this rule state?

A

A power driven vessel operating in narrow channels or fairways on the Great Lakes, Western Rivers, or waters specified by the Secretary, and proceeding down bound with a following current shall have the right of way over an up bound vessel, shall propose the manner and place of passage, and shall initiate maneuvering signals as appropriate.

1409
Q

Rule 18 - What other rules are considered when factoring responsibilities between vessels?

A

1) Rule 9 - Narrow Channels
2) Rule 10 - Traffic Separation Schemes
3) Rule 13 - Overtaking

1410
Q

Rule 10 - How shall vessels cross a traffic separation scheme?

A

As vessels shall, so far as practicable, avoid crossing traffic lanes but if obliged to do so shall cross on a heading as nearly as practicable at right angles to the general direction of traffic flow.

1411
Q

Rule 15 Inland - What does this rule state about crossing a river?

A

On the Great Lakes, Western Rivers, or water specified by the Secretary, a power driven vessel crossing a river shall keep out of the way of a power driven vessel ascending or descending the river.

1412
Q

Who is required to take the closed book DWO examination?

A

DWINTO is required for members who have not previously passed the DWO Examination or have exceeded a period of five years since the date of their last successful examination.

1413
Q

What is the short name for Rule 12?

A

Sailing Vessels

1414
Q

Rule 8 - What does this rule state about altering courses or speeds?

A

Any alteration of course and/ or speed to avoid collision shall, if the circumstances of the case admit, be large enough to be readily apparent to another vessel observing visually or by radar; a succession of small alterations of course and/ or speed should be avoided.

1415
Q

What is the short name for Rule 18?

A

Responsibilities Between Vessels

1416
Q

What is the short name for Rule 17?

A

Action by Stand-On Vessel

1417
Q

Rule 14 - What are the elements of a head on situation?

A

1) Two power driven vessels;
2) Within sight of one another;
3) Meeting on a reciprocal or nearly reciprocal course;
4) So as to involve risk of collision.

1418
Q

What is the short name for Rule 37?

A

Distress Signals

1419
Q

Rule 3 - What is a Vessel Restricted in Her Ability to Maneuver?

A

A vessel which from the nature of her work is restricted in her ability to maneuver as required by these rules and is therefore unable to keep out of the way of another vessel.

1420
Q

What is the short name for Annex V?

A

Pilot Rules

1421
Q

Rule 12 - When two sailing vessels have wind on a different side, who has the right of way?

A

The vessel which has the wind on the port side shall keep out of the way of the other.

1422
Q

Rule 13 - When is a vessel deemed to be overtaking?

A

A vessel shall be deemed to be overtaking when coming up with another vessel from a direction more than 22.5 degrees abaft her beam.

1423
Q

Rule 19 - What does this rule state about every vessel in regard to safe speed?

A

Every vessel proceed at a safe speed adapted to the prevailing circumstances or conditions of restricted visibility.

1424
Q

What is the short name for Annex III?

A

Technical Details of Sound Signal Appliances

1425
Q

Rule 18 - What shall a power driven vessel keep out of the way of?

A

1) A vessel not under command;
2) A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver;
3) A vessel engaged in fishing.

1426
Q

What is the short name for Rule 13?

A

Overtaking

1427
Q

Rule 19 - What does this rule state about power driven vessels?

A

A power driven vessel shall have her engines ready for immediate maneuver.

1428
Q

What is the short name for Rule 11?

A

Application

1429
Q

What is the short name for Rule 8?

A

Action to Avoid Collision

1430
Q

What is the short name for Rule 15?

A

Crossing Situation

1431
Q

What is the short name for Rule 14?

A

Head-On Situation

1432
Q

Rule 7 - What does this rule state about assumptions?

A

Assumptions shall not be made on the basis of scanty information, especially scanty radar information.

1433
Q

Rule 19 - When does this rule apply?

A

This rule applies to vessels not in sight of one another when navigating in or near an area of restricted visibility.

1434
Q

What is the short name for Rule 10?

A

Traffic Separation Schemes/ Vessel Traffic Services

1435
Q

Rule 6 - What are the six factors for vessels equipped with radar to take into account in regard to safe speed?

A

1) Capability/ limitations of the radar.
2) Constraints imposed by the scale used.
3) Effect of interference on radar detection.
4) Possibility of vessels/ objects not detected.
5) Number/ location of moving vessels.
6) The more exact assessment of visability.

1436
Q

What is the short name for Annex IV?

A

Distress Signals

1437
Q

Rule 14 International - What does this rule state?

A

When two power driven vessels are meeting on reciprocal or nearly reciprocal courses so as to involve risk of collision each shall alter her course to starboard so that each shall pass on the port side of the other.

1438
Q

What is the short name for Rule 6?

A

Safe Speed

1439
Q

What is the short name for Rule 19?

A

Conduct of Vessels in Restricted Visibility

1440
Q

What is the short name for Rule 7?

A

Risk of Collision

1441
Q

Rule 17 - When shall the stand on vessel take action to avoid collision?

A

When, from any cause, the vessel required to keep her course and speed finds herself so close that collision cannot be avoided by the action of the give way vessel alone, she shall take such action as will best aid to avoid collision.

1442
Q

What is the short name for Rule 16?

A

Action by Give-Way Vessel

1443
Q

Rule 10 - How should vessels join or leave traffic separation schemes?

A

Normally join or leave a traffic lane at the termination of the lane, but when joining or leaving from either side shall do so at as small an angle to the general direction of traffic flow as practicable.

1444
Q

Rule 24 Inland - What shall a power driven vessel pushing ahead or towing alongside exhibit?

A

1) Sidelights;
2) Two towing lights in a vertical line;
3) Two masthead lights in a vertical line.

1445
Q

Rule 24 International - What shall a power driven vessel pushing ahead or towing alongside exhibit?

A

1) Sidelights;
2) Stern light;
3) Two masthead lights in a vertical line.

1446
Q

Rule 19 - Except where it has been determined that risk of collision does not exist, every vessel which hears apparently forward of her beam the the fog signal of another vessel, or which cannot avoid a close quarters situation with another vessel forward of her beam, shall do what?

A

Shall reduce her speed to the minimum at which she can be kept on her course. She shall if necessary take all her way off and in any event navigate with extreme caution until danger of collision is over.

1447
Q

Rule 19 - If a close quarters situation is developing or risk of collision exists, what shall be done?

A

She shall take avoiding action in ample time provided.

1448
Q

Rule 15 - What are the elements of a crossing situation?

A

1) Two power driven vessels;
2) Within sight of one another;
3) Are crossing;
4) So as to involve risk of collision.

1449
Q

Rule 18 - What shall a sailing vessel keep out of the way of?

A

1) A vessel not under command;
2) A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver;
3) A vessel engaged in fishing.

1450
Q

Rule 13 - Can an overtaking situation turn into a crossing situation?

A

Any subsequent alteration of the bearing between the two vessels shall not make the overtaking vessel a crossing vessel within the meaning of these rules or relieve her of her duty of keeping clear of the overtaken vessel until she is finally past and clear.

1451
Q

Rule 16 - What does this rule state?

A

Every vessel which is directed to keep out of the way of another vessel shall, so far as possible, take early and substantial action to keep well clear.

1452
Q

Rule 24 - What shall a towing vessel greater than 50 meters with a tow less than 200 meters exhibit?

A

1) Side lights;
2) Stern light;
3) Towing light;
4) Masthead light;
5) Two masthead lights in a vertical line.

1453
Q

Rule 13 - What shall you do if you are unsure if you are overtaking a another vessel?

A

When a vessel is in any doubt as to whether she is overtaking another, she shall assume that is the case and act accordingly.

1454
Q

Rule 7 - What two considerations shall be taken into account when determining if risk of collision exists?

A

1) Such risk shall be deemed to exist if the compass bearing of an approaching vessel does not appreciably change.
2) Such risk may sometimes exist even when an appreciable bearing change is evident, particularly when approaching a very large vessel or a tow or when approaching a vessel at close range.

1455
Q

Rule 9 - What does this rule state about impeding passage?

A

A vessel less than 2 meters in length or a sailing vessel shall not impede the passage of a vessel which can safely navigate only within a narrow channel or fairway.

1456
Q

Rule 24 Inland - What shall a vessel being pushed ahead exhibit?

A

A vessel being pushed ahead, not being part of a composite unit, shall exhibit at the forward end, sidelights and a special flashing light.

1457
Q

Rule 19 - What does this rule state about vessels that detect by radar alone?

A

A vessel which detects by radar alone the presence of another vessel shall determine if a close quarters situation is developing and/ or risk of collision exists.

1458
Q

Rule 6 - What are the six factors for all vessels to take into account in regard to safe speed?

A

1) The state of visibility.
2) Traffic density in the area.
3) Your maneuverability ability (stop/ turn).
4) Background lighting at night.
5) State of wind/ sea/ current (prox to nav haz).
6) Draft in relation to depth of water.

1459
Q

Rule 19 - What does this rule state that every vessel shall have due regard to?

A

Every vessel shall have due regard to the prevailing circumstances and conditions of restricted visibility.

1460
Q

Rule 18 - What is the hierarchy of vessels?

A

1) Overtaken
2) Not Under Command
3) Restricted in Her Ability to Maneuver
4) Constrained by Draft (international only)
5) Fishing
6) Sailing
7) Power Driven
8) Seaplanes
9) Wing in Ground
10) Overtaking

1461
Q

Rule 5 - What does this rule state?

A

Every vessel shall at all times maintain a proper look-out by sight and hearing as well as by all available means appropriate to the prevailing circumstances and conditions so as to make a full appraisal of the situation and of the risk of collision.

1462
Q

Who is eligible to take the open book DWO examination?

A

DWINTR is administered to members who have previously passed an Initial Examination or a Renewal Examination within the last five years. This five year period of eligibility commences on the date of their last successful examination.

1463
Q

Rule 24 - What will a towing vessel less than 50 meters in length with a tow less than 200 meters exhibit?

A

1) Side light;
2) Stern light;
3) Towing light;
4) Two masthead lights in a vertical line.

1464
Q

Does the two test failure rule apply to you if fail the DWO examination multiple times before receiving orders to a command cadre position?

A

Prior to receiving orders, a member may take the DWO examination multiple times without repercussions. Once orders are issued, the member must pass the test within two attempts.

1465
Q

Rule 17 - What may be done if you deem the give way vessel is not taking appropriate action?

A

The latter vessel may however take action to avoid collision by her maneuver alone, as soon as it becomes apparent to her that the vessel required to keep out of the way is not taking appropriate action in compliance with these rules.

1466
Q

Rule 9 - What does this rule state about overtaking?

A

In a narrow channel or fairway when overtaking can take place only if the vessel to be overtaken has to take action to permit safe passing, the vessel intending to overtake shall indicate her intention by sounding the appropriate sound signal.

1467
Q

When can the Coast Guard engage in independent firefighting?

A

Coast Guard personnel shall not engage in independent firefighting operations, except to save a life or in the early stages of a fire to avert a significant threat without undue risk.

1468
Q

What are the scores for a GAR model?

A

0-23: Green

24-44: Amber

45-60: Red

1469
Q

Can you enter foreign TTS to provide SAR assistance?

A

Article 98, the Law of the Sea Convention makes the act of stopping to render assistance to mariners in distress while transiting a foreign territorial sea fully consistent with the principles of innocent passage, thus disassociating entry or rendering assistance while in innocent passage from the notion that these acts violate a coastal State’s sovereignty.

1470
Q

If a boat is requiring non-distress assistance but has not been in contact with the Coast Guard, and an Auxiliary vessel comes upon them - can Auxiliary tow them without a MARB going out?

A

When an Auxiliary vessel on routine safety patrol or otherwise on orders discovers a vessel requesting assistance, but not in radio contact with the Coast Guard, the Auxiliarist will relay the request for assistance to the Coast Guard operational commander and may undertake to provide assistance, if capable.

1471
Q

Can you release names during an opened SAR case?

A

The release of names of individuals being sought or having been rescued by the Coast Guard may be released by the responsible PAO or SMC while a SAR case is open and active.

1472
Q

Who preforms Next of Kin (NOK) notifications?

A

The person exercising ACTSUS authority shall personally ensure that notifications are made and interaction established with the NOK at the earliest possible time.

1473
Q

Can the Coast Guard engage in commercial vessel and waterfront facility firefighting?

A

Coast Guard personnel shall not actively engage in firefighting except in support of a regular firefighting agency under the supervision of a qualified fire officer.

1474
Q

What are some considerations in choosing a Safe Haven?

A

In cases involving towing by the Coast Guard or Coast Guard Auxiliary, the vessel being assisted will normally be taken to the nearest safe haven that has an available means of communication, normally a telephone.

1475
Q

What is a False Alert?

A

A case where the subject reported to be in distress is confirmed not to be in distress and not to be in need of assistance. In a false alert case, the reporting source either misjudged a situation or inadvertently activated a distress signal or beacon resulting in an erroneous request for help, but did not deliberately act to deceive.

1476
Q

What is OSC?

A

On Scene Commander

1477
Q

What is an RCC?

A

Rescue Coordination Center

1478
Q

What does 14USC141 state?

A

Cooperation with other States, Agencies, Territories, and Political Subdivisions. The Coast Guard may, when so requested by proper authority, utilize its personnel and facilities to assist any Federal agency, State, Territory, possession, or political subdivision thereof, or the District of Columbia, to perform any activity for which such personnel and facilities are especially qualified.

1479
Q

What is an air embolism?

A

Air embolism is caused by excess gas pressure inside the lungs. It is most likely to develop during an improperly executed ascent. As the diver ascends, the air in the lungs expands, forcing gas bubbles directly into the bloodstream. This air (bubble) typically is transported to the brain where blockage of blood flow will occur depriving the brain of oxygen.

1480
Q

Who can preform a forcible evacuation?

A

Properly trained, qualified, and supervised Coast Guard law enforcement personnel may use force in accordance with the Coast Guard Use of Force policy, when necessary, to compel compliance with an evacuation order issued under the aforementioned conditions.

1481
Q

Who needs to be notified if you are preforming Assistance Entry into foreign TTS?

A

For all AE rescue operations conducted by Coast Guard rescue units, the Coast Guard National Command Center shall be promptly notified.

1482
Q

What is the Coast Guard’s primary concern when conducting SAR?

A

The Coast Guard’s primary concern in a search and rescue situation is to provide timely and effective assistance.

1483
Q

What is a Square Single Unit (SS) pattern used for?

A

This pattern is used when there is a high degree of confidence the search object is close to the estimated datum position.

1484
Q

What things will you consider before entering foreign TTS for a SAR case?

A

The safety of assisting personnel;

The safety of the persons in danger or distress;

U. S. foreign relations with the coastal State; and

Any applicable international SAR agreement.

1485
Q

What does 14USC88 state?

A

Authority to Engage in SAR. Authorizes the Coast Guard to perform any and all acts necessary to rescue and aid persons, and to protect and save property.

1486
Q

Can the Coast Guard engage in non-distress situations?

A

A Coast Guard resource may assist in a non-distress situation when no higher priority missions exist and no other capable resource is reasonably available.

1487
Q

What course do you steer when commencing your second Sector Search Pattern: Single Unit (VS)?

A

Upon completion of the pattern, a second pattern is started with the heading of the new first leg 30 degrees to the right of the final course of the first pattern.

1488
Q

What is a Hoax?

A

A case where information is conveyed with the intent to deceive.

1489
Q

When shall you claim a SAR case in MISLE?

A

Units shall claim a case and submit MISLE data when notification of distress has been received or a Search Rescue Unit (SRU) is launched.

1490
Q

Who can authorize a forcible evacuation?

A

The decision to force or compel mariners to abandon their vessels should normally be made by the cognizant SAR Coordinator (SC). If time does not permit consultation with the SMC and cognizant SC, and if in the On Scene Coordinator’s (OSC) objective judgment a life-threatening emergency exists affecting the subject vessel, and there is an immediate need for assistance or aid, the OSC may authorize this action.

1491
Q

What is the direction of the first leg on a Sector Search Pattern: Two Unit (VS)?

A

As the first SRU begins a Victor Sierra search, the second begins its pattern at datum in a direction of 90 degrees to the left of the first leg of the first SRU.

1492
Q

What is a MAYDAY Relay?

A

Mayday Relays are intended to alert the maritime public of an incident involving imminent danger to life.

1493
Q

What are the SAR stages?

A

Awareness

Initial Action

Planning

Operation

Conclusion

1494
Q

What is a MEDICO?

A

MEDICO is an international term normally meaning the passing of medical information by radio. Medical advice is available through many sources that include Coast Guard and DOD medical providers, medical firms and hospitals contracted by shipping companies and international service organizations such as the International Radio-Medical Center (CIRM).

1495
Q

What allows you to enter foreign TTS for SAR?

A

Assistance Entry

1496
Q

Who has the final decision on conducting a MEDEVAC?

A

The final decision to conduct a MEDEVAC rests with the aircraft commander, cutter commanding officer, or coxswain on scene.

1497
Q

How fast do units with a SAR readiness responsibility have to respond?

A

To meet the SAR response standard for most Coast Guard unit AORs, Coast Guard units with a SAR readiness responsibility shall maintain a B-0 (have a suitable SAR resource ready to proceed within 30 minutes of notification of a distress) readiness.

1498
Q

What is an SRU?

A

Search and Rescue Unit

1499
Q

What is a Sector Search Pattern used for?

A

These patterns are best used when the datum is established within close limits, a very high coverage immediately around the datum is desired, and the area to be searched is not extensive.

1500
Q

Who has ACTSUS authority?

A

ACTSUS authority inherently rests with the SAR Coordinator. ACTSUS authority may be delegated to Sector Commanders. Sector Commanders may further delegate authority to the Deputy Sector Commander or the Sector Chief of Response. District Chief of Incident Management shall be advised if this delegation is made.

1501
Q

Is the Coast Guard legally obligated to preform rescue missions?

A

There is no legal obligation for the Coast Guard to undertake any particular rescue mission.

1502
Q

What are the three phases of SAR?

A

Uncertainty Phase;

Alert Phase; and

Distress Phase.

1503
Q

When conducting a MEDEVAC, who has the authority to allow NOK to be transported with the patient?

A

Transporting NOK decisions are made by the SMC. These decisions should be made in consultation with the cutter commanding officers, boat coxswains and aircraft commanders directed to respond to the incident.

1504
Q

What is an SRU?

A

SAR Response Coordinator

1505
Q

What is an MMSI number?

A

Maritime Mobile Service Identity

1506
Q

What does 14USC2 state?

A

SAR as a Primary Duty. Specifies duty of the Coast Guard to develop, establish, maintain, and operate rescue facilities for the promotion of safety on, under, and over the high seas and waters subject to the jurisdiction of the U.S.

1507
Q

What is a UMIB?

A

Urgent Marine Information Broadcasts (UMIBs) are a tool used by Coast Guard SAR Mission Coordinators to alert the maritime public to a distress or potential distress situation.

1508
Q

Who can ACTSUS red-flare and EPIRB cases?

A

District Command Center

1509
Q

What are some factors to not send a MARB?

A

Taking on water, medical problems, problem anchoring, dangerous currents or location, weather, impending darkness, survival equipment, air temp, fog.

1510
Q

When determining a vessel to be reasonably available, what does that mean?

A

“Reasonably available” means that the resources should be able to respond before the situation deteriorates.

1511
Q

What pattern is a VS?

A

Sector Search Pattern: Single Unit

1512
Q

What is nitrogen narcosis?

A

Nitrogen narcosis or “rapture of the deep”, which is not a decompression illness, is caused by the narcotic effect of the nitrogen in the diver’s breathing medium and disappears when the diver moves into shallower water or surfaces.

1513
Q

If a mariner declines a MARB in a non-distress situation, what needs to happen?

A

If MARBs are declined in a non-distress situation, the Coast Guard has no further obligation to monitor or respond unless boaters change their mind or the situation deteriorates. The burden lies solely with boaters.

1514
Q

When can a forcible evacuation be preformed?

A

Forcible and/or compelled evacuations should only be conducted when a life-threatening emergency exists, and there is an immediate need for assistance or aid.

1515
Q

When can you claim a SAR case in MISLE?

A

Units may claim a case whenever a response is made no matter the time or effort expended.

1516
Q

Can you release names for a closed or suspended SAR case?

A

Once a SAR case is closed or suspended in MISLE, any request for names of individuals rescued by the Coast Guard must be submitted by the requestor IAW The Coast Guard Freedom of Information and Privacy Acts Manual.

1517
Q

What is the purpose of the Coast Guard’s SAR program?

A

The mission and purpose of the Coast Guard’s Search and Rescue (SAR) Program is to prevent death or injury to persons and loss or damage to property in the marine environment.

1518
Q

When does the DISTRESS phase exist?

A

The DISTRESS phase exists when grave or imminent danger requiring immediate response to the distress scene threatens a craft or person.

1519
Q

Who is considered a “qualified fire officer”?

A

This term means a person who has been trained and certified, under National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) guidelines to take command of firefighting operations.

1520
Q

What is the direction of the first leg on a Sector Search Pattern: Single Unit (VS)?

A

When practical, the first leg of the search is normally in the direction of search object drift.

1521
Q

What is a Safe Haven?

A

A Safe Haven is considered a place that can accommodate and will accept the safe mooring of the vessel.

1522
Q

Can you MEDEVAC a person that experienced a diving accident to a helicopter?

A

Unpressurized aircraft conducting a diving accident MEDEVAC should fly at the lowest safe altitude; recommendation is for MEDEVAC aircraft is to transport at 1000 feet or below.

1523
Q

What is DSC?

A

Digital Selective Calling

1524
Q

What is the STAAR model used for?

A

Used to identify options:

Spread Out

Transfer

Avoid

Accept

Reduce

1525
Q

Can you preform Assistance Entry into foreign TTS to preform search pattern?

A

To perform a search (AE rescue operations in a coastal State’s territorial sea extends only to rescue operations not searches. Coastal State permission must be obtained prior to entering into, flying over or landing in territory or territorial sea of a coastal State for search operations unless other prior arrangements have been made.

1526
Q

Can you be the SMC for a case as the OIC?

A

SMC responsibilities shall not be delegated below the Sector level.

1527
Q

What pattern is a VM?

A

Sector Search Pattern: Two-Units

1528
Q

What does Title 14, Sections 2, 88, and 141 of the U.S. Code state?

A

The code states that the Coast Guard shall develop, establish, maintain and operate SAR facilities and may render aid to distressed persons and protect and save property on and under the high seas and waters subject to the jurisdiction of the United States. It also states that the Coast Guard may use its resources to assist other Federal and State entities. Thus, Coast Guard performance of SAR is essentially permissive in nature.

1529
Q

When does the UNCERTAINTY phase exist?

A

An UNCERTAINTY phase exists when there is knowledge of a situation that may need to be monitored, or to have more information gathered, but that does not require moving resources.

1530
Q

What things shall a UMIB be released for?

A

All uncorrelated MAYDAY channel 16 calls;

Uncorrelated VHF-FM DSC distress calls;

Flare sightings;

Overdue vessel reports; and

Other situations as deemed necessary by the SMC.

1531
Q

What vessels are required to provide assistance at sea?

A

Article 98 of the Law of the Sea Convention, “Every State shall require the master of a ship flying its flag… to render assistance to any person found at sea in danger of being lost.”

1532
Q

How are course changes made on a Sector Search Pattern: Single Unit (VS)?

A

All turns in this pattern are 120 degrees to the right.

1533
Q

What is the definition of datum?

A

The most probable location of a search object corrected for movement over time.

1534
Q

What pattern is a SS?

A

Square Single Unit

1535
Q

What is the MSAP?

A

Maritime SAR Assistance Policy

1536
Q

When can you request through a phone company to ping a phone through a Cellular Tower Locator?

A

SAR watchstanders must determine that the case is in the distress phase, and shall articulate that they believe the subject is in imminent danger. If a SAR watchstander determines that a case is in the alert or uncertainty phase, the watchstander shall complete pre-comms and ex-comms to investigate or obtain information on a vessel’s location.

1537
Q

If the person exercising ACTSUS authority is not able to preform a NOK notification, who can do it for them?

A

In the event that is not possible, this responsibility may be delegated to a mature member of the Command who may be physically proximate to the NOK (e.g., Station CO/OINC) and who is thoroughly familiar with the case.

1538
Q

What is the purpose of the MSAP?

A

The MSAP is the result of an effort enacted by Congress in 1982. It directed the Commandant to “review Coast Guard policies and procedures for towing and salvage of disabled vessels in order to further minimize the possibility of Coast Guard competition or interference with…commercial enterprise.”

1539
Q

What are the most dangerous diving incidents?

A

Decompression sickness and air embolism are the most serious threats to the diver and require immediate treatment with hyperbaric oxygen in a recompression chamber.

1540
Q

Is an SMC required for every SAR case?

A

An SMC shall be designated for every SAR case to successfully manage each mission and to skillfully coordinate resources.

1541
Q

What is decompression sickness?

A

Decompression sickness, sometimes called the “bends”, is generally brought about by the diver absorbing gas into the blood from the compressed air breathed while diving. A diver must ascend slowly to avoid having these gases form into bubbles.

1542
Q

For an Uncorrelated MAYDAY, how long do you have to broadcast a UMIB and how frequent do you do it?

A

The UMIB shall be broadcast for at least one hour at 15-minute intervals.

1543
Q

What is MSAP?

A

Maritime SAR Assistance Policy. Established to minimize the Coast Guard competition with commercial assistance.

1544
Q

What is MISLE?

A

Marine Information for Safety and Law Enforcement

1545
Q

If a life-raft of vessel has been located, it cannot be recovered or removed, it is not in distress, but will be left unattended, what needs to be done?

A

If conditions and circumstances do not permit a safe recovery by on scene rescue units, rescue personnel should make every effort to mark the lifesaving vessel. The marking shall clearly indicate that the Coast Guard has investigated the lifesaving vessel.

1546
Q

Is the Coast Guard required to search for bodies?

A

When it has become definitely established, either by time or circumstances, that persons are dead, the Coast Guard is not required to conduct searches for bodies. If, however, requests are received from responsible agencies, such as local police, military commands, etc., Coast Guard units may participate in body searches provided that these searches do not interfere with the primary duties of the units.

1547
Q

What is the PEACE model used for?

A

Used to identify hazards:

Planning

Event Complexity

Asset Selection

Communication

Environment Conditions

1548
Q

What is ACTSUS?

A

Active Search Suspended

1549
Q

How are course changes made on a Square Single Unit (SS)?

A

All course changes are 90 degrees to the right.

1550
Q

What is the difference between a UMIB and a Call Out?

A

Callouts differ from UMIBs in that they are a radio broadcast directed toward a specific vessel, rather than directed at a broad audience, as is the UMIB. Callouts also do not imply or require a state of “urgency” whereas the UMIB by definition conveys urgency.

1551
Q

When does the ALERT phase exist?

A

An ALERT phase exists when a craft or person is experiencing some difficulty and may need assistance, but is not in immediate danger or in need of immediate response. Apprehension is usually associated with the ALERT phase.

1552
Q

Who authorizes performing salvage operations?

A

Any salvage operations shall be performed at the discretion of the unit CO/OINC.

1553
Q

What is the Coast Guard’s posture on Firefighting Activities?

A

The Coast Guard renders assistance as available, based on the level of personnel training and the adequacy of equipment.

1554
Q

As the OIC of a cutter, can you enter foreign TTS for a SAR case?

A

Coast Guard rescue assets are authorized to enter a coastal State’s territorial sea to rescue persons in distress; such assistance is to be provided without regard to the nationality or status of such persons or the circumstances in which they are found.

1555
Q

What are the four SAR program objectives?

A

Minimize loss of life, injury, and property loss and damage in the maritime environment;

Minimize crew risk during SAR missions;

Optimize use of resources in conducting SAR; and

Maintain a world leadership position in maritime SAR.

1556
Q

Can the Coast Guard assist commercial salvors in the performance of their duties?

A

When commercial salvors are on scene performing salvage, Coast Guard units may assist them within the unit’s capabilities, if the salvor requests.

1557
Q

What is an SMC?

A

SAR Mission Coordinator

1558
Q

What are the statutory authorities for SAR?

A

Title 14, Sections 2, 88, and 141 of the U.S. Code.

1559
Q

Can swimmers go under the water to render assistance to a person trapped under a capsized vessel?

A

A Coast Guard swimmer shall NOT go under the water and enter a capsized or submerged object.

1560
Q

Are survivor debriefs required?

A

When possible, SMCs should conduct survivor debriefs to gather all information available regarding the actual circumstances surrounding the details of the incident.

1561
Q

What is the direction of the first leg on a Square Single Unit (SS)?

A

The first leg is normally in the direction of the search object’s drift.

1562
Q

What is a MARB?

A

Marine Assistance Request Broadcast

1563
Q

Can the Coast Guard unground a vessel at the operator’s insistence?

A

The Coast Guard is under no obligation to agree to any such request or demand. If a decision to comply with such a request is made, it should be made clear that the operator is assuming the risk of the operation. The fact that the action is undertaken at operator’s request, and is against Coast Guard advice, should be logged.

1564
Q

How early should NOK’s be notified if a case if going to be suspended?

A

NOK should be notified of the decision to suspend active searching if no significant developments occur at least one day prior to actual suspension. This prepares the family for the actual ceasing of operations while giving them at least one more day of hope.

1565
Q

What are the 7 principles or ORM?

A

Identify Tasks

Identify Hazards

Assess Risk

Identify Options

Evaluate Risk vs. Gain

Execute Decision

Monitor Situation

1566
Q

What are the three categories of diving incidents?

A

Dive related injuries fall into three general categories: decompression sickness, air embolism, and nitrogen narcosis.

1567
Q

What is an SMC?

A

SAR Mission Coordinator

1568
Q

When marking a vessel, how visible are the markings required to be?

A

Markings should be made to be visible and recognizable from the air and sea at a distance of 300 feet. A broadcast notice to mariners should be made appropriate to location, type of hazard and future disposition.

1569
Q

When broadcasting a MARB, what is a reasonable amount of time before dispatching Coast Guard assets?

A

A guideline of 10 minutes is recommended for the SMC to await an answer to a MARB before the SMC directs Coast Guard or Auxiliary resources to respond.

1570
Q

What is the initial track spacing for a PIW?

A

.1NM or 200 yards

1571
Q

How many satellites are required for a GPS fix?

A

At least four.

1572
Q

What is a black and red horizontally banded buoy called?

A

Isolated Danger Mark

1573
Q

What is a yellow buoy of beacon?

A

Yellow buoys and beacons are called “special marks”.

1574
Q

What does RACON stand for?

A

RACON is an acronym for Radar Beacon.

1575
Q

Where does the ICW go and where does it run?

A

2,400 miles from Manasquan, NJ to Brownsville, TX. It runs southerly along the Atlantic and westerly on the Gulf Coast.

1576
Q

When looking at a range and the upper mark is seen to the left of the lower mark, where are you?

A

The vessel is to the left of the center of the channel.

1577
Q

What is the characteristic of a fixed light?

A

A light showing continuously and steadily.

1578
Q

If lighted, what characteristic does a safe water mark display?

A

They will display a white light with the characteristic Morse Code “A”.

1579
Q

What is a fixed ATON called?

A

Beacon

1580
Q

What kind of buoys or beacons do not have numbers?

A

Preferred channel, safe water marks, isolated danger, special marks, and information/regulatory ATON use only letters.

1581
Q

When you see an aid with a yellow triangle on it, how should you pass it?

A

The yellow triangle shows that the aid should be kept on the right side when traveling north to south/east to west.

1582
Q

What is IALA?

A

International Association of Lighthouse Authorities

1583
Q

If lighted, what characteristic does an isolated danger mark display?

A

Isolated danger marks display a white light with a “group-flashing” characteristic; and are fitted with a visually distinctive top mark, consisting of two black spheres, one above the other.

1584
Q

What is the difference between a lateral and cardinal system?

A

Lateral: Buoys and beacons indicate the sides of the channel or route relative to a conventional direction of buoyage.

Cardinal: Uses a buoy to indicate the location of a danger relative to the buoy itself.

1585
Q

What are ranges in ATON and what are their purpose?

A

Ranges are pairs of beacons located to define a line down the center of a channel or harbor entrance.

1586
Q

What are the five sound signals for ATON?

A

Electronic Horns

Sirens

Whistles

Bells

Gongs

1587
Q

How accurate is GPS?

A

10 meters, with a 99.7% probability.

1588
Q

What is the characteristic of an occulting light?

A

A light in which all durations of light and darkness are equal.

1589
Q

What is the characteristic of a flashing light?

A

A light in which the total duration of light in a period is shorter than the total duration of darkness and the appearances of light (flashes) are usually of equal duration

1590
Q

What is the ICW and how much area does it cover?

A

Extending some 2,400 miles along the Atlantic and Gulf coasts of the U.S., the Intracoastal Waterway (ICW) is a largely sheltered waterway, suitable for year-round use.

1591
Q

What are examples of destroyed ATON?

A

Piling split or missing

1592
Q

What buoy would quick flash?

A

A turn

A front range (white)

1593
Q

If lighted, what characteristic does informational or regulatory marks display?

A

They will only display a white light and may display any light rhythm except quick flashing.

1594
Q

How are non-lateral aids marked in the ICW?

A

Non-lateral aids in the ICW, such as ranges and safe-water marks, are marked with a yellow horizontal band.

1595
Q

What is a bifurcation in ATON?

A

The point where a channel divides when proceeding from seaward, or the place where two tributaries meet.

1596
Q

How many satellites are in the GPS system?

A

The Global Positioning System (GPS) is a system of 24 satellites operated by the Department of Defense (DoD).

1597
Q

What is a Nun buoy?

A

Conical buoys, often referred to as “nun buoys,” are unlighted ATON.

1598
Q

What buoy would flash 2 + 1?

A

A preferred channel buoy (junction buoy)

1599
Q

What are the two types of junction buoys?

A

Nun/ Can

1600
Q

What is a junction in ATON?

A

A point where two channels meet when proceeding seaward.

1601
Q

What is an isolated danger mark used for?

A

They are used to mark isolated dangers (wrecks or obstructions) which have navigable water all around.

1602
Q

What does it mean when a buoy is watching properly?

A

When a buoy is “watching properly”, it is marking its charted position “on station” and properly displaying all other distinguishing characteristics.

1603
Q

How are solid red ATON buoys and beacons numbered?

A

Solid red ATON buoys and beacons bear even numbers.

1604
Q

What are white and orange buoys or beacons?

A

Information and regulatory buoys and beacons indicate various warnings or regulatory matters.

1605
Q

What does a mooring buoy look like?

A

White with a horizontal blue stripe.

1606
Q

What lights have lateral significance in ATON?

A

Though there are white and yellow lights, only ATON with green or red lights have lateral significance.

1607
Q

What does R’8” FL R 4s mean?

A

Buoy “8” displays one single flash of red every4 seconds.

1608
Q

What is the characteristic of an occulting light?

A

A light in which the total duration of light in a period is longer than the total duration of darkness and the intervals of darkness (eclipses) are usually of equal duration.

1609
Q

What are the OIC’s responsibilities with ATON?

A

Observe the functioning ATON within the unit’s AOR. Report to OPCON any aids that are not working properly or are off station.

1610
Q

What is USWMS?

A

Uniform State Waterway Marking System

1611
Q

What is a Can buoy?

A

Cylindrical buoys, often referred to as “can buoys,” are unlighted ATON.

1612
Q

What does a special mark do?

A

They mark anchorages, dredging/spoil areas, fishnet areas, and other special areas or features.

1613
Q

How accurate is GPS?

A

Once the receiver has computed the range of at least four satellites, it processes a position that is accurate to within 13 meters horizontally.

1614
Q

How does RACON look on a RADAR?

A

These beacons transmit a Morse Code reply when triggered by a boat’s radar signal. This reply “paints” the boat’s radar screen in the shape of dashes and dots representing a specific Morse Code letter, always beginning with a dash.

1615
Q

When looking at a range and the upper mark is to the right of the lower mark, where are you?

A

The vessel is to the right of the center of the channel.

1616
Q

How are ranges lighted?

A

Most are lit 24 hours per day and may display either red, green, or white lights or combinations of the same.

1617
Q

What is a major light in ATON?

A

Major lights display a light of moderate to high candlepower. They may also have high intensity audible signaling devices, radio beacons and radar beacons (RACONs).

1618
Q

How often is WAMS?

A

Conducted every 5 years.

1619
Q

What are examples of damaged ATON?

A

Missing day board

Not showing proper characteristic

1620
Q

What determines whether an ATON light is a major or minor light?

A

Determining whether a light is major, or minor, depends upon its candlepower and the luminous range of the light.

1621
Q

How are solid green ATON buoys and beacons numbered?

A

Solid green ATON buoys and beacons bear odd numbers.

1622
Q

What buoyage system do we use in the United States?

A

International Association of Lighthouse Authorities (IALA) Region B.

1623
Q

What is the characteristic of a quick flashing light?

A

A light in which flashes are produced at a rate of 60 flashes per minute

1624
Q

If lighted, what characteristic does a special mark display?

A

When lighted, special marks will display a yellow light with a Fixed (“F”) or Flashing (“Fl”) characteristic. Special marks may also be used to mark the center of the traffic separation scheme.

1625
Q

Who assigns battery stickers on ATON?

A

District

1626
Q

What is the light list and how many volumes are there?

A

The Light List is a seven-volume, annual publication providing information on ATON maintained or authorized by the U.S. Coast Guard located on coastal and inland waters.

1627
Q

What is a mid-channel marker?

A

Junction buoy

1628
Q

What is WAMS?

A

Waterways Analysis and Management

1629
Q

When you see an aid with a yellow square on it, how should you pass it?

A

The yellow square shows that the aid should be kept on the left side when traveling north to south/east to west.

1630
Q

What is a Morse ‘A’ Buoy?

A

Entrance marker, flashes white 1 short 1 long, marks the entrance to a channel or isolated danger, safe to pass on all side. [red and white in color]

1631
Q

What is a danger buoy?

A

A black buoy with a red stripe, two black spheres atop the buoy, marked with a letter. Flashes two short every five seconds.

1632
Q

What is a LLNR in the Light List?

A

Light List Number

1633
Q

What are the four types of beacons?

A

Daybeacons

Lighted beacons (minor lights)

Major lights

Light towers

1634
Q

What is a Beacon in ATON?

A

Beacons have day boards attached to a structure.

1635
Q

What is the purpose of ATON?

A

Safe efficient flow of commerce.

1636
Q

What is a floating ATON called?

A

Buoy

1637
Q

What is a daybeacon?

A

Daybeacons are unlighted fixed structures fitted with a dayboard for daytime identification.

1638
Q

What is a lighted beacon?

A

Just as daybeacons are sometimes substituted for unlighted buoys, lighted beacons are substituted for lighted buoys.

1639
Q

If an underage member makes an unrestricted sexual assault report, but says they were drinking, will they be punished for the drinking?

A

CO’s shall consider not taking action on a victim’s collateral misconduct (e.g., minor offenses such as underage drinking) until the final disposition of the sexual assault case to ensure priority is placed on the sexual assault and not the collateral misconduct.

1640
Q

Can you interview an alleged offender of sexual assault?

A

Command representatives shall not interview the alleged offender about the incident, other than a limited inquiry to ascertain safety issues.

1641
Q

If an underage member was drinking and made a restricted sexual assault report, will the underage drinking remain confidential?

A

If a victim reveals minor offenses in addition to the alleged sexual assault, that information will be subject to the same rules governing disclosure as the reported sexual assault.

1642
Q

What is RAINN?

A

The Rape, Abuse, and Incest National Network.

1643
Q

Are victims of sexual assault required to have a medical examination/forensic evidence collection?

A

At the victim’s discretion or request, the HCP, VA, EAPC/SARC, or FAS shall arrange for the victim to have either a medical examination to ensure overall health and/or to have forensic evidence collected.

1644
Q

How many VA’s is a unit recommended to have?

A

It is strongly recommended that all units have at least one trained VA.

1645
Q

How often is SAPR training required?

A

Annually

1646
Q

Should you suspend a victims security clearance or ability to carry a firearm if the make an unrestricted sexual assault report?

A

Victims of sexual assault should not have their security clearance or ability to carry a Coast Guard-issued firearm suspended solely because they made an Unrestricted Report of sexual assault.

1647
Q

What is the definition of Threatening Behavior?

A

Threatening behavior is an individual’s threat, either overt or implied, to commit an act of physical aggression or harm at the workplace.

1648
Q

What is sexual assault?

A

“Sexual assault” is defined as intentional sexual contact, characterized by use of force, threats, intimidation, abuse of authority, or when the victim does not or cannot consent.

1649
Q

If a member makes an unrestricted sexual assault report, are they required to be interviewed by law enforcement?

A

A victim does not have to participate in a law enforcement investigation, but may be asked to sign a statement declining law enforcement assistance or any further prosecutorial actions (Waiver of Prosecution Letter).

1650
Q

What can take a restricted report in relation to SAPR?

A

EAPC/SARC, an FAS, a VA, or a Coast Guard/ DoD HCP.

1651
Q

How many VA’s are each unit required to have?

A

Commands are strongly encouraged to have at least one VA, especially on afloat units where access to an EAPC/SARC or other trained resource is limited.

1652
Q

What is “consent” in relation to SAPR?

A

“Consent” means words or overt acts indicating a freely given agreement to the sexual conduct at issue by a competent person.

1653
Q

Where can you find specific definitions of the elements of the sexual assault, sexual contact, and forcible sodomy offenses?

A

Articles 120 and 125 of the UCMJ.

1654
Q

Can an independent duty HS that is not a victim advocate take a restricted sexual assault report?

A

Medical Officer (MOs) and Independent Duty Health Services Technicians (IDHS) are HCPs. MOs, IDHSs and VAs afloat are able to accept Restricted Reports, but only MOs can collect forensic evidence.

1655
Q

How long does CGIS retain forensic evidence for restricted sexual assault cases?

A

Forensic evidence collected under a Restricted Report will be stored (unprocessed) by CGIS Headquarters for at least 12 months from the report date if the report has not changed to Unrestricted during that time frame.

1656
Q

What is the definition of Workplace Violence?

A

Workplace violence is any act or attempted act of physical aggression or harm by an individual that occurs at the workplace.

1657
Q

What are some things a victim of sexual assault avoid doing to preserve evidence?

A

The victim should avoid bathing, brushing his or her teeth, changing clothes, eating, drinking (even water), or cleaning in any way prior to the packaging/collection of those items that may contain forensic evidence.

1658
Q

Can you investigate a report of a sexual assault?

A

CGIS has sole responsibility for conducting the criminal investigation of a sexual assault allegation. Commands are prohibited from taking any formal or informal investigative action, to include preliminary inquiry or interview of alleged victims, suspects or witnesses regarding the assault.

1659
Q

What is SAFE in regard to SAPR?

A

Sexual Assault Forensic Examination

1660
Q

If a member makes a restricted sexual assault report and accidentally tells someone that is not authorized to take a restricted report, what happens?

A

When a victim elects Restricted Reporting, the victim’s disclosure of the assault to unauthorized individuals at anytime thereafter changes the report to Unrestricted.

1661
Q

Who can take a restricted report in relation to SAPR?

A

EAPC, SARC, FAS, VA, or HCP.

1662
Q

What is the purpose of restricted reporting in relation to SAPR?

A

The Restricted Reporting option may be used by a service member or civilian spouse sexually assaulted by their active duty service member spouse to disclose to specific individuals on a confidential basis that he or she is the victim of a sexual assault.

1663
Q

What is the purpose of unrestricted reporting in relation to SAPR?

A

The Unrestricted Reporting option may be used by the service member to disclose to his or her chain of command that he or she is the victim of a sexual assault.

1664
Q

Can you use your small boat as a backdrop in an event?

A

CG assets may not be used as backdrops or transportation unless the CG is participating in the event.

1665
Q

Can political candidates gain access to units?

A

They will be given the same access to which any other visitor in entitled.

1666
Q

What is an example of a canned response to the media?

A

“Our goal is to ensure that we send our rescue crews out and that everyone makes it home safely.”

1667
Q

What is SAPP?

A

Security

Accuracy

Policy

Propriety

1668
Q

Can a political candidate film campaign material while onboard your unit?

A

Requests from candidates to tape or film campaign material at CG units must be denied.

1669
Q

What is a PAG?

A

Public Affairs Guidance

1670
Q

What is a PAG used for?

A

Press release talking points.

1671
Q

Who is the Vice Commandant?

A

Vice Admiral Charles D. Michel

1672
Q

Who is the Chaplain of the Coast Guard?

A

Captain Gregory N. Todd

1673
Q

Who is the District Five Commander?

A

Rear Admiral Meredith L. Austin

1674
Q

Who is the District Five Deputy Commander?

A

RADM Pat DeQuattro

1675
Q

Who is the LANTAREA Commander?

A

Vice Admiral Karl L. Schultz

1676
Q

Who is the District Five Command Master Chief?

A

Master Chief Adwoa Hendricks

1677
Q

What are RDML Austin’s watch words?

A

People
Partnerships
Professionalism

1678
Q

Who is the Master Chief Petty Officer of the Coast Guard?

A

Master Chief Steven W. Cantrell

1679
Q

Who is the LANTAREA Command Master Chief?

A

Master Chief Charles R. Bushey

1680
Q

Who is the Commandant?

A

Admiral Paul F. Zukunft

1681
Q

Who is the District Five Chief of Staff?

A

CAPT Gregory J. Sanial