OCULAR PHARMACOLOGY 2 Flashcards
1
Q
The ideal volume of containers for ophthalmic drops should not be more than _____mL.
a. 5mL
b. 10mL
c. 15mL
d. 30mL
e. 60mL
A
B
2
Q
The ideal content of containers for ophthalmic ointments should not be more than __ g.
a. 5g
b. 10g
c. 1g
d. 15g
e. 50g
A
A
3
Q
mydriatic that can liberate pigmented cells in the anterior chamber.
a. Pilocarpine
b. Phenylephrine
c. Propranolol
d. Atropine
e. Carbachol
A
B
4
Q
Part of patient’s history which can either enhance or preclude successful pharmacotherapy.
a. Chief complaint
b. Medication history
c. History of present illness
d. Family history
e. Social history
A
E
5
Q
Preparations causing no epithelial damage:
a. Cocaine
b. Pilocarpine
c. Gentamicin
d. Atropine
e. Benzalkonium chloride
A
D
6
Q
Preservative preferred by many manufacturers because of their stability, excellent antimicrobial properties in acid formulation, and long shelf life.
a. Chlorhexidine
b. Chlorobutanol
c. Mercurial
d. Sodium perborate
e. Benzalkonium chloride
A
E
7
Q
This can be used as an antioxidant.
a. Chlorhexidine
b. Chlorobutanol
c. Mercurial
d. Sodium perborate
e. Benzalkonium chloride
A
E
8
Q
This compound is converted to hydrogen peroxide and then oxygen and water once in the eye.
a. Chlorhexidine
b. Chlorobutanol
c. Mercurial
d. Sodium perborate
e. Benzalkonium chloride
A
D
9
Q
It is not a highly effective preservative because it tends to disappear from bottles during prolonged storage.
a. Chlorhexidine
b. Chlorobutanol
c. Mercurial
d. Sodium perborate
e. Benzalkonium chloride
A
B
10
Q
An agent other than the active drug or preservative added to a formulation to provide proper tonicity, buffering, and
viscosity to complement drug action.
a. Preservative
b. Surfactant
c. Buffer
d. Vehicle
e. Prodrug
A
D
11
Q
This compound can create a complex with mercury, nicotine, cyanide, and other toxic materials to reduce their damaging effects.
a. Methylcellulose
b. Polyvinyl alcohol
c. Propylene glycol
d. Polyethylene glycol
e. Polyvinylpyrrolidone (povidone)
A
E
12
Q
Some of its derivatives has a greater adhesion to mucins than do other viscous vehicles currently used in ocular formulations.
a. Methylcellulose
b. Polyvinyl alcohol
c. Propylene glycol
d. Polyethylene glycol
e. Polyvinylpyrrolidone (povidone)
A
A
13
Q
They are soluble in water and are often used to improve solubility, stability, or irritability of various compounds.
a. Cyclodextrin
b. Emulsions
c. Polyacrylic acid
d. Propylene glycol
e. Polyethylene glycol
A
A
14
Q
Blurred vision is one of the most frequent adverse effects from this ophthalmic dosage form.
a. Solution
b. Emulsion
c. Suspension
d. Ointment
e. Gel
A
D
15
Q
practical advantage of this sustained delivery system is the once-daily dosage regimen, with the drug usually administered at bedtime.
a. Solution
b. Emulsion
c. Suspension
d. Ointment
e. Gel
A
E
16
Q
Thin membranes of porcine or bovine scleral collagen that conform to the cornea when placed on the eye:
a. collagen inserts
b. collagen shields
c. liposomes
d. niosomes
e. hydrogels
A
B
17
Q
Revised Optometry Law of 1995:
a. RA 8203
b. RA 8050
c. RA 10918
d. RA 6675
e. RA 9165
A
B
18
Q
- An act regulating and modernizing the practice of pharmacy in the Philippines.
a. RA 8203
b. RA 8050
c. RA 10918
d. RA 6675
e. RA 9165
A
C
19
Q
An act to promote, require and ensure the production of an adequate supply, distribution, use and acceptance of
drugs and medicines identified by their generic names.
a. RA 8203
b. RA 8050
c. RA 10918
d. RA 6675
e. RA 9165
A
D
20
Q
- An act instituting the Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002.
a. RA 8203
b. RA 8050
c. RA 10918
d. RA 6675
e. RA 9165
A
E
21
Q
An act providing for cheaper and quality medicines, amending for the purpose of the intellectual property code, the
generics act and the pharmacy law and for other purposes.
a. RA 8203
b. RA 9502
c. RA 9711
d. RA 7432
e. RA 9165
A
B
22
Q
- Drug/s that interacts with beta-blockers; except:
a. cardiac glycosides
b. quinidine
c. xanthines
d. nasal decongestants
e. succinylcholine
A
E
23
Q
Drug/s that interacts with beta-blockers, causing cardiac depression; except:
a. cardiac glycosides
b. quinidine
c. xanthines
d. nasal decongestants
e. salbutamol
A
C
24
Q
Drugs used to treat open-angle glaucoma that may cause bronchospasm.
a. beta-blockers
b. brimonidine
c. echothiophate
d. pilocarpine
e. cyclopentolate
A
A
25
25. Drugs used to treat open-angle glaucoma that may cause decrease cardiac rate.
a. beta-blockers
b. brimonidine
c. echothiophate
d. pilocarpine
e. cyclopentolate
A
26
Drugs used to treat open-angle glaucoma that may cause syncope.
a. beta-blockers
b. brimonidine
c. echothiophate
d. pilocarpine
e. cyclopentolate
A
27
27. Drugs used to treat open-angle glaucoma that may cause fatigue and lethargy.
a. beta-blockers
b. brimonidine
c. echothiophate
d. pilocarpine
e. cyclopentolate
B
28
Drugs used to treat open-angle glaucoma that may cause dry mouth.
a. beta-blockers
b. brimonidine
c. echothiophate
d. pilocarpine
e. cyclopentolate
B
29
Drugs used to treat open-angle glaucoma that may cause prolonged apnea.
a. beta-blockers
b. brimonidine
c. echothiophate
d. pilocarpine
e. cyclopentolate
C
30
30. Drugs used to treat open-angle glaucoma that may cause sweating and tremor.
a. beta-blockers
b. brimonidine
c. echothiophate
d. pilocarpine
e. cyclopentolate
D
31
Protective mechanisms of the eye; except:
a. Blinking
b. reflex lacrimation
c. tears
d. nasolacrimal drainage
e. ophthalmic washings
E
32
32. A cationic wetting agent used as preservative in ophthalmic preparations.
a. benzalkonium chloride
b. phenylmercuric nitrate
c. chlorobutanol
d. Propylhydroxybenzoate
e. All of these
A
33
Alcohol substitute used as preservative in ophthalmic preparations.
a. benzalkonium chloride
b. phenylmercuric nitrate
c. chlorobutanol
d. Propylhydroxybenzoate
e. All of these
C
34
34. An ophthalmic suspension should have drug in microfine form with at least _____micron in diameter.
a. 100
b. 20
c. 50
d. 10
e. 1
E
35
Which of the following is an isotonic solution?
a. 0.09% NaCl
b. Saline solution
c. 5% dextrose
d. tap water
e. All of these
B
36
36. An act strengthening and rationalizing the regulatory capacity of FDA by establishing adequate testing laboratory and
field offices, upgrading its equipment, augmenting its human resource complement, giving authority to retain its income.
a. RA 8203
b. RA 9502
c. RA 9711
d. RA 7432
e. RA 9165
C
37
37. The advantage of conventional ocular drug formulation.
a. easy to administer
b. less visual and systemic side effects
c. quick absorption
d. increased shelf-life
e. better patient compliance
A
38
The advantage of vesicular ocular drug formulation.
a. easy to administer
b. less visual and systemic side effects
c. quick absorption
d. increased shelf-life
e. better patient compliance
B
39
39. The advantage of particulate ocular drug formulation.
a. easy to administer
b. less visual and systemic side effects
c. quick absorption
d. increased shelf-life
e. better patient compliance
C
40
The advantage of control-released ocular drug formulation.
a. easy to administer
b. less visual and systemic side effects
c. quick absorption
d. increased shelf-life
e. better patient compliance
D
41
41. The advantage of advanced ocular drug formulation.
a. easy to administer
b. less visual and systemic side effects
c. quick absorption
d. increased shelf-life
e. better patient compliance
E
42
The disadvantage of advanced ocular drug formulation.
a. poor bioavailability
b. discomfort upon application
c. chemical instability
d. requires expert for application
e. expensive
D
43
43. The disadvantage of control-released ocular drug formulation.
a. poor bioavailability
b. discomfort upon application
c. chemical instability
d. requires expert for application
e. expensive
B
44
The disadvantage of vesicular ocular drug formulation.
a. poor bioavailability
b. discomfort upon application
c. chemical instability
d. requires expert for application
e. expensive
C
45
45. The disadvantage of conventional ocular drug formulation.
a. poor bioavailability
b. discomfort upon application
c. chemical instability
d. requires expert for application
e. expensive
A
46
It refers to the use of diagnostic drugs to facilitate the examination and diagnosis of patients undergoing
comprehensive assessment and to the use of therapeutic drugs for the treatment of patients with eye or vision problems.
a. Pharmacology
b. Pharmacokinetics
c. Pharmacodynamics
d. Pharmacotherapy
D
47
It is one of the most important decisions to make when instituting a management for ocular patient.
a. socioeconomic status
b. route of administration
c. history of present illness
d. type of dosage form
e. marital status
B
48
48. Which among the statements is correct?
a. All women patients should have presented to the clinician the result of her pregnancy test before any eye examination.
b. Lactating mothers may not worry about ophthalmic preparations since any instillations in eye will not eventually go to the mammary gland.
c. Practitioners should pay special attention to the phase of pregnancy when making decisions about medication use and dose.
d. All ophthalmic preparations were made sure that will not cause harm to the fetus.
e. IgA in pregnant women is enough to protect her infected eyes.
C
49
Tears pH is:
a. 7
b. 7.4
c. 7.8
d. 8
e. 8.7
B
50
50. It is primarily responsible for supplying the oxygen requirements of the corneal epithelium.
a. Tears
b. atmospheric air
c. blood supply
d. nerve supply
e. inhaled oxygen
A
51
The limited absorption of ophthalmic drugs in conjunctiva and sclera is due to:
a. Avascularity
b. Infection
c. tear film
d. Vascularization
e. air exposure
D
52
52. These are normally supplied in small, sterilized, collapsible tubes fitted with a tamper-evident applicator.
a. ophth drops
b. ophth ointments
c. ophth suspensions
d. ophth emulsions
e. ophth powders
B
53
These are generally dispersions of oily droplets in an aqueous phase.
a. ophth drops
b. ophth ointments
c. ophth suspensions
d. ophth emulsions
e. ophth powders
D
54
54. These contain solid particles dispersed in a liquid vehicle.
a. ophth drops
b. ophth ointments
c. ophth suspensions
d. ophth emulsions
e. ophth powders
C
55
These are sterile aqueous or oily solutions, suspensions, or emulsions intended for instillation into the conjunctival
sac.
a. ophth drops
b. ophth ointments
c. ophth suspensions
d. ophth emulsions
e. ophth powders
a
56
56. Their formulations are keen to increase the bioavailability of the encapsulated drugs as well as the solubility.
a. ophth drops
b. ophth ointments
c. ophth suspensions
d. ophth emulsions
e. ophth powders
D
57
The usual melting points of ointments are near to the ocular temperature of ___◦C due to their constitution base on a
combination of solid and semisolid hydrocarbon molecules.
a. 20
b. 25
c. 30
d. 34
e. 37
D
58
A jelly formulation with pilocarpine hydrochloride was engineered through combination of Carbopol and Pluronic was
created for the treatment of:
a. dry eye
b. macular degeneration
c. cataract
d. glaucoma
e. retinopathy
D
59
Topical delivery systems containing neurotransmitters and neuropeptides were first invented for the treatment of:
a. dry eye
b. macular degeneration
c. cataract
d. glaucoma
e. retinopathy
A
60
60. A 34-year-old carpenter presents to the ER after an accident in which he inadvertently chopped off the tip of his
index finger. He is taken to the OR for reattachment of the digit, and after sedation, a local anesthetic is administered
around the site of the injury. The local anesthetic used in the procedure did not contain any epinephrine, as it usually
does for most surgical procedures. The reason for this is:
a. Epinephrine causes increased blood loss during delicate surgery
b. Epinephrine causes swelling of the tissues, making surgery more challenging
c. Epinephrine is contraindicated in emergency surgery
d. Epinephrine causes vasoconstriction, which can lead to vascular ischemia in digits
e. Epinephrine can cause hypotension when administered with sedative agents
D
61
Which of the following drugs is used to diagnose myasthenia gravis?
a. Atropine
b. Neostigmine
c. Bethanechol
d. Edrophonium
e. Pralidoxime
D
62
62. Which one of the following agents, when applied topically to the eye, would cause both mydriasis and cycloplegia?
a. Phenylephrine
b. Carbachol
c. Prazosin
d. Atropine
e. Pilocarpine
D
63
Neostigmine would be expected to reverse which one of the following conditions?
a. Paralysis of skeletal muscle induced by a competitive, nondepolarizing muscle relaxant
b. Paralysis of skeletal muscle induced by a depolarizing muscle relaxant
c. Cardiac slowing induced by stimulation of the vagus nerve
d. Miosis induced by bright light
e. All of the above
A
64
64. Phenylephrine is used to treat patients with nasal mucosa stuffiness because it causes vasoconstriction by which of
the following?
a. Blocking nicotinic cholinoceptors
b. Stimulating muscarinic cholinoceptors
c. Blocking β-adrenoceptors
d. Stimulating α-adrenoceptors
e. None of these
D
65
A 16-year-old girl was treated topically with eye drops during a routine ophthalmoscopic examination. After 15
minutes, the ophthalmologist measured an increase in pupillary diameter with negligible changes in lens curvature and
intraocular pressure. Which of the following drugs was most likely administered to the patient?
a. Phenylephrine
b. Acetylcholine
c. Timolol
d. Apraclonidine
e. Epinephrine
A
66
66. A 23-year-old man complained to his physician of photophobia and difficulty in reading the newspaper. A few days
earlier, the man had started using a nasal spray of ipratropium to manage profuse rhinorrhea associated with a cold.
Which of the following molecular actions most likely mediated the adverse effects of the drug?
a. Blockade of M3 muscarinic receptors
b. Activation of β2 adrenoceptors
c. Activation of M3 muscarinic receptors
d. Blockade of α1 adrenoceptors
e. Blockade of β2 adrenoceptors
A
67
Pilocarpine reduces intraocular pressure in patients with glaucoma because it ___.
a. Activates nicotinic cholinoceptors
b. Blocks muscarinic cholinoceptors
c. Selectively inhibits peripheral activity of sympathetic ganglia
d. Inhibits acetylcholinesterase
e. None of the above
B
68
68. A 65-year-old woman suffering from open-angle glaucoma was prescribed a treatment regimen that included
apraclonidine eye drops. Which of the following actions on aqueous humor most likely mediated the therapeutic effect of
the drug in the patient’s disease?
a. Increased outflow through the Schlemm canal
b. Decreased production by the trabecular meshwork
c. Increased outflow through the uveoscleral route
d. Decreased production by eye vessel constriction
e. Decreased production by the ciliary epithelium
E
69
A 52-year-old woman suffering from severe bronchial asthma was recently diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma. An
appropriate local therapy was prescribed. Which of the following drugs most likely would be included in the glaucoma
treatment of this patient?
a. Carbachol
b. Epinephrine
c. Propranolol
d. Pilocarpine
e. Timolol
B
70
70. A 16-year-old male snorted cocaine for the first time at a party. A few minutes later he felt euphoric, and friends noted
that his pupils were dilated. Which of the following molecular actions most likely mediated the mydriasis?
a. Inhibition of monoamine oxidase A
b. Blockade of α2 receptors in sympathetic terminals
c. Inhibition of norepinephrine reuptake into sympathetic terminals
d. Stimulation of epinephrine release from adrenal medulla
e. Stimulation of norepinephrine release from sympathetic terminals
C
71
64-year-old woman, recently diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma, started a topical therapy with timolol and
apraclonidine. Which of the following was the most likely site of action of both drugs?
a. Ciliary muscle
b. Conjunctival vessels
c. Uveoscleral vessels
d. Ciliary epithelium
e. Retinal vessels
D
72
72. Which drug is an anticholinergic agent?
a. Atropine
b. Carteolol
c. pilocarpine
d. tamsulosin
e. diuretics
A
73
62-year-old man suffering from open-angle glaucoma underwent ocular surgery for canaloplasty. Before the
operation, the ophthalmologist instilled a few drops of carbachol in the conjunctival sac. Which of the following
anatomical structures represents the primary site of action of the drug in this patient?
a. Ganglionic neurons
b. Lens
c. Ciliary muscle
d. Radial muscle of the iris
e. Brainstem
C
74
74. A 51-year-old diabetic woman presented to the emergency room with severe ocular pain and redness, decreased
vision, colored halos, and nausea and vomiting. Ophthalmoscopy revealed anterior chamber inflammation, and
tonometry measured an intraocular pressure of 48 mm Hg in the right eye (norm al 10−20 mm Hg). A diagnosis of an
acute glaucoma at-ack was made, and two drugs were instilled in the conjunctival sac. Another drug was given by the
same route 15 minutes later. Which of the following three drugs were most likely administered?
a. Timolol, apraclonidine, and pilocarpine
b. Homatropine, carbachol, and dorzolamide
c. Homatropine, carbachol, and timolol
d. Prazosin, physostigmine, and mannitol
e. Scopolamine, dorzolamide, and phenylephrine
A
75
65-year-old man suffering from open-angle glaucoma had been receiving several drugs over the past 6 months,
but the control of intraocular pressure proved inadequate. The ophthalmologist decided to add a drug and prescribed
echothiophate. Which of the following actions most likely mediated the therapeutic effect of echothiophate in the patient’s
disease?
a. Contraction of the radial muscle of the iris
b. Dilation of the episcleral venous plexus
c. Contraction of the sphincter of the iris
d. Contraction of the ciliary muscle
e. Decreased production of aqueous humor
D
76
76. The disadvantage of particulate ocular drug formulation.
a. poor bioavailability
b. discomfort upon application
c. chemical instability
d. requires expert for application
e. expensive
E
77
49-year-old farmer came to the emergency department complaining of blurred vision, nausea, and painful muscle
contractions in his legs. He said the symptoms started soon after coming in from his soybean field. The attending
physician appropriately administered pralidoxime intravenously soon after the m an arrived. An agent from which of the
following drug classes most likely caused the patient’s symptoms?
a. Adrenergic antagonists
b. Cholinergic antagonists
c. Alcohols
d. Carbamates
e. Organophosphates
E
78
78. A 64-year-old man, recently diagnosed with myasthenia gravis, started treatment with neostigmine. Which of the
following adverse effects would be most likely in this patient?
a. Mydriasis
b. Over flow incontinence
c. Constipation
d. Sialorrhea
e. Near vision impairment
D
79
47-year-old man was admitted to the emergency department because of extreme muscle weakness, ptosis,
diplopia, and difficulty in swallowing, speaking, and breathing. The man, recently diagnosed with severe myasthenia
gravis, had been receiving neostigmine for the past 3 months. Which of the following responses to 2 mg of intravenous
edrophonium would indicate a cholinergic crisis?
a. No fasciculations, increased muscle strength
b. Fasciculations, decreased muscle strength
c. No fasciculations, no change in muscle strength
d. No fasciculations, decreased muscle strength
e. Fasciculations, increased muscle strength
B
80
80. A 60-year-old male patient presented for routine ophthalmic examination. Tonometry measured an intraocular
pressure of 28 mm Hg in both eyes (norm al 10−20 mm Hg). The patient had been suffering from complete
atrioventricular (AV) block for 2 years. The ophthalmologist prescribed appropriate eye drops. Which of the following
drugs was most likely included in the treatment?
a. Timolol
b. Prazosin
c. Isoproterenol
d. Pilocarpine
D
81
13-year-old boy started smoking his first cigarette. Which of the following effects was most likely elicited by nicotine
A. Bronchodilation
B. Dilation of the skin and splanchnic vessel
C. Increased epinephrine secretion from the adrenal medulla
D. Inhibition of gastrointestinal secretions
E. Relaxation of the detrusor muscle
C
82
A 77-year-old woman was found to have elevated intraocular pressure during a routine eye examination. History indicated that she had recently been taking several antimuscarinic medications to treat her bladder hyperreflexia. The ophthalmologist told her that he believed the increased intraocular pressure was an adverse effect of those medications.
Which of the following ocular actions most likely mediated this adverse effect?
a. Relaxation of the ciliary muscle
b. Relaxation of the radial muscle of the iris
c. Increased aqueous hum or production
d. Decreased episcleral aqueous humor outflow
e. Dilation of ciliary body vessels
A
83
An 85-year-old m ale resident of a nursing facility complained of frequent urinary urges that often resulted in urine
leakage. Darifenacin was prescribed to manage the patient’s incontinence. Which of the following actions most likely
mediate the therapeutic effect of the drug?
a. Decreased bladder internal sphincter tone
b. Decreased diuresis
c. Relaxation of the prostate capsule
d. Increased compliance of the bladder
e. Contraction of the detrusor muscle
D
84
patient with glaucoma complained of eye pain. Medication given to control IOP are oral acetazolamide and latanoprost with timolol in an ophthalmic solution.
84. Latanoprost is:
a. beta blocker
b. prostaglandin analog
c. anticholinergic
d. carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
e. cholinomimetic agent
B
85
patient with glaucoma complained of eye pain. Medication given to control IOP are oral acetazolamide and latanoprost with timolol in an ophthalmic solution.
Acetazolamide is:
a. beta blocker
b. prostaglandin analog
c. anticholinergic
d. carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
e. cholinomimetic agent
D
86
patient with glaucoma complained of eye pain. Medication given to control IOP are oral acetazolamide and latanoprost with timolol in an ophthalmic solution.
Latanoprost in this case was used as:
a. diagnostic
b. curative
c. protective
d. palliative
e. prophylactic
C
87
Mechanism of action of acetazolamide to lower IOP in glaucoma is through which of the following?
a. decreasing the aqueous humor secretion
b. enhanced the uveoscleral outflow
c. enhancing the outflow directly opening the trabecular meshwork
d. enhancing the outflow by ciliary muscles contraction
e. blocking the enzyme that allow aqueous flow
E
88
Mechanism of action of pilocarpine to lower IOP in glaucoma is through which of the following?
a. decreasing the aqueous humor secretion
b. enhanced the uveoscleral outflow
c. enhancing the outflow directly opening the trabecular meshwork
d. enhancing the outflow by ciliary muscles contraction
e. blocking the enzyme that allow aqueous flow
C
89
90
Hypersensitive individuals to acetazolamide is expected to experience any of the following; except which of the
following?
a. swelling of the face
b. regular heartbeat
c. headache
d. increased tear secretion
e. confusion
D
91
Aside from the two medications mentioned above, the following drugs can also be used in the management of glaucoma EXCEPT
A. timolol
b. betaxolol
c. carteolol
d. metoprolol
d
92
Why propranolol is not used in glaucoma?
a. Propranolol decreased intraocular pressure without causing miosis, accommodative spasm or other irritating
side effects.
b. Propranolol does not decrease IOP significantly
c. Propranolol can cause migraine headache
d. Propranolol can cause tachycardia
e. All of the above
A
93
Mechanism of action of beta blockers to lower IOP in glaucoma is through which of the following?
a. decreasing the aqueous humor secretion
b. enhanced the uveoscleral outflow
c. enhancing the outflow directly opening the trabecular meshwork
d. enhancing the outflow by ciliary muscles contraction
e. blocking the enzyme that allow aqueous flow
A
94
Rho-kinase inhibitors help lower IOP by which of the following?
a. increasing AH outflow
b. reducing AH production
c. decreasing episcleral venous pressure
d. none of these
e. all of these
E
95
Local adverse effects of rho-kinase inhibitors include the following; except:
a. conjunctival hyperemia
b. subconjunctival hemorrhages
c. cornea verticillate
d. none of these
e. all of these
D
96
96. Rho-kinase inhibitors have the advantage over other medications in the management of glaucoma since they have
direct effect on which of the following?
a. trabecular meshwork
b. ciliary body
c. retina
d. all of these
e. none of these
D
97
Pilocarpine is often contraindicated in patients with uveitis and secondary glaucoma because of which of the
following?
a. its miotic effect may predispose to posterior synechiae and pupillary occlusion
b. its prolonged miotic effect can cause tetani to iris muscle
c. its strong contractile force applied on the iris muscle can cause spasm and later on cause rebound hypertrophy
d. its mydriatic effect may predispose to increase in IOP instead
e. its mydriatic effect may cause hypopigmentation of the iris
A
98
98. Subjective and Objective refraction revealed different results, what DPA will aid the Optometrist to come up with the
right result
a. Cyclopentolate
b. Phenylephrine
c. Atropine
A
99
Which of the following is the premier dye for corneal staining?
a. Fluorescein sodium
b. Rose Bengal
c. Indocyanine Green
d. Lissamine Green
A
100
100. It refers to the disappearance of active drug molecules from the blood stream relating to termination of drug action
a. Biotransformation
b. Excretion
c. Elimination
d. Bioavailability
C
101
