OCULAR PHARMACOLOGY 1 Flashcards by Norhannafarina Hamdag

Primary function of liver for biotransformation:
A. transformation of the drug to polar form enhancing renal excretion
B. transforming the drug to bound form to prolong their effects
C. enhancing binding of free form of the drug to receptor
D. transforming the drug from bound to free form to enhance renal excretion

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First inactive drug has no effect but when given together with 2ndactive drug, the
first drug enhances the effect of the 2nd active drug.
A. potentiation
B. additive
C. synergism
D. antagonism

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Enhancement of drug effect when vasopressor agent-adrenaline is incorporated
with local anesthetic agent lidocaine:
A. potentiation
B. additive
C. synergism
D. antagonism

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Enhancement of drug effect when NSAID-ibuprofen is combined with paracetamol:
A. potentiation
B. additive
C. synergism
D. antagonism

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Chemical agent which prevent the agonist to interacts at its receptor site thus
inhibiting the effect of the agonist:
A. potentiation
B. additive
C. synergism
D. antagonism

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The greater the concentration of the drug in the plasma, the greater is the rate of
renal excretion”
A. zero order kinetics of drug elimination
B. first order kinetics of drug elimination
C. zero order kinetics of absorption
D. first order kinetics of absorption

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Direct routes of drug administration e.g IV. IA, IC follows:
A. zero order kinetics of drug elimination
B. first order kinetics of drug elimination
C. zero order kinetics of absorption
D. first order kinetics of absorption

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The rate of drug elimination is constant regardless of drug concentration in the
plasma”
A. zero order kinetics of drug elimination
B. first order kinetics of drug elimination
C. zero order kinetics of absorption
D. first order kinetics of absorp

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Enhancement of drug effect if NSAID- Ibuprofen is combined with NSAID-
mefenamic acid:
A. potentiation
B. additive
C. synergism
D. antagonism

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Most commonly abused OTC:
A. cocaine
B. paracetamol/acetaminophen
C. methamphetamine
D. morphine

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Refers to the disappearance of active drug molecules from the general circulation
by metabolism leading to termination of desired pharmacologic effect:
*if EXCRETION it involves kidney
A. biotransformation
B. excretion
C. elimination (liver) nilalabas is active form pa rin
D. bioavailability

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Part of prescription order which gives direction pharmacist:
A. inscription
B. subscription
C. superscription
D. transcription

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Part of prescription order which gives full instructions to the patient on how to take
the medications:
A. inscription
B. subcscription
C. superscription
D. transcription/signature (body of RX order)

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The followings are the information given in inscription except:
A. amount of drug to be taken
B. generic name
C. dosage form of the drug
D. available preparation of drug

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Which of the following is a controlled drug which requires prescription order and
S2#?
A. cocaine
B. mefenamic acid
C. clarithromycin
D. oxytetrahydrozoline (eye-mO

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Margin of safety means: (therapeutic index)
A. concentration of drug in the body over the concentration of drug in plasma
B. measures the safety and usefulness of the drugs
C. plasma is cleared of the drug within the specified unit of time
D. 50% of the drug is removed from the above after discontinue taking the medicatioN

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Type of antagonism without interacting to the receptor sites:
A. competitive antagonism
B. non-competitive antagonism
C. physiologic antagonism
D. chemical antagonism/neutralization

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The followings are the mechanism of drug renal excretion except:

A. glomerular filtration
B. tubular reabsorption
C. tubular secretion
D. none of the above

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Exocrine gland that excrete the largest concentration of the medication:
(Pregnancy and Lactation)
A. lactating mammary glands
B. salivary glands
C. lacrimal glands
D. sweat glands

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The following organs are both organs for metabolism & excretion of the drug
except: (Kidney Liver Lungs) KiLL code name
A. lungs
B. digestive organs
C. liver
D. kidneys

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What is the meaning of “first order of drug elimination”?
A. fraction of the drug reaches the general circulation
B. 100% of the drug reaches the general circulation
C. rate of elimination is proportionate to the concentration of the drug in the plasma
D. implies elimination at constant rate regardless of concentration of drug in the plasma

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Which of the following is the most important parameter of pharmacokinetic?
A. volume of distribution
B. therapeutic index
C. total body clearance
D. half life

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The followings are the parameters of pharmacokinetic except: (ADME)
A. volume of distribution
B. therapeutic window
C. total body clearance
D. half life

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What is “zero order of drug elimination”?
A. fraction of the drug reaches the general circulation
B. 100% of the drug reaches the general circulation
C. rate of elimination is proportionate to the concentration of the drug in the plasma
D. implies elimination at constant rate regardless of concentration of drug in the plasma

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The followings are information included in transcription except: A. route of drug administration B. frequency of intake C. amount of medication to be taken D. generic form of the medication

What is the mechanism of NaCl tablet absorption? A. active transport B. simple diffusion C. facilitated diffusion D. phagocytosis

Pertains to the body of the prescription order: A. transcription B. inscription C. superscription D. subscriptioN

Legal concept of prescription stating that the practitioners should educate the patient regarding the drugs to be given to the patient: A. doctrine of minors and incompetents B. doctrine of informed consent C. doctrine of respondent superior D. doctrine of independence

Legal concept of prescription states the responsibility of the practitioner for whatever actions done by his subordinate: A. doctrine of minors and incompetents B. doctrine of informed consent C. doctrine of respondent superior D. doctrine of independence

Legal concept of prescription characterized by allowing to patient to know the procedure to be done, pros & cons, benefits and adverse effects of the procedures to be done: A. doctrine of minors and incompetents B. doctrine of informed consent C. doctrine of respondent superior D. doctrine of discharge

What is substance-I of the controlled substances approved by the BFAD? A. has less abuse potential and limited physical or psychological dependence B. has high abuse potential and abuse leading to severe psychic or physical dependence C. has high abuse potential and no accepted medical use D. has limited physical or psychological abuse potential

What is substance-V (loperamide and Nsaids) of the controlled substances approved by the BFAD? A. less abuse potential and limited physical or psychological dependence B. high abuse potential and abuse leading to severe psychic or physical dependence C. high abuse potential and no accepted medical use D. limited physical or psychological abuse potential

Which of the following drug belongs to substance-I of the controlled substance? A. methamphetamine/cannabis sativa(marijuana) B. loperamide C. cocaine D. phenobarbital

Which of the following is not the specific receptor theory-mechanism of action of proparacaine? A. block the internal opening of sodium channels B. incorporate and becomes part of cell membrane C. block the external opening of sodium channels D. compete with calcium guarding Na+ channels

5. Prescribing guideline of this controlled substance states that it should not be refilled >5x after the date of PO is issued: A. C-III/IV B. C-V C. C-I D. C-II

Prescribing guideline of this controlled substance states that it should not be available for therapeutic use: A. C-III B. C-V C. C-I D. C-II

Prescribing guideline of this controlled substance states that it should not be dispensed if more than 6 months after the date of PO is issued: A. C-III B. C-V C. C-I D. C-II

Prescribing guideline of this controlled substance states that it should not be supplied >3days after the date of PO is issued: A. C-III B. C-V C. C-I D. C-II

Part of the prescription order which means “take” A. transcription B. inscription C. superscription D. subscription

Part of the prescription order which means “write” A. transcription B. inscription C. superscription D. subscription

Not a carrier-mechanism of drug absorption which are characterized by movement of drug molecules from higher to lower concentration: A. active transport (carrier mechanism) B. simple diffusion C. facilitated diffusion D. phagocytosis

The following are the characteristics of lipid soluble medication EXCEPT: A. non-polar form B. uncharged form C. unionized form D. pH=6.0 (acid) neutral ph is 7-14. Vitamin C scurvy

Which of the following is lipid insoluble medication which requires BAK for absorption? A. proparacaine B. alkaloids (belladonna alkaloids – Atropine) - lumabas C. carbachol D. prednisone

Ofloxacin ophthalmic solution for sore or pink eyes caused by virus: A. protective B. prophylactic - (Prevent) C. diagnostic D. curative E. palliative

Nifedipine for chronic essential hypertension A. protective – maintenance meds B. prophylactic C. diagnostic D. curative E. palliative

Naproxen to relieved pain in rheumatoid arthritis: A. protective B. prophylactic C. diagnostic D. curative E. palliative

Pilocarpine to maintain the intraocular pressure in angle closure glaucoma: A. protective B. prophylactic C. diagnostic D. curative E. palliative

Cyclopentolate as mydriatic agent during ophthalmoscopy: A. protective B. prophylactic C. diagnostic D. curative E. palliative

Tobramycin ophthalmic solution for ophthalmia neonatorum: A. protective B. prophylactic C. diagnostic D. curative --- reverse dse process E. palliative

The following are the ocular side effects of oral contraceptives except: A. central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) B. contact lens intolerance C. central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO) D. far-sightedness

The following drugs are used for myasthenia gravis except: (Neostigmine,Ambenonium,Pyredostigmin(drug of choice),Endrophonium) A. physostigmine – PEDD use for glaucoma B. edrophonium - diagnostic (tensilon test) C. neostigmine D. ambenonium

Triads of clinical manifestations after giving atropine IV except: A. dry mouth B. loose bowel movement C. tachycardia D. mydriasis

Best term for open angle glaucoma: uveoscleral outflow AH, 80% trabecular meshwork 20% A. uncompensated glaucoma B. narrow angle glaucoma C. emergency glaucoma D. compensated glaucoma

Most common ocular side effect of pilocarpine ophthalmic solution: A. iris cyst B. uveitis C. ciliary spasm D. ciliary congestion

Medication that produced melanin-like deposits (adenochrome) on the cornea and conjunctiva on repeated use: A. atropine B. tropicamide C. epinephrine/phenylephrine D. benoxinate

Medication that produced iris cyst formation reversed by 2.5% phenylephrine: A. atropine B. betaxolol C. hydroxyamphetamine D. echothiophate

Route of corticosteroid treatment having high incidence of secondary open-angle glaucoma: A. topical (kasi deretso na sa mata) B. parenteral C. alimentary D. inhalation

Longest-acting, strongest and most primitive mydriatic and cycloplegic agent: A. pilocarpine B. atropine C. tropicamide D. cyclopentolate

Classify cyclopentolate: A. cholinergic agonist B. adrenergic agonist C. cholinergic antagonist D. adrenergic antagonist

Antipsychotic agent which causes contact lens intolerance: A. phenothiazine B. etretinate C. progestins D. clomiphene

Fertility drug that causes contact lens intolerance: A. phenothiazine B. etretinate C. progestins D. clomiphene

Newest form of vitamin A which causes contact lens intolerance: A. phenothiazine B. etretinate C. progestins D. clomiphene

Non-active agent that dissolves the active form of the drug, controlling its viscosity and aids the transport of the active drug: A. buffering agent B. ophthalmic vehicle C. excipient D. surfactant

Chemical agent that gives form or consistency to the drug preparation but with limited used in ophthalmic preparation A. buffering agent B. ophthalmic vehicle C. excipient D. surfactant

Anatomic space in an eyeball separated by ocular barriers: A. compartment B. compartment modeling C. compartment analysis D. cavities

What happen when micelles form in water? A. tail of amphophilic surfactant forms a core encapsulating oil droplet B. head of amphophilic surfactant forms a core encapsulating water droplet C. head of amphophilic surfactant comes in contact with oil D. tail of amphophilic surfactant comes in contact with water

What happen in reverse micelles? A. tail of amphophilic surfactant forms a core encapsulating oil droplet B. head of amphophilic surfactant forms a core encapsulating water droplet C. head of amphophilic surfactant comes in contact with oil D. tail of amphophilic surfactant comes in contact with water

Characteristic of the “head” of amphophilic surfactant: A. hydrophilic B. lipophilic C. zwitterions D. cationic

Characteristic of the tail of amphophilic surfactant? A. hydrophilic B. lipophilic C. zwitterions D. cationic

The following the indications of thimerosal (Merthiolate) + EDTA except: A. preservative in tattoo inks B. preservative in ophthalmic solution C. preservative in vaccines – allergy (anaphylaxis) Steven Johnson Syndrome D. preservative in IV fluids

Lubricants in ophthalmic ointment except: A. carboxymethylcellulose B. lanolin C. white petrolatum D. mineral oil

Lubricants in ophthalmic solution except: A. methylcellulose B. polyvinyl alcohol C. dextran D. polyvinyl pyrrolidine

Hydrolytic enzyme that destroy the norepinephrine of adrenergic nerve: A. MAO B. COMT C. AchE D. A & B only

Hydrolytic enzyme that destroy the neurotransmitter of cholinergic nerve A. MAO B. COMT C. AchEstearse D. A & B only

Neurotransmitter at terminal ends of adrenergic nerve: A. norepinephrine/noradrenaline or Epinephrine/adrenaline B. serotonin C. acetylcholine D. dopamine

Neurotransmitter at terminal ends of cholinergic nerve: A. norepinephrine B. serotonin C. acetylcholine D. dopamine

Inhibitor of adrenergic nerve at alpha-2 receptor: A. yohimbine -- lumabas B. timolol C. prazosin D. tropicamide

Inhibitor of adrenergic nerve at alpha-1 receptor: A. yohimbine B. timolol C. prazosin D. tropicamide

Inhibitor of cholinergic nerve at nicotinic receptor: A. curare B. timolol C. prazosin D. tropicamide

Inhibitor of adrenergic nerve at beta-2 receptor: -- lahat may OLOL sa dulo A. curare B. timolol C. prazosin D. tropicamide

Inhibitor of adrenergic nerve at beta-1 receptor: A. curare B. timolol C. prazosin D. tropicamide

Inhibitor of cholinergic nerve at muscarinic receptor: A. yohimbine B. propanolol C. curare D. atropine

Antidote for physostigmine poisoning: A. pilocarpine B. propanolol C. atropine D. yohimbine

Diagnostic agent used to identify the cause of sudden ptosis in myasthenia gravis: A. physostigminE B. edrophonium ( tensilon test) C. neostigmine D. ambenonium

Drug of choice to relieve ptosis in myasthenia gravis: A. physostigmine B. edrophonium C. neostigmine D. ambenonium

Lowest concentration of pilocarpine to constrict the pupils in Adie’s syndrome: (pupils is hyper reactive) A. 0.5% B. 10% C. 1% D. 0.1%

Reversing agent to the mydriatic effect of atropine: A. cyclopentolate (Red) B. pilocarpine (Green) C. dorzolamide (orange) D. phenylephrine (red)

Desired effect of pilocarpine used in glaucoma: A. open the trabecular meshwork B. decrease aqueous humor secretion C. contraction of Bruck’s muscles D. A & C only

Desired effect of epinephrine used in glaucoma? A. open the trabecular meshwork B. decrease aqueous humor secretion C. contraction of Bruck’s muscles D. A & B only

Reversing agent for mydriatic effect of tropicamide: A. pilocarpine B. pheylephrine C. mannitol D. atropine

Ocular effect of drug acting on alpha2 (inhibitory) receptor at the ciliary process: A. decrease the secretion of aqueous humor B. increase the secretion of aqueous humor C. contraction of the ciliary muscles D. paralysis of accommodation

What is effect of epinephrine on beta2 (excitory) at the ciliary process? A. increase the secretion of aqueous humor B. decrease the secretion of aqueous humor C. contraction of the ciliary muscles D. paralysis of accommodation

Ocular effect of naphazoline at alpha1 on conjunctival vessels: A. vasoconstriction B. ciliary injections C. neovascularization D. conjunctival injectionS

Ocular effect of epinephrine at Mueller’s muscles of the eyelids: A. lid retraction B. complete blepharoptosis C. partial blepharoptosis D. lagophthalmos

Enhancement of drug effect of combination of atropine with physostigmine: A. additive B. potentiation C. synergism D. antagonism

Enhancement of drug effect of combination of pilocarpine(miotic agent) with epinephrine (mydriatic agent) at the pupil: A. additive B. potentiation C. synergism D. antagonism

The following medications are used to control IOP in open angle glaucoma except: A. ambenonium B. demecarium C. physostigmine D. echothiophate

Enhancement of drug effect of combination of echothiophate with phenylephrine at the pupil: A. additive B. potentiation C. synergism D. antagonism

Receptor site of conjunctival blood vessels: A. alpha-1 B. beta-2 C. nicotinic D. alpha-2 E. muscarinic-3

Receptor site of recti muscles: A. alpha-1 B. beta-2 C. nicotinic D. alpha-2 E. muscarinic=3