CLINIC 1 Flashcards
1
Q
Bitemporal hemianopsia is caused by a problem in the:
a. Optic chiasm
b. Optic radiation
c. Thalamus
d. Visual cortex
A
A
2
Q
- A term applied to the apparent increase of accommodation by adding minus lenses at a near point without a
change in convergence
a. Positive Relative Convergence
b. Negative Relative Accommodation
c. Negative Relative Convergence
d. Positive Relative Accommodation
A
D
3
Q
A patient came in complaining of severe BOV with primary gaze but found relief when viewing eccentrically. Upon
examination, a restricted visual field was observed. What test can we immediately perform to assess the size
and shape of the remaining visual field?
a. Amsler grid
b. Broad H test
c. Hirschberg test
d. Confrontation test
A
A
4
Q
- Goal of gerontology, except
a. Extend life span
b. Improve quality of life
c. Minimizes disabilities
d. None
A
A
5
Q
Geriatric Optometry deals with, except
a. General and physiological changes of aging
b. Common geriatric systemic and ocular diseases
c. Spectacle dispensing aspects in patients of all ages
d. None
A
C
6
Q
- A spoke-like appearance and opacity of the outer part of the crystalline lens.
a. Nuclear Cataract
b. Cortical Cataract
c. Posterior Subcapsular Cataract
d. Traumatic Cataract
A
B
7
Q
What EOR shift does “second sight” to elderly means?
a. Hyperopia
b. Myopia
c. Astigmatism
d. Presbyopia
A
B
8
Q
- Controlling hypertension includes, except
a. Taking hypoglycemic medications
b. Exercise and diet
c. Avoid smoking
d. None of the above
A
A
9
Q
The severity of diabetic retinopathy is directly related to the patient’s blood glucose level, and which of the
following?
a. Age of the patient
b. Duration of diabetes mellitus
c. Family history
d. Gender of the patient
A
B
10
Q
- A 59-year-old male patient who had a history of vehicular accident was complaining of cloudy and hazy vision.
Upon slit lamp examination, a cheese-like opacity was found in the crystalline lens. What type of cataract was
seen?
a. Nuclear
b. Cortical
c. Posterior Subcapsular
d. Congenital
A
C
11
Q
According to WHO, what is the major cause and most avoidable vision loss worldwide?
a. Uncorrected EOR
b. Cataract
c. Glaucoma
d. ARMD
A
A
12
Q
- According to WHO working definition of Low Vision (WHO) in the better eye after treatment, and/or standard
refraction correction, visual field should be less than
a. 10◦
b. 20◦
c. 30◦
d. 40◦
A
B
13
Q
Legal blindness is defined as
a. 20/200 or better in the better seeing eye
b. 20/200 or worse in the better seeing eye
c. 20/200 or worse in the worse seeing eye
d. 20◦ field loss in the periphery of each eye
A
B
14
Q
. A type of refraction techniques closer than usual distance and can sometimes facilitate detection or
neutralization of motion and can be helpful when media opacities are present.
a. Static retinoscopy
b. MEM retinoscopy
c. Radical retinoscopy
d. Dynamic Retinoscopy
A
C
15
Q
- Optical aid of choice for patients with central scotoma which will allow a him/her to use an eccentric retinal area
more easily
a. Spectacles
b. Handheld magnifier
c. Stand magnifier
d. Telescope
A
B
16
Q
A 20D handheld magnifier, magnifies the image:
a. 10x
b. 4x
c. 5x
d. 8x
A
C
17
Q
- Under what category does photophobia belong?
a. Visual Disorder
b. Visual Impairment
c. Visual Disability
d. Visual Handicap
A
B
18
Q
Visual defect of a patient with Retinitis Pigmentosa
a. Central
b. Peripheral
c. Arcuate scotoma
d. Altitudinal
A
B
19
Q
- The most common form of sensory substitution for low vision patient involve the use of
a. Auditory
b. Olfactory
c. Sight
d. Tactile
A
D
20
Q
. A patient with OU -10.00 BCVA 20/200 wants to achieve a distance VA of 20/40. How much magnification is
needed?
a. 2x
b. 2.5x
c. 4x
d. 5x
A
D
21
Q
- What power of the lens is needed by a person requiring 5x magnification using a reference distance of 40cm?
a. 10D
b. 12.5D
c. 15D
d. 20D
A
B
22
Q
. A 40-year-old male with myasthenia gravis was complaining of blurring of vision at far. His visual tasks are
watching television, and cooking. Upon examination, results showed OU -2.00D add 1.50 BCVA 20/80, cc near
VA 2M at 40cm. What could be the best optical aids would you recommend to the patient?
a. Spectacle
b. Handheld magnifier
c. Stand magnifier
d. Telescope
A
A
23
Q
- Employers and employees should consult the following; except one to become knowledgeable of the legal
requirements applicable to their area.
a. federal
b. state
c. local safety and health regulatory authorities
d. public attorney’s office
A
D
24
Q
The employees and students shall use such protector devices.
a. Where there is a reasonable probability of impact from flying objects, a protector with side protection shall
be required.
b. Where there is a reasonable probability of impact from metal debris, a protector with front and side
protection shall be required.
c. Where there is a reasonable probability of impact from falling debris, a protector with full protection shall
be required.
d. Where there is a reasonable probability of impact from splashing liquid, a protector with front protection
shall be required.
A
A
25
25. For hazard assessment, the objective for organizing data is to;
a. prepare for an analysis of the hazards in the environment to enable proper selection of protective
equipment
b. identify sources of high temperatures that could result in facial burns, eye injury or ignition of protective
equipment, etc.
c. identify sources of potential eye and face hazards.
d. Specify the protector(s) suitable for the hazards identified.
A
26
Caution shall be exercised to;
a. ensure that the level of protection provided by any protector is adequate for its intended purpose.
b. ensure that the level of protection provided by warning signs is enough for its intended purpose.
c. ensure that the level of protection provided by employers in the workplace is adequate for its intended
purpose.
d. ensure that the level of protection provided by the machine used is adequate for its intended purpose.
D
27
27. They are designed for specific applications
a. filter Lenses and windows
b. special purpose protectors and lenses
c. prescription (Rx) eyewear
d. all of the above
B
28
Protectors that fit poorly will not afford the protection for which they were;
a. designed
b. molded
c. made
d. licensed
A
29
Some protectors may not be compatible with other personal protective equipment when worn together, such as;
except:
a. goggles with faceshields
b. goggles with respirators
c. spectacles with goggles.
d. goggles with tints and prescription
D
30
30. Protectors shall be maintained in a usable condition in accordance with;
a. manufacturer's instructions.
b. doctors instructions
c. Employers instructions
d. safety regulators instructions
A
31
In fitting devices for the patients, careful consideration should be given to;
a. comfort and fit
b. design and comfort
c. design and fit
d. fit and flexibility
A
32
32. Motility testing: Isolating an extraocular muscle helps to assess for weakness or strength of that certain
muscle. To isolate the Inferior rectus muscle, the patient is instructed to look ___________
a. Up
b. Down
c. Down and out
d. Down and in
C
33
In primary position of gaze, the patient’s right eye is positioned temporally. With supraversion, a significant
increase in the magnitude of deviation is observed. With infraversion, a significant decrease in the magnitude of
deviation is observed. The patient has ___________.
a. V pattern Right exotropia
b. A pattern Right exotropia
c. V pattern Right esotropia
d. A pattern Right esotropia
A
34
34. In primary position of gaze, the patient’s right eye is positioned nasally. With supraversion, a significant
increase in the magnitude of deviation is observed. With infraversion, a significant decrease in the magnitude of
deviation is observed. That patient has ___________.
a. V pattern Right exotropia
b. A pattern Right exotropia
c. V pattern Right esotropia
d. A pattern Right esotropia
D
35
As the convergence demand is increased and the patient maintains fusion, the target may appear to become
smaller and move closer or in toward the patient
A. SILO
A
36
36. The following instruments use anaglyphs, except
a. Tranaglyph
b. Vectogram
c. Pegboard disc rotator
d. Worth 4-Dot
B
37
If the central points on both sides of the Van Orden Star come to a point at approximately 25mm, the patient
may have ______________.
a. Esotropia
b. Exotropia
c. Hypertropia
d. Hypotropia
B
38
38. VO Star: If the central points on both sides come to a point at approximately 55mm, the patient may have
______________.
a. Esotropia
b. Exotropia
c. Hypertropia
d. Hypotropia
A
39
Probes the ability to shift accommodation closer or farther than the plane of regard while maintaining
binocular alignment.
a. Monocular flippers
b. Binocular flippers
c. +/-2.00D
d. +/-2.50D
B
40
One side of the paper has a target and the other side is blank. The patient is asked to look into the instrument
and trace the target that he or she sees, using the blank paper in front of him or her and a pencil.
a. Van orden star
b. AN star
c. Cheiroscope
d. Vectogram
C
41
Tranaglyph: If the red filter is placed on the right eye, the green filter on the left eye, the right eye sees only
the red slide, while the left eye sees only the green slide.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Neither
B
42
42. A prism diopter demand is defined as a separation of _____ at a distance of 1 meter.
a. 10cm
b. 10mm
c. 1m
d. 1mm
B
43
If the green target of the tranaglyph is moved to the right and the red target to the left, __________ is
stimulated.
a. Convergence
b. Divergence
c. Central fusion
d. Stereopsis/ peripheral fusion
B
44
44. The following tools are free space training, except
a. Aperture rule
b. Life saver fusion cards
c. Brock string
d. Stereoscope
D
45
______ aperture is used for Base out training
a. Single
b. Double
c. Septum
d. Mirror
A
46
46. If the patient has right exotropia, the compensatory head turn is towards the left. If the patient has left
esotropia, the compensatory head turn is towards the right.
a. First statement is true. Second statement is false.
b. First statement is false. Second statement is true.
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are false
A
47
If the corneal reflex is located temporal to the pupil, the neutralizing prism used to measure the deviation is:
a. Base out
b. Base in
c. Base up
d. Base down
A
48
48. If the corneal reflex is located superior to the pupil, the measuring prism used to measure the deviation is:
a. Base out
b. Base in
c. Base up
d. Base down
C
49
To isolate the Right inferior oblique muscle, the patient is instructed to look ____________.
a. Up
b. Down
c. Up and in
d. Up and out
C
50
50. What is the second circle of Skeffington’s model of vision?
a. Language
b. Centering
c. Identification
d. Anti-gravity
B
51
If OD is covered using the occluder, OS moves in. If OS is covered, OD remains stationary. The patient has
_________.
a. Left esotropia
b. Left exotropia
c. Right exotropia
B
52
A period of “ignorance” or starts with conception.
a. Prenatal
b. Perinatal
c. Postnatal
d. None of the above
A
53
53. Accommodation is present at what age?
a. 3-4 months
b. 1 year
c. 6 months
d. 1 month
A
54
Foveal reflex is present at:
a. 34 weeks of gestation
b. 36 weeks of gestation
c. 37 weeks of gestation
d. 35 weeks of gestation
C
55
55. Binocular vision is present at:
a. 1-2 months
b. 3-4 months
c. 5-6 months
d. 7-8 months
B
56
Neuroectoderm gives rise to the following compartments of the eye except:
a. Vitreous
b. Retina
c. Optic Nerves
d. Aqueous
D
57
57. Pupillary response is present at _________ of gestation:
a. 27 weeks
b. 31 weeks
c. 29 weeks
d. 32 weeks
B
58
. A type of test that measures the response of the brain stimulations to alternating black and white stripes or
checks.
a. Preferential looking test
b. Visual evoked potential
c. Optokinetic Nystagmus
d. Contrast Sensitivity Test
B
59
59. Cones density increases by age.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. None of the above
A
60
Cone cells appear at ___ months postnatal
a. 5 months
b. 10 months
c. 11 months
d. 8 months
B
61
61. Amount of tonus allowance in Tropicamide:
a. + 0.25 D
b. +1.50 D
c. +0.75 D
d. +1.00D
A
62
Duration of Tropicamide:
a. 10-12 hrs
b. 6-8 hrs
c. 24 hrs
d. 1-3 hrs
B
63
63. Which of the following charts has 4 picture optotypes?
a. Landolt C
b. Teller Acuity Cards
c. Allen Pictures
d. Patti Pics
D
64
The ideal time of examining an infant is when:
a. The child is not crying
b. The child is full; after eating
c. The child is awake and attentive
d. The child is playing with the practitioner
D
65
What are the symbols seen in the Lea Symbols Chart?
a. Square, house, apple, star
b. Circle, heart, star, house
c. Apple, circle, star, square
d. Apple, square, house, circle
D
66
66. A picture optotype chart used for 2-3 years of age with matching cards suitable for children who cannot speak.
a. Kay Pictures
b. TAC
c. Cardiff cards
d. American Optical Pictures
A
67
What is the refractive status of a newborn?
a. Myopia
b. Hyperopia
c. Emmetropia
d. Astigmatism
B
68
68. The ideal time of examining an infant is when:
a. The child is not crying
b. The child is full; after eating
c. The child is awake and attentive
d. The child is playing with the practitioner
C
69
Optokinetic Nystagmus is monocularly present nasalward at what age?
a. 12 months
b. 6 months
c. 3 months
d. Newborn
D
70
70. A normal location of the light reflex seen in the Hirschberg test.
a. +0.5mm temporally
b. +0.5mm nasally
c. -0.5mm temporally
d. -0.5mm nasally
B
71
All are true about confrontation test in preverbal children, except:
a. An examiner should align himself at the same eye level with the infant.
b. An examiner needs 2 toys, one that makes noises.
c. Confrontation field may not be approximately the same size as that of the examiner.
d. Best estimation to perform this test is at about 6 months of age.
C
72
72. All are true about Teller Acuity Cards, except:
a. A type of Minimum Discriminable
b. A type of Forced Preferential Looking test
c. A type of Minimum legible
d. A type of Recognition Acuity
A
73
are true about cycloplegic retinoscopy, except:
a. Cyclopentolate 1% should be instilled one drop, one at a time, 5 mins apart in each eye.
b. Tropicamide 1% is used for children with Down Syndrome.
c. Tropicamide 0.5% is used for low birthweight infants with modified dosage.
d. Fair skinned children may exhibit increased response to tropicamide 1%.
A
74
74. All statements are true, except:
a. Anisometropia is a common variable in infants.
b. Cycloplegic Retinoscopy should be performed when intermittent strabismus is present.
c. Near Retinoscopy is performed next when a child has no adverse reaction to cycloplegic drugs.
d. Perform cycloplegic retinoscopy with lens rack 30 minutes after instillation.
C
75
All statements are false about MEM retinoscopy, except:
a. A type of subjective accommodative testing.
b. Hard to perform with children with inactive accommodation.
c. Harmon distance is used as testing distance.
d. It has the same standard in Dynamic Retinoscopy.
C
76
76. Ideal Cycloplegics should have/has:
a. Partial paralysis of accommodation
b. Rapid onset and recovery of accommodation
c. Have severity side effects
d. Has wide monochromatic aberration
B
77
All are true about Lea Symbols, except:
a. The LH symbol test is slightly different from the Allen card test in that it is made up of flash cards held together
by a spiral binding.
b. flash cards contain large examples of a house, apple, circle, and square.
c. The LH symbol test contains flash cards with more than 1 figure per card and with smaller figure sizes so that
testing may be performed at least 10 feet.
d. If it is not possible to perform testing at 10 feet, move away to the child until he or she correctly identifies the
largest symbol.
D
78
78. All are true about assessing ocular alignment in children, except:
a. A penlight may be used to evaluate light reflection from the cornea
b. The corneal light reflex should be present assymmetrically and appear to be in the center of both pupils
c. A reflex that is off center in one eye may be an indication of an eye muscle imbalance
d. A slight nasal displacement of the reflex is normal.
B
79
All statements are true about Bruckner test, except:
Statement 1: When both eyes are viewed simultaneously through the direct ophthalmoscope in a darkened room from a
distance of approximately 2 to 3 feet with the child fixating on the ophthalmoscope light, the red reflexes seen from each
eye should be equal in size, brightness, and color
Statement 2: If 1 reflex is different from the other, there is a high likelihood that a binocular anomaly/condition exist
Statement 3: This test can hardly detect amblyogenic conditions, such as high unequal refractive errors.
Statement 4: This test can detect amblyogenic conditions, such as unequal refractive errors
a. Statement 1
b. Statement 2
c. Statement 3
d. Statement 4
C
80
Which of the following is true about Random Dot E test?
a. It measures stereopsis only
b. To perform the random dot E stereo test, the cards should be held 40 inches from the child’s eyes
c. If the child is wearing eyeglasses, do not place the stereo glasses over the child’s glasses.
d. Examiners may tilt the cards toward the floor or the ceiling to cause intense brightness.
A
81
81. All are true about Allen Cards, except:
a. The Allen card test consists of 4 flash cards containing 7 schematic figures: a truck, house, birthday
cake, bear, telephone, horse, and tree.
b. It is important that a child identify verbally or by matching all 7 pictures before actual visual testing.
c. Perform initial testing with the child having both eyes open, viewing the cards at 2 to 3 feet away.
d. Present 1 or 2 figures to ensure that the child understands the testing procedure. Then begin walking
forward 2 to 3 feet at a time, presenting different pictures to the child.
D
82
A test performed to determine whether treatment may be indicated for a potentially significant heterophoria or intermittent strabismus.
a. Cover Test
b. Prism Cover Test
c. Step Vergence Test
d. Near Point of Convergence Test
C
83
83. All statements are true about assessing NPC in infant, except:
a. To test the convergence, the examiner can set the transilluminator directly in front of the infant and
move towards the infant.
b. The moment there is a change in reflex location on either eye will indicate the recovery point.
c. NPC test relies more on objective than subjective procedures in preverbal patients.
d. None of the above
B
84
Used to screen for substantial field losses.
a. Confrontation Visual Field
b. Amsler grid test
c. NPC
d. NPA
A
85
85. All are true about assessing confrontation field test in children, except:
a. Patient’s eyeglasses must be removed
b. Examiner faces the patient at eye level at a distance of 23-30 inches.
c. The distance between the patient and examiner must be illuminated, the rest of the testing room should
be dimly illuminated
d. All statements above are true
D
86
Which of the following is not a sign/symptom of Argyll Robertson Pupils?
a. Constricted both eyes
b. No reaction to light
c. Either one eye constricted
d. No problem in accommodation
C
87
87. To test the extent/restriction of the movements of the muscle.
a. Pupil Reflex
b. Ocular Motility Test
c. Hirschberg Test
d. Maddox Rod Test
B
88
Which is not part of the review of systems under Postnatal development?
a. Speech and Motor Development
b. Chronic fever & unexplained loss or weight gain
c. Primitive Reflexes
d. APGAR score
D
89
are scenarios during perinatal period, except:
a. Suction Delivery
b. Congenital Malformations
c. Induced Birth Agents
d. Placental abruption
B
90
is used to enlarge a socket in a patient who has gone without a prosthesis for a long period of time with the subsequent
shrinking of the socket.
a. Conformer
b. Bio Eye
c. Teflon
d. Beren's Sphere
A
91
91. Contact lens shape without optics
a. Channel
b. Contact Shell
c. Cosmetic Shell
d. Cosmetic Lens
A
92
is a plastic ocular prosthesis that is essentially a painted haptic lens.
a. Prosthesis
b. Prosthetic Shell
c. Prosthetic Eye
d. Prosthetic Lens
B
93
93. Who is the famous french surgeon who was the first to describe the use of artificial eyes to fit an eye socket?
a. Pare
b. Lauscha
c. Muller
d. Eugen
A
94
It is a clear, plastic oval-shaped concave disc placed in the socket over the implant during post of treatment
a. Conformer
b. Bio Sphere
c. Haptic Lens
d. Scleral Shell
A
95
95. It is the type of skin grafting that is obtained from a donor who is preserved or frozen.
a. Autograft
b. Xenograft
c. Allograft
d. None of the above
C
96
Regarding the treatment of accommodative problems, which of the following statements is true?
a. Increase monocular amplitude in the worst eye
b. Improve accommodative facility on the worst eye
c. Equalize the ability to clear the plus and minus side of the accommodative flippers
d. Start treatment using binocular accommodative rock
C
97
97. The following are true about image distortion through strong lenses:
a. It is mainly the result of chromatic aberration
b. It is mainly the result of spherical aberration
c. Pin cushion distortion occurs with high minus lens
d. Barrel distortion occurs with high plus lenses
B
98
The statement about presbyopia is false:
a. It tends to occur earlier or sooner in myopia than hypermetropia
b. It tends to occur earlier in uncorrected than corrected hypermetropia
c. It tends to occur earlier in the tropics than in temperate countries
d. It occurs in patients whose amplitude of accommodation is less than 4D, reads clearly at 25cm, the appropriate
glasses should be 2D
A
99
99. If hyperopia is present from birth to 5 years of age, corrections is given in all of the following, except
a. If hyperopia is greater than 3.00D
b. In lesser amount of hyperopia with significant esophoria
c. In lesser amount of hyperopia with significant exophoria
d. Undercorrected amounts greater than 2.00D when exophoria or exotropia is present
C
100
The visual field of an elderly patient may appear to be contracted, this is due to
a. Cataract
b. Age related macular degeneration
c. Diabetes
d. Involutional miosis
D
