CLINIC 2 Flashcards
1
Q
It is a binocular form of treatment that involves presentation of peripheral stimulus to both eyes, while only the
amblyopic eye is stimulated at the fovea.
A. Peripheral Awareness Technique
B. Monocular Fixation in Binocular Field
C. Red Light Stimulation/Therapy
D. Fixational Disparity
A
B
2
Q
- Which of the following statement is not correct about Amblyopia Exanopsia?
A. The reduced or retarded central vision is attributed to long standing suppression
B. Commonly associated with bilateral strabismus
C. Relative to uncorrected anisometropia
D. Inhibition of the central impulses from one eye.
A
B
3
Q
- It refers to deterioration or loss of central visual acuity relative to that previously attained.
A. Amblyopia of Extinction
B. Amblyopia of Arrest
C. Functional Amblyopia
D. Relative Amblyopia
A
A
4
Q
Reduced central vision attributed to failure of development, faulty development caused by constant
suppression or disuse.
A. Amblyopia of Extinction
B. Amblyopia of Arrest
C. Functional Amblyopia
D. Relative Amblyopia
A
B
5
Q
- The following are signs and symptoms of Functional Amblyopia except?
A. Crowding Phenomenon
B. Relatively good visual acuity under low level of luminance
C. Reduced Visual Acuity under low of luminance.
D. Eccentric Fixation
A
C
6
Q
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A
7
Q
A
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8
Q
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A
9
Q
A
10
Q
What does the result implies if after subjecting the patient to afterimage test, the vertical afterimage with its
central hole appears to the left or to the right of the hole in the horizontal image?
A. Presence of NRC
B. Presence of ARC
C. D. Presence of foveal suppression of both eyes
Presence of peripheral suppression of both eyes
A
B
11
Q
- A type of reflex occurs later in infancy.
A. Primitive survival reflex
B. Primitive postural reflex
C. Bridging reflex
A
B
12
Q
- Which is not commonly associated with Symmetric Tonic Neck Reflex?
A. Poor eye hand coordination
B. Difficulty copying tasks
C. Short term memory
D. Poor balance
A
C
13
Q
Which is not true about Landau reflex?
A. Lifting the infants head causes extension throughout the spine and lifting of the head
B. Integrates at around 1-3 years old
C. Related to poor development and balance.
D. Bed wetting
A
D
14
Q
- An area that involves cognitive development and awareness of the fact that objects exist independently from
itself
A. conceptual skills
B. sensorimotor skills
C. representational skills
D. sensorial skills
A
A
15
Q
===
A
16
Q
It is a vision therapy technique that can improve both oculomotor skills and aim is to train your eyes to be
able to change their focus as quickly and as easily as possible.
A. Rosner Dot Test
B. GTVT chart
C. Pleoptics
D. barrel card
A
B
17
Q
—
A
18
Q
It is used as a clinical visual verbal oculomotor assessment tool that will give an objective measurement on
eye movement and oculomotor ability.
A. TVPS 4
B. DEM
C. Beery Buktenica
D. VMI
A
B
19
Q
This test is very important tool in the development of directionality concepts of right and left projected into
space. It also works on eye tracking and visual motor integration.
A. Geoboard test
B. Arrow chart
C. Accommodative Rock chart
A
B
20
Q
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A
21
Q
head tilt is noted toward the right shoulder, the MOST likely paretic muscle is the right___.
A. Medial rectus
B. Superior oblique
C. Superior rectus
D. Inferior oblique
A
D
22
Q
- A face turn to the left is indicative of weak right ____.
A. left medial rectus
B. left lateral rectus
C. left superior rectus
D. left inferior rectus
A
B
23
Q
You performed push-up amplitude test to your 12 year old patient. The blur point was noticed at a distance
of 20 centimeters. The initial impression is:
A. Accommodative insufficiency
B. Accommodative inertia
C. Spasm of accommodation
D. Lag of accommodation
A
A
24
Q
25.Test that is useful to measure the deviation of the eye by taking note of the corneal light reflex and placing
prism before the fixating eye to induce movement of the deviating eye.
A. Worth’s test
B. Krimsky’s test
C. Hirschberg’s test
D. Fixation test
A
B
25
26.One eye is covered with an opaque occluder, if the uncovered eye moves to take up fixation, there is:
A. Manifest deviation
B. Latent deviation
C. Intermittent deviation
D. Constant deviation
A
26
27. The following gives rise to esophoria EXCEPT:
A. Enophthalmos
B. Narrow interpupillary distance
C. Hyperopia
D. Advanced age
D
27
When a patient is asked to shift fixation from far to near and vice-versa, the ____ is being checked:
A. Lag of accommodation
B. Accommodative facility
C. Amplitude of accommodation
D. Lead of accommodation
B
28
29. Condition characterized by ciliary muscle contraction that cannot be relaxed.
A. Accommodative lead
B. Accommodative inertia
C. Accommodative insufficiency
D. Accommodative spasm
D
29
___ are adopted when there is oblique muscle palsy.
A. Tips of the chin either up or down
B. Head tilts
C. Face turns
D. Head movement
B
30
Face turns to the right or left are adopted whenever the deviation is due to ______ problem.
A. Medial or lateral rectus
B. Superior or inferior rectus
C. Superior or inferior oblique
D. A and V pattern deviation
A
31
32. A patient with weak right inferior oblique muscle will have the following primary deviation:
A. B. Left eye is elevated, intorted and adducted
Right eye is elevated, intorted and adducted
C. Left eye is depressed, extorted and abducted
D. Right eye is depressed, extorted and abducted
C
32
33. Using the clinical wisdom criterion for prism prescription, a patient with PFR of 12, NFR of 8 and near
esophoria of 6, will need a correction of ______.
A. 1.5 prism base out
B. 1.5 prism base in
C. 6 prism base out
D. 6 prism base in
C
33
Your patient goes to your clinic presenting of poor vision at far. Your refraction resulted to OD -6.00 D Sph
20/40 OS -6.00 D Sph 20/40. Your diagnosis is:
A. Isoametropic amblyopia
B. Anisometropic amblyopia
C. Stimulus deprivation amblyopia
D. Strabismic amblyopia
A
34
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35
A patient complains blurred vision at far and near which clears after a short while. What anomaly is being
addressed if he is made to alternate fixation through the top and then bottom pair of lenses?
A. convergence excess
B. accommodative infacility
C. convergence insufficiency
D. accommodative spasm
B
36
37. A pair of spectacles with plus lenses were prescribed to a patient who complains of discomfort and occasional
diplopia when driving. The most likely diagnosis is ____.
A. Divergence weakness esophoria
B. Convergence excess esophoria
C. Convergence insufficiency
D. d Medial rectus palsy
A
37
38. In inverse occlusion, the cover is placed before ____.
A. bad eye
B. good eye
C. alternately in both eyes
D. none of the above
A
38
What condition is characterized by the following test findings: Distance phoria: ½ exophoria Near phoria: 21
exophoria
A. divergence excess
B. convergence excess
C. convergence weakness
D. divergence excess
C
39
40. What condition is characterized by the following test findings: Distance phoria: 13 esophoria Near phoria: 1
esophoria.
A. divergence excess
B. divergence weakness
B
40
What is the visual field defect present?
A. congruous right homonymous hemianopsia
B. incongruous right homonymous hemianopsia
C. congruous left homonymous hemianopsia
D. incongruous left homonymous hemianopsia
D
41
42. You noticed your patient to be moving tentatively in your clinic and he reported difficulty negotiating stairs,
your initial impression will be:
A. Peripheral field defect
B. Central field defect
C. Overall blur
D. Glare problem
A
42
43. Indicates a person’s disadvantaged position in society, resulting from impairment and/or disabilities.
A. Disability
B. Disorder
C. Impairment
D. Handicap
D
43
In low vision practice, measuring the visual acuity helps the optometrist to determine the following EXCEPT:
A. Estimating the refractive correction of the patient.
B. Monitor stability or progression of disease
C. Assess eccentric viewing postures and skills
D. Estimate magnification needed
C
44
45. Reverse telescopes do the following EXCEPT:
A. It magnifies the image.
B. Allows the visual information to "fit" into the restricted area.
C. Will cause the visual acuity to suffer.
D. Useful for brief orientation purposes, such as localization of objects or people
A
45
46. A patient complains pain on ocular motility test. The most likely cause is ____.
A. retrobulbar neuritis
B. decompensation
C. nerve palsy
D. incomitancy
A
46
What is the best treatment option in nystagmus to improve visual acuity and eliminate anomalous head
posture?
A. prism
B. minus lens
C. surgery
D. contact lenses
A
47
48. Right homonymous congruous hemianopsia is most likely caused by a lesion in the ____.
A. left optic tract
B. Incorrect
C. right optic tract
D. left visual cortex
E. right visual cortex
D
48
If there is lesion in the anterior 1/3 of the right optic tract, there will be _____.
A. left homonymous hemianopsia with normal pupillary light reflexes
B. right homonymous hemianopsia with normal pupillary light reflex
C. left homonymous hemianopsia with Wernicke's pupillary defect
D. right homonymous hemianopsia with Wernicke's pupillary defect
C
49
50. What type of visual field defect is present?
A. bitemporal hemianopsia
B. binasal hemianopsia
C. altitudinal hemianopsia
B
50
A low vision patient was prescribed with the a monocular telescope. What do you think is being addressed
in this management/intervention?
A. improve contrast sensitivity
B. improve near vision
C. improve color perception
D. improve distance vision
d
51
52. What lens power for a hand-held magnifier is needed by a patient with 6X magnification demand?
A. +28.00
B. +24.00
C. +12.50
D. +10.00
b
52
Compute for the magnification of a telescope having the following dimensions: Objective lens diameter 20
mm; eyepiece lens diameter 15 mm; visual field diameter 8 degrees; exit pupil diameter 2 mm.
A. 12X
B. 10X
C. 8X
D. 6X
B
53
54. These are recurring headaches that occur in groups or cycles that appear suddenly and are characterized
by severe, debilitating pain on one side of the head, and are often accompanied by a watery eye and nasal
congestion on the same side of the face.
A. tension headache
B. migraine headache
C. cluster headache
D. sinus headache
D
54
A 10 year-old boy went to your clinic with decreased visual function, proptosis and strabismus. The boy
presented with neither orbital nor ocular pain. What is your initial diagnosis and auxiliary test to be done or
ordered.
A. glaucoma; automated tangent screen
B. optic nerve glioma; CT Scan
C. orbital floor fracture; MRI
D. pituitary adenoma; automated perimetry
B
55
56. The visual field of an elderly patient may appear to be contracted, this is due to:
A. cataract
B. age-related macular degeneration
C. diabetes
D. involutional miosis
D
56
The following are descriptions of the CVI characteristics except:
A. They address both dorsal and ventral streams of visual function
B. They can be found in individuals who have both congenital and acquired forms of CVI.
C. They are used to describe a brain based form of visual impairment
D. They are not present when an individual has strabismus
D
57
58. When an individual demonstrates a delay in visual response between the time a target is presented and the
time the individual first visually responds is called
A. Visual latency
B. Visual hesitation
C. Visual complexity of the sensory environment
D. Atypical visual motor response
A
58
The following are possible reasons why a patient will have better visual acuity in bright light than in dim light
except:
A. residual refractive errors
B. paracentral corneal scars
C. irregular astigmatism
D. central cataract
D
59
Eccentric viewing, magnification, improving lighting and contrast are some vision rehabilitation in:
A. age-related macular degeneration
B. retinitis pigmentosa
C. glaucoma
D. Marfan’s syndrome
A
60
61.The patient went for an eye examination and initially wants a reading correction only. 3 hours the patient
called the practitioner and wants to change his prescription lenses to a bifocal lens and does not want to come
in the clinic. The examiner only measured the near PD of the patient which is 61cm (catopric method), what
would be the distance PD to be used by the examiner?
A. 62cm
B. 64 mm
C. 65mm
B
61
A 57 year old teacher came to the clinic with red eyes and complaining of headache, eye pain, burred vision
and sensitivity to light 2 days prior to the examination. Based on the complaints given by the patient what will be
your first impression?
A. Presence of conjunctivitis
B. Presence of glaucoma
C. Presence of Keratitis
B
62
63. A 35 year accountant experienced intermittent blurring of vision, fatigue and he goes to the restroom several
times to urinate. If you’re the attending doctor, what do you think is probably cause of the patient’s complain?
A. Presence of EOR
B. Presence of hypertension
C. Presence of diabetes
D. Presence of glaucoma
C
63
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64
5.Dr. XY performed binocular indirect ophthalmoscopy to a 60 year old retired teacher complaining of difficulty
seeing during night time. The examiner noticed presence of Pigmentation in the form of bone-spicule and
pigment clumping. Based from the finding , the patient may have:
A. Retinitis pigmentosa
B. Macular degeneration
C. Hypertensive retinopathy
D. Diabetic retinopathy
A
65
66. While doing retinoscopy the examiner observed that the pupil of the patient is dilated and the reflex in the
periphery and central area shows different reflex; this may result from the difference in _________ so the
examiner must be careful in noting the movement in order to get the true amount of error.
A. Refractive power
B. Neutral point
C. Movement
A
66
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67
Static retinoscopy was performed to a 4 year boy . If the gross retinoscopic finding is +0.50S performed at
40cm and is used as fogging lens in subjective refraction, this indicates that:
A. the biggest letter is totally blurred with 2.50D
B. the patient is hyperopic by 2.00D
C. the patient is myopic by 2.00D
C
68
The examiner decided to use a concave mirror and refracting a myope of 1 D at 67 cm working distance
without a working lens. The movement in the two principal meridians would be:
A. both against
B. both with
C. both no motion
A
69
70. A 4 year child was brought by her mother for an eye examination. The mother informed the doctor that her
daughter’s eye is not aligned. What test to should the doctor do I order to assess ocular misalignment of patients
who is uncooperative?
A. Motility test
B. Hirschberg test
C. Cover test
B
70
Ana a 26 year old medical doctor is reviewing for her licensure examination . After 2 hours of reading, she
experienced eye strain, headache, blurring and doubling of vision. She went for an eye examination and was
found to have 2 esophoria at distance and 14 esophoria at near. This condition may indicate a condition known
as:
A. convergence excess
B. divergence weakness
C. convergence weakness
D. divergence excess
A
71
72. Patient suffers from a 15 esophoria. Upon examination patient exhibits a positive fusional reserve (PFR) of
30 and a negative fusional reserve (NFR) of 18. Following the rule of Sheard’s criterion, what does the test result
indicates?
A. phoria is decompensated
B. phoria is compensated
C. PFR is enough for the phoria
D. NFR is enough for the phoria
A
72
The examiner is doing Abduction at Far when the patient starts to notice that the target is moving to the left
side. The test is repeated 3X by the examiner for confirmation but patient noticed the same thing. This indicates
A. suppression of OS eye
B. suppression of OD eye
B
73
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74
Liza a 12 year old student experienced blurring of vision since she was 6 years old. Recently she was brought
by her grandmother for an eye examination and was found to have a slight degree of exophoria and an
uncorrected error amounting to OD -1.00S and OS -6.00S. The condition may lead to _______ if not address
properly.
A. anisometropic amblyopia
B. isoametropic amblyopia
C. deprivation amblyopia
D. strabismic amblyopia
A
75
76. When performing the Cover Test, if the right eye is covered and the left eye is observed to move in a
downward direction from an upward position, then a _____ exists.
A. left hypertropia
B. left esotropia
C. left hypotropia
D. left exotropia
A
