Ocular Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

Acetylcholine (Miochol) CLass

A

Direct Muscarinic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Acetylcholine (Miochol) MOA

A

Pupillary constriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Acetylcholine (Miochol) Therapeutics

A

Used in cataract surgery to constrict pupil intraoperatively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Acetylcholine (Miochol) SE

A

“Bronchospasm, salivation, nausea, vomiting,

diarrhea, abdominal pain, tenesmus, lacrimation, sweating”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Pilocarpine HCl (Salagen) Class

A

Direct Muscarinic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Pilocarpine HCl (Salagen) MOA

A

Pupillary constriction, increased aqueous outflow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Pilocarpine HCL (Salagen) Therapeutics

A

Treatment of glaucoma (both open angle and acute closed angle); used less today due to side effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Pilocarpine HCl (Salagen) SE

A
  1. Decreased vision when patient has cataracts due to miosis and headache
  2. “Bronchospasm, salivation, nausea, vomiting,
    diarrhea, abdominal pain, tenesmus, lacrimation, sweating”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Pilocarpine HCl (Salagen) Misc

A

Requires frequent dosage QID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Carbachol Class

A

Direct muscarinic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Carbachol MOA

A

Pupillary constriction, increased aqueous outflow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Carbachol Therapeutics

A

Treatment of glaucoma; used less today due to topical side effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Carbachol SE

A
  1. Decreased vision due to miosis and headache
  2. “Bronchospasm, salivation, nausea, vomiting,
    diarrhea, abdominal pain, tenesmus, lacrimation, sweating”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Atropine Class

A

Antimuscarinic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Atropine MOA

A

Pupillary dilatation; paralysis of ciliary body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Atropine Therapeutics

A

Improve discomfort during active eye inflammation (ueveitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Atropine SE

A

“Ataxia, nystagmus, restlessness, mental confusion, hallucination, violent and aggressive behavior, insomnia, photophobia, urinary
retention”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Atropine Misc

A

Very long acting so not used unless severe inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Scopolamine Class

A

Antimuscarinic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Scopolamine MOA

A

Pupillary dilatation; paralysis of ciliary body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Scopolamine Therapeutics

A

Improve discomfort during active eye inflammation (ueveitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Scopolamine SE

A

“Ataxia, nystagmus, restlessness, mental confusion, hallucination, violent and aggressive behavior, insomnia, photophobia, urinary
retention”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Tropicamide (Mydriacyl) Class

A

Antimuscarinic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Tropicamide (Mydriacyl) MOA

A

Pupillary dilatation; paralysis of ciliary body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Tropicamide (Mydriacyl) Therapeutics

A

Most commonly used cycloplegia for eye exams

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Tropicamide (Mydriacyl) SE

A

“Ataxia, nystagmus, restlessness, mental confusion, hallucination, violent and aggressive behavior, insomnia, photophobia, urinary
retention”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Edrophonium (Enlon) Class

A

Nm agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Edrophonium (Enlon) MOA

A

Destroys acetylcholinesterase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Edrophonium (Enlon) Therapeutics

A

Diagnose myasthenia gravis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Dipivefrin HCl (Propine) Class

A

Direct adrenergic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Dipivefrin HCl (Propine) MOA

A

Prodrug of epinpehrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Dipivefrin HCl (Propine) Therapeutics

A

Treatment of glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Hydroxyamphetamine (Paredrine) Class

A

Indirect adrenergic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Hydroxyamphetamine (Paredrine) MOA

A

Release NE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Hydroxyamphetamine (Paredrine) Therapeutics

A

Separates 1st and 2nd from 3rd order neuron dysfunction in Horner’s syndrome; positive dilation means 1st or 2nd order, an ominous sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Cocaine Class

A

Indirect adrenergic

37
Q

Cocaine MOA

A

Prevent reuptake of NE

38
Q

Cocaine Therapeutics

A

Use initially to confirm diagnosis of Horner’s Syndrome

39
Q

Apraclonidine (Iopidine) Class

A

Direct alpha agonist

40
Q

Apraclonidine (Iopidine) MOA

A

Amino derivative of clonidine; does not cross blood-brain barrier –> minimal effect on systemic blood pressure

41
Q

Apraclonidine (Iopidine) Therapeutics

A

Treatment of open angle glaucoma

42
Q

Brimondine tartrate (Alphagan) Class

A

Direct alpha 2 agonist

43
Q

Brimondine tartrate (Alphagan) MOA

A

Suppresses aqueous humor production through action of cAMP in non-pigmented ciliary epithelium

44
Q

Brimondine tartrate (Alphagan) Therapeutics

A

Primary agent for treatment of glaucoma

45
Q

Brimondine tartrate (Alphagen) Misc

A

May cause follicular conjunctivitis; use with MAOi can cause fatigue/drowsiness

46
Q

Dapiprazole Class

A

Alpha Antagonist

47
Q

Dapiprazole MOA

A

Blocks alpha-adrenergic receptors in smooth dilator muscle of iris

48
Q

Dapiprazole Therapeutics

A

Reverses tropicamide, phenylephrine

49
Q

Dapiprazole Misc

A

Not currently available

50
Q

Timolol (Timoptic) Class

A

Beta blocker

51
Q

Timolol (Timoptic) MOA

A

Reduce intraocular pressure by reducing aqueous production at the ciliary process

52
Q

Timolol (Timoptic) Therapeutics

A

Second line treatment of glaucoma

53
Q

Timolol (timoptic) SE

A

“Bradycardia, hypotension, syncope, palpitation, congestive heart failure, bronchospasm, mental confusion, depression,
fatigue, lightheadedness, hallucinations, memory impairment, sexual dysfunction, hyperkalemia”

54
Q

Timolol (Timoptic) Misc

A

Contraindicated in CHF, asthma; bradycardia over time may produce tachyphylaxis

55
Q

Levobunolol (Betagan) Class

A

Beta blocker

56
Q

Levobunolol (Betagan) MOA

A

Reduce intraocular pressure by reducing aqueous production at the ciliary process

57
Q

Levobunolol (Betagan) Therapeutics

A

Second line treatment of glaucoma

58
Q

Levobunolol (Betagan) SE

A

“Bradycardia, hypotension, syncope, palpitation, congestive heart failure, bronchospasm, mental confusion, depression,
fatigue, lightheadedness, hallucinations, memory impairment, sexual dysfunction, hyperkalemia”

59
Q

Latanoprast (Xalatan) Class

A

Prostaglandin analog

60
Q

Latanoprast (Xalatan) MOA

A

Increase uveoscleral outflow

61
Q

Latanoprast (Xalatan) Therapeutics

A

Primary agent for treatment of glaucoma

62
Q

Latanoprast (Xalatan) SE

A

Eyelash growth, change in iris color, intraocular inflammation

63
Q

Latanoprast (Xalatan) Misc

A

May cause cystoid macular edema in cataract surgery and activate herpes

64
Q

Travoprost (Travatan) Class

A

Prostaglandin analog

65
Q

Travoprost (Travatan) MOA

A

INcrease uveoscleral outflow

66
Q

Travoprost (Travatan) Therapeutics

A

Second line treatment of glaucoma

67
Q

Travoprost (Travatan) SE

A

Eyelash growth, change in iris color

68
Q

Travoprost (Travatan) MIsc

A

May cause cystoid macular edema in cataract surgery; more effective in African Americans

69
Q

Bimatoprost (Lumigan) Class

A

Prostaglandin Analog

70
Q

Bimatoprost (Lumigan) MOA

A

Increase uveoscleral outflow

71
Q

Bimatoprost (Lumigan) Therapeutics

A

Primary agent for treatment of glaucoma

72
Q

Bimatoprost (Lumigan) SE

A

Eyelash growth, change in iris color

73
Q

Bimatoprost (Lumigan) Misc

A

May cause cystoid macular edema in cataract surgery and activate herpes

74
Q

Dorzolamide HCl (Trusopt) Class

A

Carbonic Anhydrase

75
Q

Dorzolamide HCl (Trusopt) MOA

A

Reduce aqueous production via interfere with the active transport of Na through Na-K-ATPase pump

76
Q

Dorzolamide HCl (Trusopt) Therapeutics

A

Second line glaucoma therapy

77
Q

Dorzolamide HCl (Trusopt) SE

A

Red eyes, lid allergies

78
Q

Dorzolamide HCl (Trusopt) MIsc

A

Contraindicated in sulfonamide allergies

79
Q

Acetazolamide (Diamox) CLass

A

Carbonic anhydrase

80
Q

Acetazolamide (Diamox) MOA

A

Reduce aqueous production via interfere with the active transport of Na through Na-K-ATPase pump

81
Q

Acetazolamide (Diamox) Therapeutics

A

Oral agent used for advanced glaucoma and with cataract surgery

82
Q

Brinzolamide (Azopt) Class

A

Carbonic Anhydrase

83
Q

Brinzolamide (Azopt) MOA

A

Reduce aqueous production via interfere with the active transport of Na through Na-K-ATPase pump

84
Q

Brinzolamide (Azopt) Therapeutics

A

Second line glaucoma therapy

85
Q

Brinzolamide (Azopt) SE

A

Red eyes, lid allergies

86
Q

Betaxolol (Betoptic) Class

A

Beta 1 blocker

87
Q

Betaxolol (Betoptic) MOA

A

Reduce intraocular pressure by reducing aqueous production at the ciliary process

88
Q

Betaxolol (Betoptic) Therapeutics

A

Reduce intraocular pressure by reducing aqueous production at the ciliary process