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Karen > Oct 2020-AQP > Flashcards

Oct 2020-AQP Flashcards

1
Q

Minimum Oil temp for starting

A

-40°C

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2
Q

Maximum continuous oil temp

A

+155°C

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3
Q

Max permissible and for how long

A

+163°C for 15 minutes

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4
Q

Oil consumption

A

0.05 gal/hr

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5
Q

APR

A

Automatic Performance Reserve

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6
Q

Pneumatics

What is ACSC?

A

Air Conditioning System Controller

There are 2 of them

They automatically control the bleed air selection

MANUAL selection is on the BLEED Air panel

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7
Q

Pneumatics

What does isolation valve (ISOL) do?

A

Provides inner connection and isolation capabilities between left and right sides of the bleed air manifold

ACSC controlled, cannot be opened when any engine is supplying bleed air to the manifold or any anti-ice ON

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8
Q

Pnematics

If APU is running during takeoff how does it switch back to engine bleeds?

A

If APU is operating during takeoff, switch to engine bleed occurs with gear up and flaps 20°or less, and thrust levers retarded from TOGA

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9
Q

Pneumatics

On approach how does it transfer from the engines to APU for the bleeds

A

We flaps are greater than 20 or landing gear down

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10
Q

Does ACSC allow APU to supply bleed air to wing anti-ice systems?

A

No

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11
Q

Pneumatics

How does APU LCV interlock protection work

A
  1. It will not allow both the engines and the APU to supply the manifold at the same time
  2. ACSC commands the engine bleed valves to close before opening the APU LCV
  3. Control logic prevents the APU from supplying bleed air to the Anti-ice systems
  4. If the APU is supplying bleed air to the manifold and either the cowl or wing anti-ice system is selected ON, the APU LCV is automatically closed and the engine bleed valves are commanded open
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12
Q

What controls the wing anti-ice system

A

AILC- Anti-ice leak detection controller.

CRJ900 uses pressure regulated engine bleed air from a single common bleed manifold

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13
Q

What happens to N2 when wing anti-ice is turned on

A

A white arc appears

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14
Q

What’s the message you get when you test the ice detection system

A

ADS HEAT test OK

It test both the ice detection and air data sensor heat controller systems (ADSHC)

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15
Q

Briefing

A
  1. Designate pilot flying
  2. State flap setting
  3. Performance- flex or full
  4. Departure runway
  5. Full ATC routing and altitudes, airspace considerations and speed restrictions.
  6. Plans for emergency return to airport
  7. Single engine departure procedure /Acceleration Altitude
  8. Location of EPC and QRH
  9. Special considerations:
    a. Windshear
    b. Weather
    c. Anti-ice holdover time
    d. Use if radar
    e. Use of Continuous Ignition
  10. Taxi route
  11. Questions
    B. Rate of climb requirements fo the SID
    Groundspeed / 60 X FPNM. (Foot per nautical mile) = vertical speed
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16
Q

Can anti-ice be used if the APU is the lead source?

A

NO!!!!!

17
Q

What is a stabilized approach

A
  1. The airplane is on the correct track which includes normal maneuvering require the line to the final approach course. In VMC conditions this may include turns below 1000 HAT but must be aligned by 500 feet HAT however all of the criteria for stabilized approach as listed in the items below must still be met by 1000 HAT
  2. The airplane is in the proper landing configuration
  3. After glidepath intercept or after FAF the pilot flying requires no more than normal corrections to maintain the correct track and desired profile to landing within the touchdown zone.
    Note:
    Normal bracketing corrections relate to bank angle of not more than 30°, rate of descent + or - 300 ft./min. deviation from target, and power management in the range required to maintain constant rate of descent and speed
  4. Your plane is at the proper approach speed with engines spooled up
  5. The rate of dissent is no greater than 1000 ft./min. If an expected rate of dissent greater than 1000 ft./min. is planned a special approach briefing should be performed
  6. How are setting is appropriate for the landing configuration selected
  7. The PM will verify the above criteria and if all conditions are met will add stabilized to the 1000 foot call . “1000 foot to the field,stabilized “ “1000 feet to DA,stabilized”
18
Q

Setup cockpit for approach

A

FMS
Radios
V-speeds
MDA

19
Q

What is V2

A

Take-off safety speed- best climb gradient

20
Q

VT speed

A

Final takeoff speed at end of flight path accelerations segment during a continue to take off with engine failure and is climb speed for takeoff climb

21
Q

Order for dispatch

A

Flex- bleeds open (no APU)

Flex bleeds closed - APU ON

Normal -open

Normal - closed

22
Q

Circle of Life

A 
E-  Emergency- EPC
Q-  QRH
A-   ATC
T-    Test FA   Type
                        Evacuate
                        Special Instructions
                         Time to landing

C. - Company
A - ATIS
B - Build and brief
C - Checklist

23
Q

How are the ailerons, elevators, and rudder actuated?

A

They are controlled by a network of cables, pulleys, push/pull rods, and levers that transmit control inputs to the respective hydraulic power control units (PCUs)

24
Q

What holds the main landing gear in the up or down position?

A

Mechanical and hydraulic uplocks or down locks

25
Q

What holds the nose gear in the up and down position

A

The over center mechanism

26
Q

What hydraulic system normally actuates the landing gear

A

Hydraulic system three

27
Q

What hydraulic system is used as an alternate for landing gear extension

A

Hydraulic system 2

28
Q

Which component monitors the position of up locks, down locks and gear door position and WOW sensors

A

Proximity sensing electronic unit

PSEU

29
Q

What prevents an UP selection on the landing gear lever while the aircraft is on the ground

A

The down-lock solenoid in landing gear lever

30
Q

What supplies power to the igniters in the engines?

A

IGN-A AC ESS bus

IGN-B Static inverter on the battery bus

31
Q

What does FAiL light on Auto transfer IDG light mean

A
  1. The associated GCU detected a bus fault or generator over current
  2. The affected generator is taken offline
  3. GCU inhibits the auto transfer system on the AFFECTED side
  4. The ASSOCIATED AC BUS can no longer be powered by the APU or OFFSIDE
    CAN NOT be reset in the air
32
Q

What is the hierarchy of importance in messages (most to least)?

A

Warning (most)- red
Caution- yellow
Advisory- green
Status- white

33
Q

When do you need an alternate?

A

The first alternate is win for an .
hour before to an hour after the ceiling will be less than 2000 feet above the airport or visibility is less than 3 miles

34
Q

Standard alternate minimums

A

For airports with at least one operational navigational facility providing a straight in non-precision approach procedure or a straight in precision approach procedure, or, when applicable, a circling maneuver from an instrument approach procedure, the alternate airport IFR weather minimums will be:

a. A ceiling derived by adding 400 feet to the authorize category HAT or when applicable the authorized HAA
b. A visibility drive by adding one statute mile to the authorize category one landing minimum
2. For airports with at least two operational navigational facilities each providing a straight and non-precision approach procedure or a straight in precision approach procedure to different, suitable runways.

a. A ceiling drive by adding 200 feet to the higher category 1 HAT of the two approaches being used
b. A visibility drive by adding a half statute mile to the higher authorize category one landing
minimum of the two approaches

B. NOK shell Mesa Airlines use an alternate weather minimum lower than any applicable minimums derive from these criteria and in determining alternate weather minimums Mesa Airlines will not use any published approach procedure which specifies that alternate airport weather minimums are not authorized

35
Q

When is the second alternate needed?

A

When the weather conditions forecast for the destinations and first alternate airport or marginal a second alternate will be designated in the dispatch release. Mesa Airlines defines marginal is 500 feet and 1 mile above the lowest suitable landing minimums for the airport. Both the visibility and the ceiling at both the Destiination and first alternate airport must be considered marginal for this rule to apply.

36
Q

What is included in minimum fuel

A

Minimum fuel is the minimum quantity of fuel that must be on the aircraft prior to brake release on the takeoff roll and is calculated as follows:

Enroute + HOLD + ALT + RESERVE

GOM page 312 or 7.24

Karen (22 decks)

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