Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Success on Step 2 > OBGYN > Flashcards

OBGYN Flashcards

1
Q

How long is the average menstrual cycle?

A

28 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How many phases are there of the uterus and what are the called?

A

Mensuration, proliferative, and secretory phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How many phases are there of the ovum?

A

Follicular phase and the luteal phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the primary hormone in the follicular phase?

A

FSH and LH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does FSH do?

A

It stimulates growth of the follicle and production of estrogen by stimulating granulosa cells to make aromatase which converts androsteidone (from theca cells) to estrogen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Why are anovulatory cycles a problem?

A

They mean that unopposed estrogen is exposed to the uterine lining. Because there is no corpus luteum no progestrone is produced.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are causes of secondary amenorrhea?

A

Pregnancy, Prolactinoma, hypothyroidism, menopause (hypergonadotrpic hypogonadism)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the criteria in order to diagnose a patient with amenorrhea?

A

The patient with regular cycles has no periods for greater than 3 months. OR in a person with irregular periods greater than 6 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is oligomenorrhea?

A

Menstrual cycles greater than 35 days long or less than 9 cycles in a year.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is menorrhagia?

A

Heavy and prolonged menstrual bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

hypomenorrhea

A

spotting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Metorrhagia

A

Bleeding between menstrual periods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are some of the causes of abnormal uterine bleeding.

A

Remember the pneumonic PALM. Polyp, adenomyosis, Leiomyata, and Malignancy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How do we diagnose pregnancy?

A

urine bHCG and transvagial ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

If FSH and estradiol is low in a patient with amenorrhea what diagnosis would you suspect?

A

primary ovarian insufficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

If a patient has amenorrhea what should work up for this patient look like?

A

BHCG, prolactin, TSH, FSH, estradiol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

If estradiol is low to normal in patient with amenorrhea, but the patient has no signs of virilization what is the next step in work up?

A

progesterone withdrawal test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

If estradiol is low to normal in patient with amenorrhea and the patient has large clitormegaly, hair growing underneath the chin, what diagnosis would you suspect?

A

PCOS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

If a progestrone withdrawl test is done in a patient with amenorrhea and has withdrawl bleeding what is the reason for amenorrhea?

A

progesterone deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

If a progesterone withdrawal test is done in a patient with amenorrhea and has no withdrawal bleeding what is the next step in management?

A

Get a progesterone and estrogen test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

If a patient with amenorrhea has withdrawl bleeding after a progestrone and estogen test what is the likely diagnosis?

A

hormonal deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is PCOS?

A

Due to problems of progress and or regression of the follicles the follicles become cystic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are common associations of PCOS?

A

Insulin resistance, acanthosis nigracans, obesity, weight gain, and type 2 diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the diagnosis of PCOS?

A

It’s a diagnosis of exclusion, typically we rule out cushing, 21 hydroxylase, IGF-1 etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is treatment for PCOS in a patient that doesn’t currently want children ?

A

OCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the treatment of PCOS in a patient that wants children?

A

clomephine or letrzole (usually used in women with a BMI over 30)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is the mechanism of action of letrozole?

A

It inhibits aromatase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the risks associated with taking OCP’s?

A

Increased risk of coagulopathies, hypertension, and benign hepatic tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Medroxyprogestrone acetate

A

Hormonal depot or the injection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the two types of IUD’s

A

Levonorgestrel and cooper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is a vasectomy?

A

Cut the vas deferens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is a tubal ligation?

A

Female sterilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How do OCP’s work?

A

They work by inhibiting LH surge due to estrogen feedback to the hypothalamus and pituitary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How does progesterone work?

A

By increasing the cervical mucus production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the absolute contraindications of OCP’s?

A

*Patient >35 with smoking history
* History of thromboembolism or
coagulation disorders
* History of liver disease
* history of coronary artery disease
* migrane aura
*breast cancer
* SLE
* Valvular heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

This emergency contraception should be inserted 5 days after unprotected sex?

A

Cooper IUD and uliprastil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

This emergency contraception can be used up to 3 days after unprotected sex?

A

Levenorgestrel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is primary dysmenorrhea?

A

Menstrual pain that has lasted a year and usually occurs around the time of menstruation and is typically do to prostaglandin production.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, urgency frequency, dysuria, constipation. Physical exam shows mass in the left adnexa. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Endometriosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the management for patients with endometriosis?

A

OCP’s and NSAIDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the diagnostic exam for endometriosis?

A

Laprascopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are Leiomyomas?

A

Fibroids, masses of the smooth muscle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

cyclic pelvic pain, menorrhagia, dysmenorrhea, urinary frequency, constipation, with an asymetrical large uterus?

A

Fibroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Fever, nausea, abnormal vaginal discharge, dysparuneia, with cervical motion tenederness.

A

PID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How do we diagnose PID?

A

If you suspect PID, which is a clinical diagnosis. Keep in mind that these patients tend to be sexually active females. Pelvic exam should routinely be performed microscopy of vaginal discharge. NAAT test, pregnancy test, and screen for STD’s.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are risk factors for PID?

A

Risky sexual activity, previous infection or STD/STI’s, age <25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is pre-menstural syndrome?

A

Either behavioral or physical symptoms that occur around menses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is post-menstural dysmorphic disorder?

A

More prominent anger and irritability around mensuration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How we diagnose a women as being in menopause?

A

It’s a clinical diagnosis and can be confirmed with low levels of estrogen and high levels of and high levels of FSH and LH.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

A patient with itching and burning, frequency, dyspareunia. What is the next step in management?

A

Vaginal discharge analysis (ph), microscopy,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

A patient with itching and burning, frequency, dyspareunia. With discharge analysis showing a ph < 4.5 and yeast and hyphae on microscopy has?

A

Candida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Patient with itching and burning, frequency, dyspareunia with malodorous discharge. With a ph >4.5 with clue cells has?

A

Gardnerella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Patient with itching and burning, frequency, dyspareunia with frothy discharge and ph >4.5. What is the next step in treatment?

A

Metronidazole and to treat the partner. Remember trichmonas is a protozoan

54
Q

Women with PCOS presents to the office with complaint of white discharge (non-odorus), itching. Vaginal exam shows no irritation. What is the cause for the patients white discharge?

A

leukorrhea

55
Q

A 2 yo child that presents with vaginal foul, chunky discharge is found to have a retained body in the vaginal canal what is treatment?

A

irrigation is the first line, but if larger this may require general anesthesia.

56
Q

What is the treatment for PID?

A

cephalosporins or (amp and gentamicin in a pregnant woman)

57
Q

A complication that leads to peri-hepatitis. The patient will present with RUQ and elevated liver function tests.

A

Fitz hugh curtis is a complication of PID

58
Q

A patient with abdominal pain in reproductive years what is a diagnosis we should always consider ruling out?

A

Pregnancy

59
Q

Pain associated with ovulation. Typical due to a cyst that formed at the corpus luteum.

A

mittleschmerz, this usually self resolves

60
Q

Pt. presents to the ED because of severe abdominal pain, fever, and tachycardia. The patient LMP was 7 weeks ago. Palpation of the right adnexa show rebound and guarding?What’s the next step in diagnosis

A

BHCG

61
Q

Pt. presents to the ED because of severe abdominal pain, fever, and tachycardia. The patient LMP was 7 weeks ago. Palpation of the right adnexa shows distention and rigidity? What’s the next step in management?

A

Surgical abortion

62
Q

Patient with severe unilateral abdominal pain comes to the ED. The doctor orders doppler flow studies, what diagnosis was she trying to rule out?

A

Ovarian torsion

63
Q

What is the treatment for stress incontinence?

A

Kegel exercises, reduce caffiene, if that doesn’t work we can place a pessarry, or urethral sling

64
Q

What is the treatment for an overactive bladder?

A

Muscuranic blockers (oxybutinin), mirbageron if not working.

65
Q

Patient with urinary incontinence complains of constant dribbling and straining to urine, post void volume is >200ml. What is the cause of incontinence?

A

Overflow incontinence

66
Q

What is the first step in diagnosis of urinary incontinence?

A

UA

67
Q

If a woman is less than thirty with a breast mass what imaging do we use?

A

Ultrasound

68
Q

If a woman greater than thirty has a breast mass what imaging do we use?

A

Mammography

69
Q

A patient presents to your office with mass on the breasts that she says has been present for a month or so, it doesn’t bother her. Ultrasound finds that is a thin well defined, anechoic septa mass what is the next step in management?

A

follow up in few months for patients with asymptomatic cysts

70
Q

What is a complicated cyst?

A

Complicated cysts are “probably benign” lesions as they contain internal debris which may mimic a solid mass appearance on imaging. The internal debris typically represents proteinaceous or hemorrhagic material which needs to be carefully evaluated in order to differentiate a complicated cyst from a complex cyst

71
Q

What is a complex cyst?

A

Has malignant potential . The walls of a complicated cyst are often slightly thicker than that of simple cysts due to inflammation or mild fibrosis which can occur due to the internal proteinaceous or hemorrhagic components.

72
Q

A 20 year old patient presents to her family medicine doctor because of a breast mass she noticed last month. Her grandmother has a history of breast cancer at the age of 62. on PE the patient has a non-tender, firm, but moblie mass, what is the next step in diagnosis?

A

US, if this US showed benign features more than likely we’d classify this as a fibroadenoma

73
Q

What is the most important risk factor for breast cancer?

A

the most important is age: others include p53 or BRCA mutations, family history , nulliparous women, obese women.

74
Q

How often should the average women get a mamogram?

A

every 1-2 years

75
Q

If a patient has an ER+ breast cancer what treatment can we use?

A

tamoxifen

76
Q

If a patient has a HER2+ what medical management can we consider?

A

Trastuzamab

77
Q

A 60 yo woman presents to your office because of unilateral bloody discharge, what is the next step in diagnosis?

A

cytology and mammogram

78
Q

A 45 yo female presents to you office with bilateral milk production, pregnancy test is negative, and patient denies use of ant-dopaminergic medications. TSH is 6, what is the patients most likely cause of milk production?

A

Hypothyroidism

79
Q

60 year old woman presents to the clinic with breast mass that she has has for a year. The patient states there is no tenderness. On PE it’s a hard immobile mass located in the upper outer quadrant of the breast. Mammography is suspicious. What is the next best step in management

A
80
Q

What is the most common malignant cancer?

A

infiltrating ductal carcinoma in situ

81
Q

What are the risk factors for ovarian cancer?

A

age > 60, family history, BRCA 1/BRCA2, breast cancer, history of smoking.

82
Q

A 61 yo woman presents to the clinic SOB and ascites. The patient has a history of lynch syndrome what is the next step in managment?

A

Trans-vaginal ultrasound and check serum CA-125

83
Q

A female patient that is 70 yo presents to the office because of vaginal bleeding. What is the next step in diagnosis?

A

biopsy (endometrial lining thickness) or ultrasound

84
Q

What is the most common risk factor for cervical cancer?

A

HPV

85
Q

How often should women get a pap smear?

A

Every 3 years

86
Q

How often should women get HPV testing?

A

Co-testing of HPV and pap smear should occur every 5 years?

87
Q

This is a chronic inflammatory disease in the anogenital area that presents with itching, it’s associated with a high risk of SCC and is more prevent in older women?

A

Lichen sclerosis

88
Q

Bartholin’s cyst are typical found in what positions?

A

The 4 and 8 in the posterior portions of the labia

89
Q

When is drainage of a bartholin cyst indicated?

A

when the cyst is greater than 3 cm

90
Q

A 30 year old female presents to your office with her husband because difficulties with conceiving. The husband semen analysis is normal. What is the next best step in work up for this patient?

A

to r/o ovulatory issue check prolactin, TSH, FSH, and LH. If there is suspicion of structural changes of the uterus and fallopian tubes consider a hysterosalpingogram.

91
Q

When a patient is planning to become pregnant what supplement should they start?

A

Folic acid

92
Q

How do you date a pregnancy?

A

LMP - 3 months +7 days

93
Q

Pregnancy dating in the first trimester is most accurate via ?

A

US

94
Q

After the first trimester, use _____ for dating of the fetus.

A

combination of head and abdominal circumference and femur length

95
Q

What test should be done on the initial visit?

A

-Blood type; ABO/ Rh
-CBC (complete blood count) to rule out anemia
-Rubella and varicella antibody,
-VDRL/ Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR),
-Hepatitis panel
-HIV
-Pap smear
-Influenza
-Urine protein and culture
-N.G testing only in women age < 25 or those at risk (multiple sex partners, history of sexually transmitted disease [STD], illicit drug use, etc.)

96
Q

What test should be done at 24-28 weeks?

A

If Rh(D) -ve, repeat antibody screen, glucose tolerance test

97
Q

When should we screen for Group B strep?

A

35-37 weeks

98
Q

What are the drugs of choice for urinary tract infections in a pregnant woman?

A

amoxicillin-clavulanate, cephalexin, cefpodoxime (an oral third-generation cephalosporin), or single-dose fosfomycin.

99
Q

What patient population is offered chromosomal abnormality screening?

A

women who are >35 years old

100
Q

Can be used for the detection of chromosomal abnormalities a t 10 weeks, least invasive.

A

cell free fetal DNA

101
Q

Test used to detect chromosomal abnormalities at 10-14 weeks as a confirmatory test following cell free fetal DNA

A

Chorionic villus sampling

102
Q

Test used to detect chromosomal abnormalities at 15- 18 weeks?

A

Amniocentesis

103
Q

What test measures maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (AFP), β-hCG, estriol, and inhibin-A levels?

A

Quadruple screen

104
Q

Fetus loss of < 20 weeks’ gestation

A

spontaneous abortion

105
Q

The (MCC) spontaneous abortion in the first trimester is _____________.

A

Chromosomal abnormalities.

106
Q

POC completely evacuated from the uterine cavity with a closed cervix?

A

complete abortion

107
Q

Death of fetus in utero, with a closed cervix and no passage of uterine contents.

A

Missed abortion

108
Q

Passage of some POC, with some POC remaining in the uterine cavity. With open cervix.

A

Incomplete abortion

109
Q

Vaginal bleeding and cramping with dilated open cervix, without passage of POC (products of conception).

A

Inevitable abortion

110
Q

When are uterine contractions considered to be tachysystolic?

A

greater than 5 contractions in 10 mins

111
Q

What is a normal fetal heart rate?

A

110-160

112
Q

What is variability?

A

The difference between the trough and the peak. 6-25 is a normal variability. If there is no variability or if there is a difference greater than 25 it’s abnormal

113
Q

Category 1

A

Everything is all good. HR (110-160), variability is good, no decelerations

114
Q

Category 3

A

Absent variability, recurrent late decelerations, variable decelerations or bradycardia. Or a sinusoidal pattern

115
Q

What are some strategies that may improve a category 3 situation?

A

Position change, tocolytics, stop oxytocin, vasopressor if mom is hypotensive

116
Q

What is an adequate montivedo unit

A

> 200

117
Q

Why is uterine tachysystole an issue?

A

Because there is a comprimise to placental blood flow.

118
Q

When is amnioinfusion indicated?

A

When the patient has variable decelarations

119
Q

What is the most common cause of immune hydrops fetalis

A

Anti- D alloimmunization

120
Q

What is the most common type of non-immune hydrops fetalis?

A

Parvovirus

121
Q

What’s the target glucose for a pregnant female?

A
122
Q

What is the most common cause of a non-reactive fetal stress test?

A

baby is asleep

123
Q

Normal variability ranges from?

A

6-25

124
Q

In order to be considered an acceleration the duration must be..

A

at least 15 seconds

125
Q

Non-reactant test may be pathologic for?

A

Hypoxemia or acidemia

126
Q

Antiphosholipid anntibodies can cross react with what other infectious etiology?

A

syphillis (+ VDRL)

127
Q

What are the etiologies of stress incontinence?

A

Hyper mobility of the urethra and decreased urethral sphincter tone

128
Q

What are the etiologies of obstrictive incontinence?

A

Poor detrusor contractility or obstruction

129
Q

What is a normal position of the uterus?

A

Anteverted and anti-flexed

130
Q

Is rectus abdominus diastisis a true hernia?

A

No, and thus only requires observation

131
Q
A

Success on Step 2 (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions