Infectious Disease Flashcards

1
Q

What are the side affects of penicillin?

A

HSR, rash, angioedema, AIN, and serum scikness

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2
Q

What are the side affects of TMP-SMX?

A

Folate deficiency,

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3
Q

What are the side affects of doxycycline?

A

Pill esophagitis, and tooth discoloration

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4
Q

What are the side affects of linezolid?

A

Thrombocytopenia, and serotonin syndrome

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5
Q

What are the side affects of floroquinolone?

A

Tenosynovitis

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6
Q

What are the side affects of second generation cephalosporins (ie cefotetan)

A

Disulfiram- like reaction

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7
Q

What are the side affects of Vancomycin?

A

Renal toxicity, Red Man syndrome (administering the drug too quickly),

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8
Q

What are the most common causes of infection for impetigo.

A

Beta hemolytic (Group A) strep and staph

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9
Q

What is the most common cause of infection for Erysipelas?

A

Beta hemolytic strep (group A) strep pyogenes

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10
Q

What is the most common cause of infection for cellulitis?

A

Beta hemolytic (Group A) Strep and Staph. A

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11
Q

What is the Tx for impetigo?

A

Mupirocin if mild infection and if severe ampicillin

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12
Q

What is the treatment for erysipelas?

A

Mild amoxicillin or penicillin, if severe ceftriaxone or cephazolin

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13
Q

What is the tx for non- purulent cellulitis?

A

for mild presentation cefalexin, for those patients with MRSA resistance consider TMP-SMX, Amoxicillin + doxycycline. For severe IV cefazolin for patients with MRSA risk Vancomycin and ceftarolin.

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14
Q

How to treat a patient with non- purulent cellulitis?

A

For mild infection that does not require coverage of Strep. doxycycline. For patients that may have an artifical valve then consider Vanc or daptomycin, doxycycline + amoxicillin or TMP SMX

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15
Q

What is the most common cause of Necrotizing fascitis?

A

polymicrobial or strep pyogenes

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16
Q

What are the most common causes of Gas gangrene?

A

C. perfringens, C.histolyticum

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17
Q

What is the most common cause of TSS?

A

Staph. Areus

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18
Q

What is the treatment for TSS?

A

Remove the foregin body (either clindamycin + oxacillin or vancomycin

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19
Q

What is the treatment for Necrotizing fascitis

A

Vancomycin + pipercillan tazobactam + clindamycin.

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20
Q

What is the treatment for GAS gangrene?

A

penicillin + clindamycin

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21
Q

In patients with diabetic foot ulcers what additional workup should be done to be cautious of further disease development?

A

Get an X-ray specifically if the ESR is elevated, the bone exposure on probe, ulcer is > 2cm, and duration of ulcer is >1-2 weeks

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22
Q

In general in adults the most common causes of Meningitis are?

A

Strep. pneumonia, H.In, Nisseria Meningitis,Listeria coverage of antibiotics should be catered

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23
Q

What is the most common cause of meningtis in a patient that is <1 month old

A

Strep. A, Listeria. M, and Uropathogenic E. Coli

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24
Q

What is the most common cause of meningitis in a child that 1-2 months old

A

Strep. pneumonia

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25
Q

What is the mcc cause of meningitis in 2 yo - 21 yo

A

Nisseria. M and Strep. Pneumoniae

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26
Q

> 21 yo what is the most common cause of meningitis?

A

Strep. Pneumoniae, H.In, Moraxella

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27
Q

What is the most common cause of meningitis in a patient with HIV?

A

Strep. pneumonia and cryptococcus is possible but not the most common

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28
Q

What is the most common cause of meningitis in a patient with placentment of ventriculoparitoneal shunt?

A

Staph. Epidermidi

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29
Q

What are the most common causes of encephalitis?

A

HSV, Aboviruses (west nile, wastern equine), enteroviruses (coxsackieviruses, echoviruses, polioviruses, and the hepatitis A virus.)

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30
Q

What is the coverage for bacterial meningits in a patient that is <1 month

A

Amp (covers listeria), Gentamicin (also covers gram negatives) and cefotaxime (covers E.coli)

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31
Q

What is the abx coverage for bacterial meningits in a patient that is 2-50 yo?

A

Vancomycin (pneumococal resistance to ceftrixone) + ceftriaxone (cannot be given to infants because it can cause biliary stasis)+ cefotaxime + Ampicillin

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32
Q

Patient that went on a hiking trip in Boston is complaining of headache and a target rash. Lumbar puncture shows heavy lymphocytes. What is the treatment for this patient?

A

(lyme disease) ceftriaxone

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33
Q

Patient that went on a hiking trip in in Carolina and is complaining of headache and a rash that started behind his ear and now diffusely spread over his body. Lumbar puncture shows heavy lymphocytes. What is the treatment for this patient?

A

(R.R) doxycline

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34
Q

Patietn with a + HIV status presents to the clinic with headache. India ink stain is positive what is the treatemnt for this patient?

A

(Cryptococcus .N) Amphotercin B and Flucytosine

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35
Q

Pt that has history of miliary tuberculosis presents with nunchal rigidity and photophobia. Lumbar puncture shows lymphocytosis what is the treatment regimen for this patient?

A

(TB meningitis) RIPE + steriods

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36
Q

Meningitis + petechiae+ purpura

A

N.M

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37
Q

Meningits + only petechia (no purpura)

A

Ricketssia

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38
Q

What is the treatment for a patient with AMS and recent onset of temporal seizure?

A

Acyclovir (meningoencephalitis caused my herpes virus)

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39
Q

What is the most common cause of viral meningitis?

A

arboviruses

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40
Q

What antibiotic covers most Strep infections

A

Penicillins

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41
Q

What antibiotics primarily cover sensitive peniclliniase Staph?

A

Narrow spectrum dicloxacillin (oral), oxacillin, methacillin

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42
Q

What antibiotics cover methicillin resistant Staph?

A

Vancomycin

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43
Q

What organisms does Amp/Amoxicillin cover?

A

Listeria, H.In, salmonella, moraxella , H. pylori

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44
Q

What 1st generation cephalosporin is oral?

A

Cephalexin

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45
Q

3rd generation cephalosporins cover?

A

E. Coli, Kleb, Proteus, Hin, and Moraxella

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46
Q

Which third generation cephalsporin covers pseudomonas?

A

ceftazidime

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47
Q

What is the fourth generation cephalosporin that covers pseudomonas?

A

Cefipime

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48
Q

What other drug class is a broad spectrum antibiotic that covers everything?

A

pipercillin and tazobactam

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49
Q

What antibiotics in addition to clindamycin and metronidazole cover anaerobic infections?

A

Amoxicillin clauvulanate (penicillin + penicillinase)

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50
Q

Carbapenems are reliable for _____ coverage (mupirocin)

A

Broad spectrum coverage

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51
Q

What are the most common causes of exudative pharyngitis?

A

EBV and Strep

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52
Q

If you suspect that a patient has a viral upper/lower respiratory tract infection what diagnostic test would you get?

A

PCR

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53
Q

If you suspect a patient has EBV what is the diagnostic work up

A

r/o Strep infection with a rapid strep test. CBC with peripheral blood smear and a monospot test

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54
Q

A patient presents to your office with fever and cough a CXR is obtained and is showing air fluid level?

A

get a CXR

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55
Q

A patient presents to your office with fever and cough you order a CXR and the CXR shows infiltrates, what is the next step in managment?

A

CURB-65 assess whether this patient should be hospitalized or not. Obtain blood culture before administering empiric antibiotics

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56
Q

What does CURB-65 stand for?

A

Confusion
Urea >20
RR: 30 min
B/p: systolic <90

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57
Q

What is the scoring system for CURB-65

A

If the score is 3-5 this requires ICU admission, if the score is 1-2 in patient admission, if 0 outpatient

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58
Q

What is the treatment for a patient with pneumonia outpatient

A

Azithromycin or doxycycline

59
Q

What is the treatment for a patient with pneumonia inpatient?

A

3rd gen cephalosporin + macrolide or doxy, beta lactam + beta lactamase or a quinlones

60
Q

A patient with recurrent pneumonia in the same lobe should be worked up for?

A

Ct scan to determine if there is an obstructive mass

61
Q

What is the difference between aspiration pneumonitis and aspiration pneumonia?

A

Aspiration pneumonitis has sterile gastric fluid content in the airway the patient may have low grade fever and small infiltrates, but they resolve in a matter of days. Where as the patient with aspiration pneumonia swallow anaerobic organisms and causes infection.

62
Q

What is the most likely location for aspiration pneumonia to occur?

A

posterior segment of the right upper lobe

63
Q

What are good treatments for aspiration pneumonia?

A

Amoxicillin clavulanate , or metronidazole + cefdinir

64
Q

What are treatments for patients that have community acquired pneumonia?

A

Ceftriaxone + azithromycin, cefdinir and doxycycline

65
Q

What are the treatments for HAP?

A

Vancomycin (high risk for MRSA) , cefipime

66
Q

Atypical organisms like legionella, mycoplasma, and chlamydia are covered by what antibiotics

A

Macrolides, doxycyline, and quinolones

67
Q

These risks put patients at high risk of methicillin resistance.

A

IV drug use, HIV +, recent antibiotic therapy,

68
Q

If a patient had a recent dental extraction what bug would likely cause endocarditis?

A

Strep Viridans

69
Q

What are the organisms associated with strep viridans?

A

Strep mutans, strep sanguis, strep mitis, strep salivarius

70
Q

Pt. has history of lower GI or Urogenital tract manipulation what bug would most likely cause endocarditis?

A

Enetrococus faecalis

71
Q

What organism would cause endocarditis in a patient 2 months after replacement of a prosthetic device?

A

S epidermidis (tends to be penicillin resistant)

72
Q

What organism would cause endocarditis in a patient 2 months after placement of a prosthetic device?

A

strep viridans

73
Q

what organism would cause endocarditis in an IV drug user?

A

Staph. Areus (typically tends to be methicillin resistant)

74
Q

What are common gram negative infections

A

HAECK (Haemophilus, actinobacillus, cardiobacterium , eikenella, and kingella

75
Q

what organism would cause endocarditis in a with colon cancer or liver dzz

A

strep bovis

76
Q

Pts with strep bovis should undergo what screening procedure?

A

colonoscopy

77
Q

What are the most common murmurs in infective endocarditis?

A

Mitral regurgitation

78
Q

What are the most common murmurs in IV drug users

A

tricuspid regurg

79
Q

What is the empiric antibiotic for endocarditis?

A

Vancomycin + (gentamicin or cefipime in patients with prosthetic heart valves )

80
Q

An infant that is 1 month old has been exposed to VZV (chicken pox, but there mother was never vaccinated prior to pregnancy, what is the best next step in management to protect the child from a possible chickenpox outbreak?

A

VZV immunoglobulin

81
Q

What is the most common cause of subacute endocardits?

A

Strep Viridans

82
Q

What is the most common cause of acute endocarditis?

83
Q

What is the difference in presentation of subacute endocarditis and acute endocarditis?

A

Subacute is a slow onset -progressive disease presentation of fevers whereas acute the patients presentation gets worse within a couple of days.

84
Q

Central venous catheters, surgical implants, and medical devices (e.g., pacemakers, ICDs are covered in what organism?

85
Q

What is the treatment for HAEK endocarditis?

A

ceftriaxone

86
Q

What is the treatment for Whipple’s disease?

87
Q

Amiodarone in addition to causing pulmonary fibrosis also has what other side affects?

A

Hepatoxicity

88
Q

Why is norepinephrine not administered to someone in hypovolemic shock?

A

Although it can be used in patients with hypotensive or cardiogenic shock. Vasoconstriction won’t fix the problem of hypovolemia. That means fluids and a transfusion are the next steps in managment.

89
Q

What should we consider when giving a prophylactic antibiotic prior to surgery?

A
  1. Is the patient at high risk
    a. Pt have a prosthetic valve?
    b. Previous history of endocarditis
    c. unrepaired congenital defect
    d. Repair of a cardiac defect 6mos
    e. residual cardiac defect
  2. Is it a high risk procedure
    a. dental procedure
    b. incision or biopsy of the mucosa
    c. GI or GU infection in patients with an ongoing infection
    d. procedures in a patient with an infection
90
Q

What are alarm symptoms associated with diarrhea?

A

diarrhea through the night, bloody, immunosuppression, recent antibiotic use.

91
Q

Diarrhea that last for < 1week is caused by ______ until proven otherwise?

92
Q

Diarrhea that is as a result of domestic animal contact

93
Q

New onset of diarrhea after returing from an endemic area?

A

Vibrio Chlorea

94
Q

New onset of diarrhea after shellfish ingestion?

A

Vibrio Vulnificans or parahemolyticus

95
Q

What is the most common cause of C. Diff diarrhea?

A

antibiotic use

96
Q

What kind of percautions should we have with a c.diff patient?

A

Gown, gloves, and *washing hands

97
Q

What is the treatment for C.diff

A

Vancomycin

98
Q

When should we screen a patient for HIV?

A

Anyone that is sexually active

99
Q

When should we screen for Nisseria. M, or chlamydia?

A

Any sexually active female <25

100
Q

If a patient has recurrent UTI’s that aren’t treated with ceftriaxone consider ______ as a possible culprit of infection?

A

trichamonis

101
Q

True/False; A patient that is found to have a nisserial urethritis should be treated with both azithromycin and Ceftraxone

102
Q

How should we treat the partner of a patient that has Nisseria Ghonerrea

A

Oral cefixime + azithromycin

103
Q

What is the triad for dissmenated gonoccal infection

A

Arthralgias, rash, an fever

104
Q

A patient with painful vesicles on the labia presents to your office what is the next step in managment.

A

This is a clinical diagnosis, there is no need to get a tzanck smear unless you are unsure of the diagnosis.

105
Q

What are conditions where a rash is present on the palms and soles?

A

Cocksackie, Rocky mountain spotted fever, Kawasaki, syphillis

106
Q

What is the most common cause of septic arthritis in sexually active young adults?

107
Q

What is the most common cause of septic arthritis in the general population?

108
Q

What are the two types of angioedema

A

There is a bradykinin and histamine

109
Q

What is the difference between angioedema and utacaria?

A

Uticaria is a superficial involvement of histamine release where as angioedema is in the dermis due to vascular permeability

110
Q

_____ accumulation is responsible for the action we see in angioedema?

A

bradykinin

111
Q

______ release is responsible for utacaria?

112
Q

Angioedema caused by ace inhibitors is mediated by?

113
Q

Patient presents to the ED after 6hrs of ingesting a sulfa drug with rupture bullae, mucosal ulcers. Nikosky’s sign is positive what is the dx?

A

SJS/TEN depending on the surface area coverage

114
Q

A 16 yo girl presents to the ED hemodynamically unstable, and desquamation of the hands and feet. Nikolsky’s test is negative . Oral examination shows no mucosal involvement. What is the diagnosis?

A

TSS , look for risk factors like tampon and nasal packaging

115
Q

This skin infection also occurs due to Staph. Patient may present with diffuse bullae. Nikolsky is positive. However this patient isn’t in any hemodynamic distress and there are no oral ulcers.

A

Scalded skin syndrome

116
Q

Type IV HSR, causes a morbiliform rash + eosinophilia

A

DRESS syndrome (drug reaction with eosionphilia)

117
Q

How can we differentiate a morbilliform rash that is due to DRESS v. serum sickness?

A

Typically serum sickness will have arthralgia where DRESS has some kind of end organ damage

118
Q

What are the catalase positive organisms?

A

E.coli, Serratia, Pseudomonas, Nocardia, Listeria, Aspergillus, Candida, and Klebsiella, Staph. Areus

119
Q

If a patient is suffering from recurrent infections with catalase + organisms what is the underlying issue?

A

Neutrophils: Neutropenia, leukocyte adhesion deficiency, CGD, Chediak-Higashi

120
Q

What are the common signs/symptoms of Wiskott A

A

TEAM: thrombocytopenia, eczema, autoimmune condition , and malignancy

121
Q

A patient who is in college has an insidious onset of headaches since this morning. The patient has become obtunded and has nuchal rigidity on passive neck flexion. The patients roommate noticed rash appearing on her earlier this morning. What bug do you think is causing the patients symptoms?

A

Nisseria Meningits; keep in mind that there are other bugs that can cause meningitis don’t have an acute course of presentation

122
Q

What is organism that cause lyme disease?

A

Boriella B

123
Q

What are the stages of lyme disease

124
Q

What is the first line treatment for lyme disease?

A

Doxycycline, and for pregnant woman amoxicillin

125
Q

A patient presents after a weekend at Yosemite national park with acute presentation of fatigue, muscle pain, fever. The. patient has red rash around the ankles. Labs show thrombocytopenia, and elevated AST and ALT what is the diagnosis.

A

Rickettsia R. In general RR progresses faster than lyme disease.

126
Q

What is the treatment for RR

A

doxycycline

127
Q

Describe the presentation of bordatella pertusis in one sentence.

A

Patient with mild cough that progresses to severe bought of coughing, waining immunity and not being vaccinated are risk factors

128
Q

During application of local anesthetic to a patient a colleague gets stuck with a needle from a patient known to have HIV. Blood is drawn for testing what should the patient do in the meantime?

A

The patient should start PEP (post -exposure prophylaxis) which is three anti-retrovirals for 4 weeks.

129
Q

A patient presents to the office with complaints of cracked and peeling skin in between the toes the patient is constantly on his feet and wears sneakers throughout the day, what may be the cause of the cracking and peeling.

A

Dermatophytes like trichophyton ruburum. They can cause an opening point for other bacteria to enter into the feet.

130
Q

To prevent a patient from acquiring toxoplasmosis when should we give prophylactic treatment

131
Q

What is the CD4 count number we need to prophylax for histoplasma?

132
Q

When is prophylaxis indicated for CMV?

A

Only in patients with recent transplants.

133
Q

How is Nisseria M spread

A

droplets, respiratory

134
Q

What labs would help differentiate a bacterial versus a viral infection in the brain?

135
Q

What vaccinations are adults with HIV able to get?

A

Hep A, Hep B, HPV, influenza (nasal is live and contranidicated), Nisseria Meningicocus (booster every 5 years), Tdap, strep. pneumo, Varicella can only be given if the CD count is greater than 500 otherwise a recombinant vaccine is required.

136
Q

Lymphogranuloma venerum is the same as..

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

137
Q

Group A contains what strep ?

A

Strep pyogenes: remember group A&B are under beta hemolytic strep

138
Q

The primary bug that causes Erysipelas?

A

Strep pyogenes

139
Q

What is the main organism that causes cellulitis?

A

If the cellulitis is purulent staph areus, if non- purulent than Strep. pyogenes

140
Q

Strep pneumonia is the primary bacterial culprit in what pathologies?

A

MOPS, Meningitis, otitis media, pneumonia, and sinusitis

141
Q

Strep Pyogenes is the primary bacterial culprit in what diseases?

A

LINES, lymphangitis, impetigo necrotizing fascitis, erysipelas (celluitus), Scarlett fever

142
Q

How do you diagnose Hep C?

A

Serology Hep C IgG antibody
HCV RNA via molecular test

143
Q

A patient recently returning from Ecuador has RUQ. On physical exam she has hepatomegaly. Labs show elevated eosinophils and imaging shows cysts. What is the treatment for this patient?

A

Albendazole; this patient has Echinococus granulosus which is a dog tapeworm that usually reside in it’s host sheep.

144
Q

What is the most common cause for viral gastroenteritis?

A

Norovirus, unless they are younger than the age of two and have not been vaccinated.