OB 52, 53 Study guide Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Caudal regression syndrome, found in patients with what?
A

Diabetes

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2
Q
  1. What term defines the appearance of overlapping skull bones indicate fetal death?
A

spaldings sign

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3
Q
  1. What would fetal hydrops appear like under ultrasound, sonographic findings?
A

scalp edema, plueral effusion, percardial effusion, ascites, polyhydraminos, and thickened placenta

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4
Q
  1. If hydrops is cause by tachycardia, what is the fetal heart rate?
A

over 170 beats per minute

200-240 BPM

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5
Q
  1. If a pregnant woman has a baby, patient of size, what increase incidence is there?
A

Neural tube defects

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6
Q
  1. What is caudal regression syndrome?
A

Lack of development of the caudal spine and cord that may occur in the fetus of a diabetic mother

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7
Q
  1. Skeletal and central nervous system anomalies in infants of diabetes mother including all of the following?
A

neural tube defects
anencephaly
caudal regression syndrome

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8
Q
  1. When is it considered premature labor?
A

Onset of labor before 37 weeks

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9
Q
  1. Monochorionic twins, which will develop without a heart or upper body?
A

Acardica twin

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10
Q
  1. Which one of the following statements about twin to twin transfusion is true?
A

the arterial blood of the one twin is pumped into the venous system of the other twin

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11
Q
  1. What is poly-oli sequence?
A

Poly in one of the twins sac and oligo (small twin) in the other twins sac

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12
Q
  1. What is another name for poly-oli sequence?
A

stuck-twin syndrome

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13
Q
  1. Development of conjoined twins occurs how many days after conception?
A

13 days

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14
Q
  1. Stuck twin syndrome is usually observed in what weeks?
A

16-26 weeks

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15
Q
  1. Dia-dia, demonstrates what sonographic findings?
A

two gestational sac and two placentas

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16
Q
  1. Which one of the following is demonstration of one fertilized egg occurs 4-8 days after fertilization?
A

one chorion and two amnions

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17
Q
  1. Predictors of discordant in the growth of twins?
A

a difference in fetal weight greater than 20%
a difference in abdominal circumference of 20 mm or greater
a difference in femur length of 5 mm or greater

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18
Q
  1. Most frequency causes of nonimmune hydrops?
A

Cardiovascular lesions

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19
Q
  1. What are the advantages of chorionic villa samplings?
A

it is preformed in the first trimester
the results on available in 1 week
early result allow for more options for the parents

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20
Q
  1. Cordocentesis is more commonly used for what procedure?
A

chromosomes are analyzed

guidance for transfusion to treat isoimuniztion

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21
Q
  1. Amniocentesis may be used for all the following except?
A

prediction of cardiac anomalies

22
Q
  1. Why do we perform amniocentisis?
A

to relieve polyhydraminos, to predict Rh isoimmunization, to document fetal lung maturity, detect chromosomal abnormality or biochemical disorder

23
Q
  1. Twins that arise from two separately fertilized ova are what type of twins?
24
Q
  1. Sonographic findings that suggest chromosomal anomalies include?
A

hand clenching
thickened nuchal fold
omphalocele

25
25. AFP is found in all of the following except?
Brain
26
26. High levels of AFP indicate what?
anencephaly open spina bifida gastroschisis
27
27. Quad screen evaluates all except?
Evaluates: AFP, hcG, unconjugated estriol, dimeric inhibin *not fetal lung maturity*
28
28. Abnormality in a number of chromosomes?
Aneuploidy
29
29. Early noninvasive means of assess the means of aneuploidy?
Nucheal Translucency
30
30. Following sono findings of thickening nuchal, shortened femurs, cardiac anomalies, hydro, what do we look for?
trisomy 21
31
31. Sonographic findings of cranial anomalies, choroid plexus cyst, facial abnormalities, and rocker bottom feet?
trisomy 18
32
32. Holoproscencephaly and proboscis are find in what type of fetus?
trisomy 13
33
33. Secondary to pregnancy include hypertension, coma, seizure, 2nd and 3rd trimester represent what?
eclampsia
34
34. Large cystic hygroma, hydrops, coartation (arch/ascending, split, b/c of trauma) of the aorta, may be seen in a fetus with what condition?
Turners syndrome
35
35. Pregnancy associated with PAP A levels, what do they do?
increase through out pregnancy
36
36. AFP produced early in gestation by what structure?
Yolk sac
37
37. Common reason for an elevated MSAFP is what?
incorrect dates
38
38. Most common anepolidy condition is what?
Downs syndrome
39
39. Optimal collect sight in amnio includes all except? (Parameters)
away from the fetus away from the umbilical cord away from the central portion of the placenta
40
40. MSAFP levels increase with advanced maternal age and peak at what gestational age?
15-18 weeks
41
41. Free Beta HCG can be access in 1st trim to evaluate what condition?
down syndrome
42
42. After amnio, sonographer should document what?
fetal cardiac activity
43
43. Continuous monitor after amnio, what can it cause?
Oligo
44
44. Fetal death after reach certain growth can’t be reabsorbed is called?
Fetus papyraceus
45
45. Low AFP levels have been found in this condition? One more common than other
fetus younger than expected
46
46. What is the diagram of the chromosomes called?
Karaotyping
47
47. Abnormal NT increase fetal risk for all except?
``` Is a risk for: trisomies 13, 18, & 21 & structural defects such as: cardiac diaphragmatic renal ABD wall (MW pg 1198) ```
48
48. Which one is not associated with Turners?
Taller than average stature????? ``` Is associated: cystic hygroma heart defects hydrops renal anomalies ```
49
49. Which is included in 1st trim maternal serum screening?
a NT measurement
50
50. Conjoined twins. 5 question! 5 most common types
``` joined at thorax thoracopagus joined at anterior wall omphalopagus joined at cranium craniopagus joined at ischial region pygopagus joined at buttock region ischiopagus ```