OB 52, 53 Study guide Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Caudal regression syndrome, found in patients with what?
A

Diabetes

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2
Q
  1. What term defines the appearance of overlapping skull bones indicate fetal death?
A

spaldings sign

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3
Q
  1. What would fetal hydrops appear like under ultrasound, sonographic findings?
A

scalp edema, plueral effusion, percardial effusion, ascites, polyhydraminos, and thickened placenta

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4
Q
  1. If hydrops is cause by tachycardia, what is the fetal heart rate?
A

over 170 beats per minute

200-240 BPM

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5
Q
  1. If a pregnant woman has a baby, patient of size, what increase incidence is there?
A

Neural tube defects

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6
Q
  1. What is caudal regression syndrome?
A

Lack of development of the caudal spine and cord that may occur in the fetus of a diabetic mother

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7
Q
  1. Skeletal and central nervous system anomalies in infants of diabetes mother including all of the following?
A

neural tube defects
anencephaly
caudal regression syndrome

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8
Q
  1. When is it considered premature labor?
A

Onset of labor before 37 weeks

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9
Q
  1. Monochorionic twins, which will develop without a heart or upper body?
A

Acardica twin

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10
Q
  1. Which one of the following statements about twin to twin transfusion is true?
A

the arterial blood of the one twin is pumped into the venous system of the other twin

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11
Q
  1. What is poly-oli sequence?
A

Poly in one of the twins sac and oligo (small twin) in the other twins sac

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12
Q
  1. What is another name for poly-oli sequence?
A

stuck-twin syndrome

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13
Q
  1. Development of conjoined twins occurs how many days after conception?
A

13 days

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14
Q
  1. Stuck twin syndrome is usually observed in what weeks?
A

16-26 weeks

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15
Q
  1. Dia-dia, demonstrates what sonographic findings?
A

two gestational sac and two placentas

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16
Q
  1. Which one of the following is demonstration of one fertilized egg occurs 4-8 days after fertilization?
A

one chorion and two amnions

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17
Q
  1. Predictors of discordant in the growth of twins?
A

a difference in fetal weight greater than 20%
a difference in abdominal circumference of 20 mm or greater
a difference in femur length of 5 mm or greater

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18
Q
  1. Most frequency causes of nonimmune hydrops?
A

Cardiovascular lesions

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19
Q
  1. What are the advantages of chorionic villa samplings?
A

it is preformed in the first trimester
the results on available in 1 week
early result allow for more options for the parents

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20
Q
  1. Cordocentesis is more commonly used for what procedure?
A

chromosomes are analyzed

guidance for transfusion to treat isoimuniztion

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21
Q
  1. Amniocentesis may be used for all the following except?
A

prediction of cardiac anomalies

22
Q
  1. Why do we perform amniocentisis?
A

to relieve polyhydraminos, to predict Rh isoimmunization, to document fetal lung maturity, detect chromosomal abnormality or biochemical disorder

23
Q
  1. Twins that arise from two separately fertilized ova are what type of twins?
A

dizygotic

24
Q
  1. Sonographic findings that suggest chromosomal anomalies include?
A

hand clenching
thickened nuchal fold
omphalocele

25
Q
  1. AFP is found in all of the following except?
A

Brain

26
Q
  1. High levels of AFP indicate what?
A

anencephaly
open spina bifida
gastroschisis

27
Q
  1. Quad screen evaluates all except?
A

Evaluates: AFP, hcG, unconjugated estriol, dimeric inhibin not fetal lung maturity

28
Q
  1. Abnormality in a number of chromosomes?
A

Aneuploidy

29
Q
  1. Early noninvasive means of assess the means of aneuploidy?
A

Nucheal Translucency

30
Q
  1. Following sono findings of thickening nuchal, shortened femurs, cardiac anomalies, hydro, what do we look for?
A

trisomy 21

31
Q
  1. Sonographic findings of cranial anomalies, choroid plexus cyst, facial abnormalities, and rocker bottom feet?
A

trisomy 18

32
Q
  1. Holoproscencephaly and proboscis are find in what type of fetus?
A

trisomy 13

33
Q
  1. Secondary to pregnancy include hypertension, coma, seizure, 2nd and 3rd trimester represent what?
A

eclampsia

34
Q
  1. Large cystic hygroma, hydrops, coartation (arch/ascending, split, b/c of trauma) of the aorta, may be seen in a fetus with what condition?
A

Turners syndrome

35
Q
  1. Pregnancy associated with PAP A levels, what do they do?
A

increase through out pregnancy

36
Q
  1. AFP produced early in gestation by what structure?
A

Yolk sac

37
Q
  1. Common reason for an elevated MSAFP is what?
A

incorrect dates

38
Q
  1. Most common anepolidy condition is what?
A

Downs syndrome

39
Q
  1. Optimal collect sight in amnio includes all except? (Parameters)
A

away from the fetus
away from the umbilical cord
away from the central portion of the placenta

40
Q
  1. MSAFP levels increase with advanced maternal age and peak at what gestational age?
A

15-18 weeks

41
Q
  1. Free Beta HCG can be access in 1st trim to evaluate what condition?
A

down syndrome

42
Q
  1. After amnio, sonographer should document what?
A

fetal cardiac activity

43
Q
  1. Continuous monitor after amnio, what can it cause?
A

Oligo

44
Q
  1. Fetal death after reach certain growth can’t be reabsorbed is called?
A

Fetus papyraceus

45
Q
  1. Low AFP levels have been found in this condition? One more common than other
A

fetus younger than expected

46
Q
  1. What is the diagram of the chromosomes called?
A

Karaotyping

47
Q
  1. Abnormal NT increase fetal risk for all except?
A
Is a risk for:
trisomies 13, 18, & 21
&
structural defects such as:
cardiac
diaphragmatic
renal 
ABD wall
(MW pg 1198)
48
Q
  1. Which one is not associated with Turners?
A

Taller than average stature?????

Is associated:
cystic hygroma
heart defects
hydrops
renal anomalies
49
Q
  1. Which is included in 1st trim maternal serum screening?
A

a NT measurement

50
Q
  1. Conjoined twins. 5 question! 5 most common types
A
joined at thorax  thoracopagus
joined at anterior wall   omphalopagus
joined at cranium  craniopagus
joined at ischial region   pygopagus
joined at buttock region   ischiopagus