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o 204 e2 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of these do not contribute to the Kiesselbach’s Plexus
    a. Greater Palatine Artery
    b. Sphenopalatine Artery
    c. Septal Artery
    d. Labial Artery
A

c. Septal Artery

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2
Q
  1. Under which turbinate is the nasolacrimal duct found
    a. Inferior
    b. Middle
    c. Superior
    d. Supreme
    e. Lateral
A

a. Inferior

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3
Q
  1. How many days does it take the olfactory epithelium to replenish itself?
    a. 25 days
    b. 30 days
    c. 40 days
    d. 60 days
    e. 75 days
A

c.c. 40 days

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4
Q
  1. Sinus that’s not present until 5-6 years of age
    a. Frontal
    b. Ethmoidal
    c. Maxillary
    d. Sphenoid
A

a. Frontal

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5
Q
  1. Into what structure does the maxillary sinus drain to?
    a. Superior Meatus
    b. Inferior Meatus
    c. Middle Meatus
    d. Supreme Meatus
A

c. Middle Meatus

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6
Q
  1. Aside from olfactory nerve, which cranial nerve contributes to the sensory system of olfaction?
    a. CN 1
    b. CN 3
    c. CN 5
    d. CN 7
    e. CN 9
A

c. CN 5

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7
Q
  1. What bone do the axonal projections have to pass to reach the olfactory bulb?
    a. pterygoid
    b. ethmoid
    c. sphenopalatine
    d. septal
A

b. ethmoid

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8
Q
  1. What is the volume of the maxillary sinus?
    a. 7 mL
    b. 14 mL
    c. 15 mL
    d. 3-5 mL
A

c. 15 mL

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9
Q
  1. The angle between the lamina of the thyroid is
    a. 100 degrees in men
    b. 100 degrees in women
    c. 120 degrees in women
    d. 85 degrees in men
A

c. 120 degrees in women

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10
Q
  1. Which one is not true of laryngeal elevation?
    a. Occurs during swallowing
    b. Caused by thyrohyoid contraction
    c. Caused by sternohyoid contraction
    d. Directs food into pyriform fossa
A

c. Caused by sternohyoid contraction

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11
Q 
11.	Olfactory pathway (order these choices)
i - Amygdala
ii - Olfactory bulb
iii - Thalamus
iv - Hypothalamus
v - Temporal lobe
a.	i – ii – iii – iv – v 
b.	i – iii – v – ii – iv 
c.	i – ii – iv – iii – v
d.	ii – i – iii – iv – v 
e.	ii – i – iv – iii – v
A

d. ii – i – iii – iv – v

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12
Q
  1. Which is NOT TRUE of the body-cover theory?
    a. Epithelium is the cover
    b. Superficial layer of lamina propria is the transition
    c. vocal ligament is the transition
    d. vocalis muscle is the body
    e. deep layer of lamina propria is the body
A

a. Superficial layer of lamina propria is the transition

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13
Q
  1. The lower range of pitch of males is because of…
    a. Longer vocal folds
    b. Thicker vocal folds
    c. Greater angle of laryngeal prominence
    d. Greater amount of air in trachea
A

b. Thicker vocal folds

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14
Q
  1. Which of the following is the action of lateral cricoarytenoids?
    a. Adduction
    b. Abduction
    c. Tensor
    d. Flexor
A

a. Adduction

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15
Q
  1. What is the most important function of the larynx?
    a. Respiration
    b. Protection
    c. Phonation
    d. Articulation
    e. Vibration
A

b. Protection

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16
Q
  1. What is the correct sequence of sound production? i. Articulator ii.Resonator iii. Vibrator iv. Generator
    a. iv, i, ii, iii
    b. i, ii, iii, iv
    c. iv, iii, ii, i
    d. ii, iv, i, iii
    e. iii, ii, i, iv
A
  1. What is the correct sequence of sound production? i. Articulator ii.Resonator iii. Vibrator iv. Generator
    a. iv, i, ii, iii
    b. i, ii, iii, iv
    c. iv, iii, ii, i
    d. ii, iv, i, iii
    e. iii, ii, i, iv
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17
Q
  1. Ligating the external carotid artery will stop the epistaxis of the following arteries except
    a. Ethmoid artery
    b. Labial artery
    c. Sphenopalatine artery
    d. Nasoseptal artery
    e. Palatine artery
A

a. Ethmoid artery

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18
Q
  1. Uncinate process is part of which bone?
    a. Frontal
    b. Ethmoid
    c. Maxillary
    d. Lacrymal
    e. Inferior Concha
A

b. Ethmoid

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19
Q
  1. The orifice of the nasolacrimal duct can be onstructed by a tumor of what part of the nasal cavity?
    a. Superior meatus
    b. Middle meatus
    c. Inferior meatus
    d. Supreme meatus
A

c. Inferior meatus

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20
Q
  1. The orifice of the nasolacrimal duct can be onstructed by a tumor of what part of the nasal cavity?
    a. Superior meatus
    b. Middle meatus
    c. Inferior meatus
    d. Supreme meatus
A

c. Inferior meatus

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21
Q
  1. What separates the posterior and anterior ethmoidal openings?
    a. Inferior concha
    b. Middle concha
    c. Superior concha
    d. Supreme concha
    e. lamina papyracae
A

b. Middle concha

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22
Q
  1. Surrounds the ethmoid bulla except
    a. Lamina papyracea
    b. Uncinate process
    c. Semilunar hiatus
    d. Superior concha
    e. Middle concha
A

d. Superior concha

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23
Q
  1. All these structures are adjacent or related to the sphenoid sinus except:
    a. pituitary gland
    b. external carotid artery
    c. optic nerve
    d. optic canal
    e. cavernous sinus
A

b. external carotid artery

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24
Q
  1. Sinusitis lead to blindness via
    a. Direct extension of abscess in orbit
    b. Optic nerve neuritis
    c. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
    d. AOTA
    e. NOTA
A

d. AOTA

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25
Q
  1. The thoracic duct drains into which of the following
    a. Right subclavian and jugular vein angle
    b. Left subclavian and jugular vein angle
    c. Bilateral subclavian and jugular vein angle
    d. Left internal jugular vein
    e. Left subclavian vein
A

b. Left subclavian and jugular vein angle

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26
Q
  1. Anatomical structure separating lymphatic level IA and IB
    a. Posterior belly of digastrics
    b. Anterior belly of digastrics
    c. Superior omohyoid belly
    d. Inferior omohyoid belly
    e. Spinal Accessory Nerve
A

b. Anterior belly of digastrics

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27
Q
  1. Left subclavian lymph node cancer spread may least likely arise from which of the following?
    a. Left nasopharynx
    b. Right colon
    c. Left lung
    d. Right lung
    e. All of the above
A

d. Right lung

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28
Q
  1. What passes the phrenic nerve anteriorly near the root of the neck?
    a. Subclavian vein
    b. Scalenus anterior
    c. Inferior thyroid artery
    d. Subclavian artery
A

a. Subclavian vein

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29
Q
  1. Venous drainage of nasal mucosa except:
    a. Ophthalmic vein
    b. Sphenopalatine vein
    c. Facial vein
    d. Cavernous sinus
    e. Angular vein
A

a. Ophthalmic vein

30
Q
  1. Cancer of the upper eye lid initially metastasize to:
    a. Occipital
    b. Submental
    c. Submandibular
    d. Jugulodigastric
    e. Parotid
A

e. Parotid

31
Q
  1. Supraclavicular nodes is drained at what lymphatic level
    a. Group IV
    b. Group V-A
    c. Group V- B
    d. Group VI
    e. Group VII
A

c. Group V- B

32
Q
  1. Early cancer of the true vocal cords presents as:
    a. Level II lymph node enlargement
    b. Level III lymph node enlargement
    c. Level IV lymph node enlargement
    d. Level VI lymph node enlargement
    e. None of the above
A

d. Level VI lymph node enlargement

33
Q
  1. Which structure or anatomic landmark delineates level II from level III lymph nodes?
    a. Hyoid bone
    b. Cricoid cartilage
    c. Anterior belly of omohyoid
    d. Posterior belly of omohyoid
    e. Posterior belly of digastrics
A

a. Hyoid bone

34
Q
  1. Which CT scan view works best in visualizing the extraocular eye muscles?
    a. Axial
    b. Coronal
    c. Sagittal
    d. Lateral
A

b. Coronal

35
Q
  1. Normal mastoid cells are described radiographically as
    a. Balloon-like
    b. Coin stacks appearance
    c. Honeycomb
A

b. Coin stacks appearance

36
Q
  1. Which of the following will give us an idea of the thyroid gland’s function?
    a. Arteriogram
    b. Thyroid ultrasound
    c. Thyroid scan
    d. Thyroid MRI
A

c. Thyroid scan

37
Q
  1. Why do we prefer Caldwell view to the Skull AP when evaluating the orbits?
    a. It is easier to do a Caldwell
    b. The patient does not need to be manipulated with a 
Caldwell
    c. The sphenoid wings are removed from consideration
    d. It is cheaper to do a Caldwell
A

c. The sphenoid wings are removed from consideration

38
Q
  1. Middle ear fluid of the left, neck node enlargement at level II, and blood-tinged mucus suggest:
    a. Ear skin cancer
    b. Parotid cancer
    c. Nasopharyngeal cancer
    d. Maxillary cancer
    e. all of the above
A

c. Nasopharyngeal cancer

39
Q
  1. Description of a blow-out fracture
    a. Medial orbital wall fracture with impingement of the medial extraocular muscle
    b. Medial orbital wall fracture with impingement of the optic nerve
    c. Orbital floor fracture with impingement of the inferior extraocular muscle
    d. Orbital floor fracture with impingement of the optic nerve
A

c. Orbital floor fracture with impingement of the inferior extraocular muscle

40
Q
  1. Best used xray study for the most fractured bone of the face
    a. AP
    b. ST Lateral
    c. Water’s
    d. Basal
A

b. ST Lateral

41
Q
  1. Which of the following pairings is incorrect?
    a. Sialogram: submandibular gland
    b. Dacryocystogram: lacrimal gland
    c. MRI: Soft tissue
    d. Ultrasound: zygomatic fracture
A

d. Ultrasound: zygomatic fracture

42
Q
  1. When you want to gain immediate access to the airway in a patient with an oropharyngeal obstruction, your inferior landmark for your access point is the:
    a. Hyoid bone
    b. Thyroid cornua
    c. Laryngeal prominence
    d. Cricoid cartilage
    e. 1st tracheal ring
A

d. Cricoid cartilage

43
Q
  1. A knife was stabbed into the neck at an area perpendicular to its vertical axis, injuring the zone containing the subclavian artery. Which zone was injured in the neck?
    a. Zone 1
    b. Zone 2
    c. Zone 3
    d. Zone 4
    e. NOTA
A

a. Zone 1

44
Q
  1. Why is it technically easier to do a skin flap in the anterior neck than in the posterior?
    a. The skin is thinner in the anterior neck than in the posterior
    b. The presence of a distinct fascial cleft between the superficial and deep cervical fascia in the anterior neck
    c. The presence of the platysma in the anterior neck
    d. It is more muscular in the posterior neck
    e. The fascial covering is thicker in the posterior neck
A

b. The presence of a distinct fascial cleft between the superficial and deep cervical fascia in the anterior neck

45
Q
  1. What clinical condition can cause a jugular vein pressure of 4 cm H20 or below?
    a. Thrombosis of subclavian vein
    b. Superior vena cava obstruction
    c. Right sided heart failure
    d. Dehydration
    e. Hypervolemia
A

d. Dehydration

46
Q
  1. An opera singer has recently undergone thyroidectomy. Following the surgery, the singer could no longer sing in a high pitched voice. Where in the surgical dissection did the injury to the affected nerve occured?
    a. During the ligation of the superior pole vessels
    b. During the ligation of the middle thyroid vessels
    c. During the ligation of the inferior thyroid vessels
    d. During the transection of the thyroid isthmus
    e. Upon transection of the strap muscles
A

a. During the ligation of the superior pole vessels

47
Q
  1. In the early period of surgery, when there is no electrocautery to control bleeding during surgery except manual pressure, an assistant is usually asked to press this part or triangle of the neck during a mastectomy procedure.
    a. Sedillot triangle
    b. Supraclavicular triangle
    c. Carotid triangle
    d. Suprasternal fossa
    e. Posterior triangle
A

b. Supraclavicular triangle

48
Q
  1. The right internal jugular vein is the preferred route for venous access or catheterization because of its bigger size. And this size is due to the:
    a. Wider area of drainage on the right side than left
    b. the right sigmoid sinus receives the superior sagittal sinus most of the time
    c. retromandibular is larger on the right than left
    d. The internal jugular vein drains almost vertically to the innominate vein and is almost considered its extension
    e. It runs more vertical course on the right than on the left
A

d. The internal jugular vein drains almost vertically to the innominate vein and is almost considered its extension
e. It runs more vertical course on the right than on the left

49
Q
  1. Which part of the Sedillot’s triangle guides you to the position of the internal jugular vein when you need to cannulate this vascular structure to gain central venous access?
    a. Apex
    b. Base
    c. Center
    d. Lateral border
    e. Any of the above
A

a. Apex

50
Q
  1. A tumor found related to the carotid sheath was surgically removed. Post operationally, the patient developed Horner’s syndrome with ipsilateral drooping of the eyelid and constriction of the pupil. He also noticed ipsilateral dryness of the face on one side. What nerve could have been injured?
    a. Phrenic nerve
    b. Vagus nerve
    c. Cervical plexus
    d. Sympathetic trunk
A

d. Sympathetic trunk

51
Q
  1. When you measure jugular venous pressure, it is elevated if the height of the internal jugular vein is more than 4-5 cm from this point:
    a. Sternal angle of Louis
    b. Suprasternal notch
    c. Midpoint of right atrium
    d. Superior Vena Cava
    e. Base of the Sedillot’s triangle
A

a. Sternal angle of Louis

52
Q
  1. Injection of a local anesthetic at the nerve point of the neck would result in the following:
    a. numbness in the anterior neck
    b. inability to raise shoulders
    c. paralysis of the cervical branch of CN VII
    d. hematoma in the area of the posterior triangle
A

a. numbness in the anterior neck

53
Q
  1. In exerting pressure on the greater supraclavicular fossa, you expect to have a/an:
    a. Obstruction of venous blood flow to the heart from the upper extremities
    b. Decrease in blood flow to the upper extremities
    c. Paralysis of the diaphragm
    d. A and B
A

d. A and B

54
Q
  1. Crossed the phrenic nerve anteriorly above the roof of the neck
    a. Subclavian Vein
    b. Scalenus Anterior
    c. Inferior Thyroid Artery
    d. Subclavian Artery
A

a. Subclavian Vein

55
Q
  1. Skin cancer of the upper eyelid initially spreads to:
    a. occipital nodes
    b. submandibular nodes
    c. submental nodes
    d. jugular nodes
    e. parotid nodes
A

e. parotid nodes

56
Q
  1. True of the prevertebral fascia
    a. Bleeding from a stab wound in the posterior occipital triangle that lacerated the posterior scalene will result in the extension of a hematoma to the base of the skull.
    b. Gives rise to the fascial sheet of the brachial plexus and axillary vessels
    c. The sympathetic trunk is found within the prevertebral fascia.
    d. All of the above
    e. A and C
A

b. Gives rise to the fascial sheet of the brachial plexus and axillary vessels

57
Q
  1. The superior relation of the 3rd portion of the subclavian artery at the omoclavicular triangle
    a. Suprascapular artery
    b. Inferior trunk of brachial plexus
    c. Subclavius
    d. Spinal Accessory Nerve
A

b. Inferior trunk of brachial plexus

58
Q
  1. The extent/spread of an abscess from a carbuncle of the skin over the angle of the mandible will be limited by:
    a. Zygomatic arch
    b. Hyoid bone
    c. Mastoid process
    d. Clavicle
    e. NOTA
A

e. NOTA

59
Q
  1. What makes up the roof of the suboccipital triangle?
    a. trapezius
    b. semispinaliscapitis
    c. splenius capitis
    d. posterior atlanto-occipital membrane
A

b. semispinaliscapitis

60
Q
  1. This structure is found on the superior surface of the atlas before it disappears and traverses the atlanto-occipital membrane.
    a. occipital artery
    b. greater occipital nerve
    c. vertebral artery
    d. vertebral vein
    e. both c and d
A

c. vertebral

61
Q
  1. Nasal septum
  2. middle concha
  3. Inferior concha
  4. Middle Meatus
  5. Inferior Meatus
A
  1. A
  2. D
  3. B
  4. E
  5. C
62
Q
  1. Torus Tubarius
  2. Vomer
  3. Eustachian Tube
  4. Fossa of Rosenmuller
  5. Remnants of Adenoids
A
  1. B
  2. E
  3. D
  4. C
  5. A
63
Q
  1. Structure that drains to rear of mouth near 2nd molar
    a. Wharton’s duct
    b. Stensen’s duct
    c. Submandibular gland
    d. Lingual
A

b. Stensen’s duct

64
Q
  1. Which of the following are innervated by CNXI?
    a. Platysma and trapezius
    b. Spinal accessory and trapezius
    c. Sternomandible and trapezius
    d. Sternocleidomastoid and trapezius
A

d. Sternocleidomastoid and trapezius

65
Q
  1. You ask the patient to look down and then right. What is the primary mover of the right eye.
    a. inferior rectus
    b. superior oblique
    c. lateral rectus
    d. inferior oblique
A

b. superior oblique

66
Q
  1. In otoscopy, the cone of light can be appreciated because it fans:
    a. Downward and anterior
    b. Upward and posterior
    c. Upward and downward
    d. Downward and posterior
A

a. Downward and anterior

67
Q
  1. Upon inspection, the soft palate of the patient does not elevate and the uvula is deviated to the contralateral side. What nerve is affected?
    a. VI
    b. VII
    c. VIII
    d. X
A

d. X

68
Q
  1. A person has an anterior neck mass. It moves when the person swallows and doesn’t move when the person sticks out his tongue. This is indicative of?
    a. goiter
    b. thyroglossal duct cyst
    c. enlarged lymph node
    d. cancer (or something with -oma)
A

a. goiter

69
Q
  1. An ophthalmopathic infiltration of Graves’ Disease where there is an outward protrusion of the eyeballs.
    a. Ectropion
    b. Exophthalmos
    c. Entropion
    d. Drooping of the upper eyelids
A

b. Exophthalmos

70
Q
  1. Condition where there is no sensory stimulation in your ear but you hear a musical ringing, rushing, or roaring sound
    a. Tinnutis
    b. Vertigo
    c. Ringing
A

a. Tinnutis

71
Q
  1. The lens gradually loses its elasticity, and the eye ages progressively as the person grows old making it unable to focus nearby objects. This characteristic loss of eye focusing power as one grows old (usually at the age of 40) is called?
    a. Hemianopia
    b. Presbyopia
    c. Near-sightedness
    d. Arcussenilis
A

b. Presbyopia

72
Q
  1. Age related hearing loss, which is known as ______________, is highly evident in people ages 50 and above [non verbatim]
    a. Presbycusis
    b. Tinnitus
    c. Presbyopia
A

a. Presbycusis

compre (9 decks)

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