Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

compre > o 203 e3 > Flashcards

o 203 e3 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The limb buds start to appear laterally and caudally at:
    a. 3rd week
    b. 5th week
    c. 7th week
    d. 9th week
A

b. 5th week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. When do the limb buds start rotating anteriorly?
    a. 2 wks
    b. 4 wks
    c. 6 wks
    d. 8 wks
A

c. 6 wks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. Which is true?
    a. Upper and lower limb buds undergo more than 90 deg torsion in their long axes during its embryogenesis
    b. This whole process proceeds until birth
    c. Torsion of the upper and lower limbs proceed in opposite directions
    d. The upper limb goes into internal rotation and lower limb into external rotation
A

c. Torsion of the upper and lower limbs proceed in opposite directions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. The pelvic girdle is made up of how many bones?
    a. 1
    b. 2
    c. 3
    d. 4
A

. c. 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. True of the pelvic girdle except:
    a. Transmits weight of body to lower extremities
    b. Provides a rigid encasement for the abdominopelvic and genito-urinary viscera
    c. Ligamentous suspension more than muscular thethers
    d. None of the above
A

b. Provides a rigid encasement for the abdominopelvic and genito-urinary viscera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Which is not an apophysis?
    a. ASIS
    b. Ischial Spine
    c. Pubic Tubercle
    d. Ischial Tuberosity
A

c. Pubic Tubercle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. What ligament forms the greater and lesser sciatic notch?
    a. Sacroilium ligament
    b. Sacrotuberous ligament
    c. Sacrospinous ligament
A

c. Sacrospinous ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. The following passes through the greater sciatic notch, except:
    a. Piriformis
    b. Superior gluteal nerve
    c. Quadratus femoris
    d. Obturator externus
A

d. Obturator externus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. The following pass thru the lesser sciatic notch except:
    a. Inferior Pudendal
    b. Obturator Internus Tendon
    c. Obturator Internus Nerve
    d. Inferior Gluteal Nerve
A

d. Inferior Gluteal Nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. [NV] What joint is not part of the pelvic girdle construct?
    a. Syndesmosis
    b. Symphysis
    c. Enarthrosis
    d. None of the above
A

c. Enarthrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. The adductor tubercle is found on this surface of the femur:
    a. Anterior
    b. Posterior
    c. Medial
    d. Lateral
A

c. Medial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. Which view would best see the isthmus of the femur?
    a. AP View
    b. Lateral view
    c. Oblique View
    d. Any of the above
A

a. AP View

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. What is the location of the quadrate tubercle with reference to the gluteal tuberosity?
    a. Superior
    b. Inferior
    c. Medial
    d. Late
A

a. Superior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. The gluteus medius inserts on a:
    a. Tubercle
    b. Tuberosity
    c. Trochanter
    d. None of the above
A

c. Trochanter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. Where does the patellar ligament attach?
    a. Tubercle
    b. Tuberosity
    c. Trochanter
    d. None of the above
A

b. Tuberosity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. The adductor magnus attaches to
    a. Tubercle
    b. Tuberosity
    c. Trochanter
    d. None of the above
A

a. Tubercle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. The gluteus maximus is attached to a
    a. Tubercle
    b. Tuberosity
    c. Trochanter
    d. None of the above
A

b. Tuberosity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. The ilipsoas muscle attaches to a
    a. Tubercle
    b. Tuberosity
    c. Trochanter
    d. None of the above
A

c. Trochanter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. The peroneus tertius inserts on a
    a. Tubercle
    b. Tuberosity
    c. Trochanter
    d. None of the above
A

d. None of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. The inclination of 115 degrees is considered
    a. Normal
    b. Coxa valga
    c. Coxa vara
    d. None of the Above
A

c. Coxa vara

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. Antiversion angle of 20 degrees will provide a compensatory
    a. Out-toeing
    b. In-toeing
    c. Genu vara
    d. Genu valgu
A

b. In-toeing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. The following are muscles of the medial thigh, except:
    a. Sartorius
    b. Gracilis
    c. Pectineus
    d. Adductor minimus
A

a. Sartorius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. Attaches to the ischial tuberosity, except:
    a. Biceps femoris long head
    b. Biceps femoris short head
    c. Semitendinosus
    d. Semimembranosus
A

b. Biceps femoris short head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. The following muscles are innervated by the same nerve except
    a. Sartorius
    b. Rectus femoris
    c. Vastus lateralis
    d. Adductor magnus
A

d. Adductor magnus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
25. The following have a common innervation except: a. Biceps femoris long head b. Biceps femoris short head c. Semitendinosus d. Semimembranosus
b. Biceps femoris short head
26
26. The following are abductors of the thigh, except: a. Gluteus minimus b. Piriformis c. Sartorius d. Gluteus maximus
d. Gluteus maximus
27
27. [NV] These show isometric characteristics except for: a. Anterior cruciate lig b. Posterior cruciate lig c. Oblique popliteal lig d. Patellar lig
d. Patellar lig
28
28. The following are anteromedial stabilizers of the knee joint EXCEPT a. Medial retinaculum b. Iliotibial band c. Pes anserinus d. Joint capsule
d. Joint capsule
29
29. What keystone support the medial arch? a. Cuboid b. Cuneiform c. Navicular d. Talar
c. Navicular
30
30. What is the keystone of the lateral arch? a. Cuboid-calcaneus b. Cuboid-talus c. Cuboid-navicular d. Any of the above
a. Cuboid-calcaneus
31
31. Keystone of transverse arch a. Cuboid b. Cuneiform c. Navicular d. Talus
b. Cuneiform
32
32. The Lisfranc's joint is: a. Calcaneo-cuboid joint b. Tarso-metatarsal joint c. Metatarso-phalangeal joint d. None of the above
b. Tarso-metatarsal joint
33
33. 3rd layer intrinsic muscles of the foot except: a. Abductor hallucis b. Flexor hallucis longus c. Flexor digitorum brevis d. None of the above
b. Flexor hallucis longus
34
34. Inversions of the foot except a. Tibialis posterior b. Flexor Hallucis Longus c. Flexor Digitorum d. Extensor Digitorum Longus
d. Extensor Digitorum Longus
35
35. In normal gait analysis, double limb support is most evident in what phase? a. Foot Flat b. Midstance c. Heel Off d. Toe Off
d. Toe Off
36
36. During the midswing phase of the gait cycle, what muscles are active in clearing the foot off the ground? a. Tibialis anterior b. Peroneus brevis c. Extensor digitorum brevis d. None of the above
a. Tibialis anterior
37
37. What are the muscles that act eccentrically to buffer the last event of the gait cycle? a. Quadriceps femoris b. Hamstrings c. Ankle flexors d. Ankle extensors
a. Quadriceps femoris
38
38. Stance phase contributes to this percentage of gait: a. 20% b. 40% c. 60% d. 80%
c. 60%
39
39. Stance Phase constitute this much in running a. 20% b. 40% c. 60% d. 80%
b. 40%
40
40. Which of the following is true of fast fatigable muscle fibers? a. They have small motor units b. They have numerous mitochondria c. They have more myoglobin d. They use glycolysis as ATP source
d. They use glycolysis as ATP source
41
41. The amount of tension generated by skeletal muscle a. Is greatest when muscle is between 100 and 120% of equilibrium length. b. Is increased by recruiting more motor unit. c. Is increased by summation. d. Any of the above
d. Any of the above
42
42. Based on the principle of specificity, what muscle will you trrain for Manny Pacquiao? a. Trunk b. Rotator cuff muscle c. Abdomen d. Leg muscle
b. Rotator cuff muscle
43
43. What is the appropriate level of intensity in training weightlifters? a. High repetition, low resistance b. Low repetition, high resistance c. High repetition, high resistance d. Low repetition, low resistance
b. Low repetition, high resistance
44
44. If you compare an athlete to a sedentary individual, the athlete, on exercise training, will demonstrate a. Higher Max VO2 b. Higher MET Level c. Higher systemic blood pressure d. Higher heart rate
a. Higher Max VO2
45
45. With training, the marathon athlete's heart is expected to: a. Inc. left ventricle volume, normal ventricular wall thickness b. Dec. left ventricle volume, normal ventricular wall thickness c. Inc. left ventricle volume, increase ventricular wall thickness d. Inc. left ventricle volume, increase vessel wall thickness
a. Inc. left ventricle volume, normal ventricular wall thickness
46
46. The following is true regarding hormonal responses to exercise a. The catecholamines increase linearly with exercise b. Insulin increases with prolonged exercise c. The increase in catecholamines decrease hepatic glycogenolysis d. Any of the above
a. The catecholamines increase linearly with exercise
47
47. It is important to advise athletes to cool down post- exercise because: a. There is continued increase in heart rate and cardiac output b. Parasympathetic drive increases c. There is a need to decrease stimulation of the joint receptors d. Total peripheral resistance remains low because of vasodilator substances
d. Total peripheral resistance remains low because of vasodilator substances
48
48. Anabolic steroids are not advisable for athletes because? a. Activation of lipid synthesis b. Atrophy of muscle and retention of H2O c. 24 hrs needed to restore muscle glycogen after prolonged exercise d. Long term cardiovascular side effects
d. Long term cardiovascular side effects
49
49. Happiness experience by athletes after exercise is due to a. Increase glucose in brain and heart b. Inhibition of pain impulses in spinal cord c. Release of endogenous endorphins d. Increase heart rate and sweating
c. Release of endogenous endorphins
50
50. Among athletes, what is true of pulmonary ventilation? a. Peak pulmonary ventilation is reached by males at the age of 15 b. Young females have higher pulmonary ventilation c. Steady linear correlation between weight and pulmonary ventilation d. Respiratory activity is directly proportional to intensity of exercise
c. Steady linear correlation between weight and pulmonary ventilation
51
51. It is best for athletes not to hyperventilate before a competition because: a. Breathing becomes slow b. This will increase venous return c. He will expire more O2 and lower blood O2 d. This will reduce oxygenated blood flow to the brain
d. This will reduce oxygenated blood flow to the brain
52
52. The 2nd wind in running is due to: a. Takeover of aerobic over anaerobic metabolism b. Lack of oxygen in intercostal muscles c. Lack of warm up and cool down d. Decreased blood and air to the lung muscles
a. Takeover of aerobic over anaerobic metabolism
53
53. In an elderly patient who complains about neck and arm pain, which of the following should be investigated? a. Transverse process b. Spinous process c. Pedicles d. Neural foramina
d. Neural foramina
54
54. How many x-rays of an extremity are necessary to properly evaluate an injury? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. Depends on the extremity
d. Depends on the extremity
55
55. What best shows on an x-ray? a. Muscle b. Tendon c. Bone d. Metal
d. Metal
56
56. Which set of x-ray views would best evaluate the wrist a. AP-lateral b. AP-Oblique c. AP-PA d. Lateral-Oblique
a. AP-lateral
57
57. On x-ray and CT scan, the whiter the bone, the higher the content of: a. O2 b. H2O c. Ca d. Pb
c. Ca
58
58. [NV] Pott's disease is a disease involving the body of a vertebra. Which among the following is best for viewing the vertebral body? a. AP b. PA c. Lateral d. Oblique
c. Lateral
59
59. To visualize the pelvic girdle, which of these x-ray sets is best for the patient? a. AP and PA b. AP and Lateral c. AP and Oblique d. AP and Lordosis
c. AP and Oblique
60
60. An elderly patient reports neck pain and arm weakness. Which structures should you examine? a. Spinous processes b. Transverse processes c. Pedicles d. Neural foramina
d. Neural foramina
61
61. A cyclist who fell when his knee hit a rock. Gross deformity with swelling occurred. Patient is conscious and coherent. a. X-ray b. Ultrasound c. CT Scan d. MRI
a. X-ray
62
62. What is the ideal FIRST imaging modality you would request for an office secretary with low back pain a. X-ray b. Ultrasound c. CT Scan d. MRI
d. MRI
63
63. A 75 year old woman has pain radiating from her buttocks to her legs. a. X-ray b. Ultrasound c. CT Scan d. MRI
c. CT Scan
64
64. Which radiologic modality would be best for examining a woman who is 7 months pregnant and complains of wrist pain? a. X-ray b. Ultrasound c. CT Scan d. MRI
a. X-ray
65
65. Malignant tumor on the shoulder of a 16-year old boy a. CT Scan b. X-ray c. MRI d. Ultrasound
c. MRI
66
66. Which of the following is the ideal imaging modality for a patient with a cervical spine injury from a car accident? a. X-ray b. Ultrasound c. CT Scan d. MRI
d. MRI
67
67. A 2 year-old child with signs of Dwarfism a. X-ray b. Ultrasound c. CT Scan d. MRI
c. CT Scan
68
68. [NV] A professional guitarist noticed that his fingers are slower when playing a. X-ray b. Ultrasound c. CT Scan d. MRI
c. CT Scan
69
69. Best imaging condition: Suspected iliac mass in a 65 y/o male a. X-ray b. Ultrasound c. CT Scan d. MRI
c. CT Scan
70
70. The part of the vertebrae that ossified first is the; a. Body b. Pedicles c. Lamina d. Facets
a. Body
71
71. Which the following is involved in the synarthrotic (?) articulation of the vertebrae? a. Body b. Pedicles c. Lamina d. Facets
c. Lamina
72
72. [NV] What structure in the vertebra is a strong cortical bone that holds spine implants during surgery? a. Body b. Pedicles c. Lamina d. Facets
b. Pedicles
73
73. What structure can resist the most compressional force? a. Body b. Pedicles c. Lamina d. Facets
a. Body
74
74. What is not true of the Artery of Adamkiewicz? a. Largest anterior segmental medullary artery b. At the level between T8-L1 c. Arises from the right d. None of the above
d. None of the above
75
75. Arterial supply to vertebra usually enters: a. Body b. Pedicles c. Lamina d. Facets
a. Body
76
76. The following belong to the transversecostal group of muscles, except: a. Splenius cervicis b. Iliocostalis c. Longissimus d. Semispinalis
d. Semispinalis
77
77. Which is not true of the femoral nerve? a. It innervates the extensors of knee. b. It innervates the extensors of hip. c. It branches off as the Lateral Femoral Cutaneous Nerve. d. It branches off as the Obturator nerve.
b. It innervates the extensors of hip. c. It branches off as the Lateral Femoral Cutaneous Nerve. d. It branches off as the Obturator nerve.
78
78. Intragluteal injections can be done on which area of the gluteal region? a. Superomedial b. Inferolateral c. Superolateral d. Inferomedial
c. Superolateral
79
79. The inferior gluteal nerve comes from: a. L4, L5, S1 b. L5, S1, S2 c. S1, S2, S3 d. S2, S3, S4
b. L5, S1, S2
80
80. When you see a person with a Trendelenburg gait, what nerve is most likely injured? a. Superior gluteal nerve b. Inferior gluteal nerve c. Obturator nerve d. Sciatic nerve
a. Superior gluteal nerve
81
81. What increases the tension force of muscles? a. When it's length is 100% to 120% of equilibrium b. Their summation c. Any of the above
c. Any of the above
82
82. What best describes the sciatic nerve? a. supplies the posterior thigh mucles b. enters the gluteal region via the greater sciatic foramen superior to the piriformis c. Bifurcates into common peroneal & fibular nerve d. supplies the piriformis muscle
b. enters the gluteal region via the greater sciatic foramen superior to the piriformis
83
83. The sacral plexus is best described by the following EXCEPT a. Formed by S1, S2, S3, and S4 b. Branches passes through the greater sciatic notch c. Located posteromedially at lower pelvis d. Provides motor and sensory for the posterior thigh
a. Formed by S1, S2, S3, and S4
84
84. The following regions are innervated by the posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh, except? a. Skin of inferior half of buttocks b. Skin over posterior thigh and popliteal fosa c. Skin of lateral perineum and upper medial thigh d. Gluteus maximus
d. Gluteus maximus
85
85. The lateral circumflex femoral artery gives rise to: a. Antero-inferior retinaculum artery b. Antero-superior retinaculum artery c. Postero-inferior retinaculum artery d. Postero-superior retinaculum artery
b. Antero-superior retinaculum artery

compre (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions