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o 203 e3 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The limb buds start to appear laterally and caudally at:
    a. 3rd week
    b. 5th week
    c. 7th week
    d. 9th week
A

b. 5th week

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2
Q
  1. When do the limb buds start rotating anteriorly?
    a. 2 wks
    b. 4 wks
    c. 6 wks
    d. 8 wks
A

c. 6 wks

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3
Q
  1. Which is true?
    a. Upper and lower limb buds undergo more than 90 deg torsion in their long axes during its embryogenesis
    b. This whole process proceeds until birth
    c. Torsion of the upper and lower limbs proceed in opposite directions
    d. The upper limb goes into internal rotation and lower limb into external rotation
A

c. Torsion of the upper and lower limbs proceed in opposite directions

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4
Q
  1. The pelvic girdle is made up of how many bones?
    a. 1
    b. 2
    c. 3
    d. 4
A

. c. 3

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5
Q
  1. True of the pelvic girdle except:
    a. Transmits weight of body to lower extremities
    b. Provides a rigid encasement for the abdominopelvic and genito-urinary viscera
    c. Ligamentous suspension more than muscular thethers
    d. None of the above
A

b. Provides a rigid encasement for the abdominopelvic and genito-urinary viscera

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6
Q
  1. Which is not an apophysis?
    a. ASIS
    b. Ischial Spine
    c. Pubic Tubercle
    d. Ischial Tuberosity
A

c. Pubic Tubercle

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7
Q
  1. What ligament forms the greater and lesser sciatic notch?
    a. Sacroilium ligament
    b. Sacrotuberous ligament
    c. Sacrospinous ligament
A

c. Sacrospinous ligament

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8
Q
  1. The following passes through the greater sciatic notch, except:
    a. Piriformis
    b. Superior gluteal nerve
    c. Quadratus femoris
    d. Obturator externus
A

d. Obturator externus

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9
Q
  1. The following pass thru the lesser sciatic notch except:
    a. Inferior Pudendal
    b. Obturator Internus Tendon
    c. Obturator Internus Nerve
    d. Inferior Gluteal Nerve
A

d. Inferior Gluteal Nerve

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10
Q
  1. [NV] What joint is not part of the pelvic girdle construct?
    a. Syndesmosis
    b. Symphysis
    c. Enarthrosis
    d. None of the above
A

c. Enarthrosis

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11
Q
  1. The adductor tubercle is found on this surface of the femur:
    a. Anterior
    b. Posterior
    c. Medial
    d. Lateral
A

c. Medial

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12
Q
  1. Which view would best see the isthmus of the femur?
    a. AP View
    b. Lateral view
    c. Oblique View
    d. Any of the above
A

a. AP View

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13
Q
  1. What is the location of the quadrate tubercle with reference to the gluteal tuberosity?
    a. Superior
    b. Inferior
    c. Medial
    d. Late
A

a. Superior

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14
Q
  1. The gluteus medius inserts on a:
    a. Tubercle
    b. Tuberosity
    c. Trochanter
    d. None of the above
A

c. Trochanter

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15
Q
  1. Where does the patellar ligament attach?
    a. Tubercle
    b. Tuberosity
    c. Trochanter
    d. None of the above
A

b. Tuberosity

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16
Q
  1. The adductor magnus attaches to
    a. Tubercle
    b. Tuberosity
    c. Trochanter
    d. None of the above
A

a. Tubercle

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17
Q
  1. The gluteus maximus is attached to a
    a. Tubercle
    b. Tuberosity
    c. Trochanter
    d. None of the above
A

b. Tuberosity

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18
Q
  1. The ilipsoas muscle attaches to a
    a. Tubercle
    b. Tuberosity
    c. Trochanter
    d. None of the above
A

c. Trochanter

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19
Q
  1. The peroneus tertius inserts on a
    a. Tubercle
    b. Tuberosity
    c. Trochanter
    d. None of the above
A

d. None of the above

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20
Q
  1. The inclination of 115 degrees is considered
    a. Normal
    b. Coxa valga
    c. Coxa vara
    d. None of the Above
A

c. Coxa vara

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21
Q
  1. Antiversion angle of 20 degrees will provide a compensatory
    a. Out-toeing
    b. In-toeing
    c. Genu vara
    d. Genu valgu
A

b. In-toeing

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22
Q
  1. The following are muscles of the medial thigh, except:
    a. Sartorius
    b. Gracilis
    c. Pectineus
    d. Adductor minimus
A

a. Sartorius

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23
Q
  1. Attaches to the ischial tuberosity, except:
    a. Biceps femoris long head
    b. Biceps femoris short head
    c. Semitendinosus
    d. Semimembranosus
A

b. Biceps femoris short head

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24
Q
  1. The following muscles are innervated by the same nerve except
    a. Sartorius
    b. Rectus femoris
    c. Vastus lateralis
    d. Adductor magnus
A

d. Adductor magnus

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25
Q
  1. The following have a common innervation except:
    a. Biceps femoris long head
    b. Biceps femoris short head
    c. Semitendinosus
    d. Semimembranosus
A

b. Biceps femoris short head

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26
Q
  1. The following are abductors of the thigh, except:
    a. Gluteus minimus
    b. Piriformis
    c. Sartorius
    d. Gluteus maximus
A

d. Gluteus maximus

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27
Q
  1. [NV] These show isometric characteristics except for:
    a. Anterior cruciate lig
    b. Posterior cruciate lig
    c. Oblique popliteal lig
    d. Patellar lig
A

d. Patellar lig

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28
Q
  1. The following are anteromedial stabilizers of the knee joint EXCEPT
    a. Medial retinaculum
    b. Iliotibial band
    c. Pes anserinus
    d. Joint capsule
A

d. Joint capsule

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29
Q
  1. What keystone support the medial arch?
    a. Cuboid
    b. Cuneiform
    c. Navicular
    d. Talar
A

c. Navicular

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30
Q
  1. What is the keystone of the lateral arch?
    a. Cuboid-calcaneus
    b. Cuboid-talus
    c. Cuboid-navicular
    d. Any of the above
A

a. Cuboid-calcaneus

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31
Q
  1. Keystone of transverse arch
    a. Cuboid
    b. Cuneiform
    c. Navicular
    d. Talus
A

b. Cuneiform

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32
Q
  1. The Lisfranc’s joint is:
    a. Calcaneo-cuboid joint
    b. Tarso-metatarsal joint
    c. Metatarso-phalangeal joint
    d. None of the above
A

b. Tarso-metatarsal joint

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33
Q
  1. 3rd layer intrinsic muscles of the foot except:
    a. Abductor hallucis
    b. Flexor hallucis longus
    c. Flexor digitorum brevis
    d. None of the above
A

b. Flexor hallucis longus

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34
Q
  1. Inversions of the foot except
    a. Tibialis posterior
    b. Flexor Hallucis Longus
    c. Flexor Digitorum
    d. Extensor Digitorum Longus
A

d. Extensor Digitorum Longus

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35
Q
  1. In normal gait analysis, double limb support is most evident in what phase?
    a. Foot Flat
    b. Midstance
    c. Heel Off
    d. Toe Off
A

d. Toe Off

36
Q
  1. During the midswing phase of the gait cycle, what muscles are active in clearing the foot off the ground?
    a. Tibialis anterior
    b. Peroneus brevis
    c. Extensor digitorum brevis
    d. None of the above
A

a. Tibialis anterior

37
Q
  1. What are the muscles that act eccentrically to buffer the last event of the gait cycle?
    a. Quadriceps femoris
    b. Hamstrings
    c. Ankle flexors
    d. Ankle extensors
A

a. Quadriceps femoris

38
Q
  1. Stance phase contributes to this percentage of gait:
    a. 20%
    b. 40%
    c. 60%
    d. 80%
A

c. 60%

39
Q
  1. Stance Phase constitute this much in running
    a. 20%
    b. 40%
    c. 60%
    d. 80%
A

b. 40%

40
Q
  1. Which of the following is true of fast fatigable muscle fibers?
    a. They have small motor units
    b. They have numerous mitochondria
    c. They have more myoglobin
    d. They use glycolysis as ATP source
A

d. They use glycolysis as ATP source

41
Q
  1. The amount of tension generated by skeletal muscle
    a. Is greatest when muscle is between 100 and 120% of equilibrium length.
    b. Is increased by recruiting more motor unit.
    c. Is increased by summation.
    d. Any of the above
A

d. Any of the above

42
Q
  1. Based on the principle of specificity, what muscle will you trrain for Manny Pacquiao?
    a. Trunk
    b. Rotator cuff muscle
    c. Abdomen
    d. Leg muscle
A

b. Rotator cuff muscle

43
Q
  1. What is the appropriate level of intensity in training weightlifters?
    a. High repetition, low resistance
    b. Low repetition, high resistance
    c. High repetition, high resistance
    d. Low repetition, low resistance
A

b. Low repetition, high resistance

44
Q
  1. If you compare an athlete to a sedentary individual, the athlete, on exercise training, will demonstrate
    a. Higher Max VO2
    b. Higher MET Level
    c. Higher systemic blood pressure
    d. Higher heart rate
A

a. Higher Max VO2

45
Q
  1. With training, the marathon athlete’s heart is expected to:
    a. Inc. left ventricle volume, normal ventricular wall thickness
    b. Dec. left ventricle volume, normal ventricular wall thickness
    c. Inc. left ventricle volume, increase ventricular wall thickness
    d. Inc. left ventricle volume, increase vessel wall thickness
A

a. Inc. left ventricle volume, normal ventricular wall thickness

46
Q
  1. The following is true regarding hormonal responses to exercise
    a. The catecholamines increase linearly with exercise
    b. Insulin increases with prolonged exercise
    c. The increase in catecholamines decrease hepatic glycogenolysis
    d. Any of the above
A

a. The catecholamines increase linearly with exercise

47
Q
  1. It is important to advise athletes to cool down post- exercise because:
    a. There is continued increase in heart rate and cardiac output
    b. Parasympathetic drive increases
    c. There is a need to decrease stimulation of the joint receptors
    d. Total peripheral resistance remains low because of vasodilator substances
A

d. Total peripheral resistance remains low because of vasodilator substances

48
Q
  1. Anabolic steroids are not advisable for athletes because?
    a. Activation of lipid synthesis
    b. Atrophy of muscle and retention of H2O
    c. 24 hrs needed to restore muscle glycogen after prolonged exercise
    d. Long term cardiovascular side effects
A

d. Long term cardiovascular side effects

49
Q
  1. Happiness experience by athletes after exercise is due to
    a. Increase glucose in brain and heart
    b. Inhibition of pain impulses in spinal cord
    c. Release of endogenous endorphins
    d. Increase heart rate and sweating
A

c. Release of endogenous endorphins

50
Q
  1. Among athletes, what is true of pulmonary ventilation?
    a. Peak pulmonary ventilation is reached by males at the age of 15
    b. Young females have higher pulmonary ventilation
    c. Steady linear correlation between weight and pulmonary ventilation
    d. Respiratory activity is directly proportional to intensity of exercise
A

c. Steady linear correlation between weight and pulmonary ventilation

51
Q
  1. It is best for athletes not to hyperventilate before a competition because:
    a. Breathing becomes slow
    b. This will increase venous return
    c. He will expire more O2 and lower blood O2
    d. This will reduce oxygenated blood flow to the brain
A

d. This will reduce oxygenated blood flow to the brain

52
Q
  1. The 2nd wind in running is due to:
    a. Takeover of aerobic over anaerobic metabolism
    b. Lack of oxygen in intercostal muscles
    c. Lack of warm up and cool down
    d. Decreased blood and air to the lung muscles
A

a. Takeover of aerobic over anaerobic metabolism

53
Q
  1. In an elderly patient who complains about neck and arm pain, which of the following should be investigated?
    a. Transverse process
    b. Spinous process
    c. Pedicles
    d. Neural foramina
A

d. Neural foramina

54
Q
  1. How many x-rays of an extremity are necessary to properly evaluate an injury?
    a. 1
    b. 2
    c. 3
    d. Depends on the extremity
A

d. Depends on the extremity

55
Q
  1. What best shows on an x-ray?
    a. Muscle
    b. Tendon
    c. Bone
    d. Metal
A

d. Metal

56
Q
  1. Which set of x-ray views would best evaluate the wrist
    a. AP-lateral
    b. AP-Oblique
    c. AP-PA
    d. Lateral-Oblique
A

a. AP-lateral

57
Q
  1. On x-ray and CT scan, the whiter the bone, the higher the content of:
    a. O2
    b. H2O
    c. Ca
    d. Pb
A

c. Ca

58
Q
  1. [NV] Pott’s disease is a disease involving the body of a vertebra. Which among the following is best for viewing the vertebral body?
    a. AP
    b. PA
    c. Lateral
    d. Oblique
A

c. Lateral

59
Q
  1. To visualize the pelvic girdle, which of these x-ray sets is best for the patient?
    a. AP and PA
    b. AP and Lateral
    c. AP and Oblique
    d. AP and Lordosis
A

c. AP and Oblique

60
Q
  1. An elderly patient reports neck pain and arm weakness. Which structures should you examine?
    a. Spinous processes
    b. Transverse processes
    c. Pedicles
    d. Neural foramina
A

d. Neural foramina

61
Q
  1. A cyclist who fell when his knee hit a rock. Gross deformity with swelling occurred. Patient is conscious and coherent.
    a. X-ray
    b. Ultrasound
    c. CT Scan
    d. MRI
A

a. X-ray

62
Q
  1. What is the ideal FIRST imaging modality you would request for an office secretary with low back pain
    a. X-ray
    b. Ultrasound
    c. CT Scan
    d. MRI
A

d. MRI

63
Q
  1. A 75 year old woman has pain radiating from her buttocks to her legs.
    a. X-ray
    b. Ultrasound
    c. CT Scan
    d. MRI
A

c. CT Scan

64
Q
  1. Which radiologic modality would be best for examining a woman who is 7 months pregnant and complains of wrist pain?
    a. X-ray
    b. Ultrasound
    c. CT Scan
    d. MRI
A

a. X-ray

65
Q
  1. Malignant tumor on the shoulder of a 16-year old boy
    a. CT Scan
    b. X-ray
    c. MRI
    d. Ultrasound
A

c. MRI

66
Q
  1. Which of the following is the ideal imaging modality for a patient with a cervical spine injury from a car accident?
    a. X-ray
    b. Ultrasound
    c. CT Scan
    d. MRI
A

d. MRI

67
Q
  1. A 2 year-old child with signs of Dwarfism
    a. X-ray
    b. Ultrasound
    c. CT Scan
    d. MRI
A

c. CT Scan

68
Q
  1. [NV] A professional guitarist noticed that his fingers are slower when playing
    a. X-ray
    b. Ultrasound
    c. CT Scan
    d. MRI
A

c. CT Scan

69
Q
  1. Best imaging condition: Suspected iliac mass in a 65 y/o male
    a. X-ray
    b. Ultrasound
    c. CT Scan
    d. MRI
A

c. CT Scan

70
Q
  1. The part of the vertebrae that ossified first is the;
    a. Body
    b. Pedicles
    c. Lamina
    d. Facets
A

a. Body

71
Q
  1. Which the following is involved in the synarthrotic (?) articulation of the vertebrae?
    a. Body
    b. Pedicles
    c. Lamina
    d. Facets
A

c. Lamina

72
Q
  1. [NV] What structure in the vertebra is a strong cortical bone that holds spine implants during surgery?
    a. Body
    b. Pedicles
    c. Lamina
    d. Facets
A

b. Pedicles

73
Q
  1. What structure can resist the most compressional force?
    a. Body
    b. Pedicles
    c. Lamina
    d. Facets
A

a. Body

74
Q
  1. What is not true of the Artery of Adamkiewicz?
    a. Largest anterior segmental medullary artery
    b. At the level between T8-L1
    c. Arises from the right
    d. None of the above
A

d. None of the above

75
Q
  1. Arterial supply to vertebra usually enters:
    a. Body
    b. Pedicles
    c. Lamina
    d. Facets
A

a. Body

76
Q
  1. The following belong to the transversecostal group of muscles, except:
    a. Splenius cervicis
    b. Iliocostalis
    c. Longissimus
    d. Semispinalis
A

d. Semispinalis

77
Q
  1. Which is not true of the femoral nerve?
    a. It innervates the extensors of knee.
    b. It innervates the extensors of hip.
    c. It branches off as the Lateral Femoral Cutaneous Nerve.
    d. It branches off as the Obturator nerve.
A

b. It innervates the extensors of hip.
c. It branches off as the Lateral Femoral Cutaneous Nerve.
d. It branches off as the Obturator nerve.

78
Q
  1. Intragluteal injections can be done on which area of the gluteal region?
    a. Superomedial
    b. Inferolateral
    c. Superolateral
    d. Inferomedial
A

c. Superolateral

79
Q
  1. The inferior gluteal nerve comes from:
    a. L4, L5, S1
    b. L5, S1, S2
    c. S1, S2, S3
    d. S2, S3, S4
A

b. L5, S1, S2

80
Q
  1. When you see a person with a Trendelenburg gait, what nerve is most likely injured?
    a. Superior gluteal nerve
    b. Inferior gluteal nerve
    c. Obturator nerve
    d. Sciatic nerve
A

a. Superior gluteal nerve

81
Q
  1. What increases the tension force of muscles?
    a. When it’s length is 100% to 120% of equilibrium
    b. Their summation
    c. Any of the above
A

c. Any of the above

82
Q
  1. What best describes the sciatic nerve?
    a. supplies the posterior thigh mucles
    b. enters the gluteal region via the greater sciatic foramen superior to the piriformis
    c. Bifurcates into common peroneal & fibular nerve
    d. supplies the piriformis muscle
A

b. enters the gluteal region via the greater sciatic foramen superior to the piriformis

83
Q
  1. The sacral plexus is best described by the following EXCEPT
    a. Formed by S1, S2, S3, and S4
    b. Branches passes through the greater sciatic notch
    c. Located posteromedially at lower pelvis
    d. Provides motor and sensory for the posterior thigh
A

a. Formed by S1, S2, S3, and S4

84
Q
  1. The following regions are innervated by the posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh, except?
    a. Skin of inferior half of buttocks
    b. Skin over posterior thigh and popliteal fosa
    c. Skin of lateral perineum and upper medial thigh
    d. Gluteus maximus
A

d. Gluteus maximus

85
Q
  1. The lateral circumflex femoral artery gives rise to:
    a. Antero-inferior retinaculum artery
    b. Antero-superior retinaculum artery
    c. Postero-inferior retinaculum artery
    d. Postero-superior retinaculum artery
A

b. Antero-superior retinaculum artery

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