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o 203 e2 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Lab discussion and microscopy comprise this much in medical anatomy courses?
    a. 20%
    b. 40%
    c. 60%
    d. 80%
A

c. 60%

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2
Q
  1. The major limiting factor in a good student to cadaver ratio is:
    a. Expensive cadaver
    b. Unaesthetic
    c. Cadaver unavailability
    d. Health hazards
A

c. Cadaver unavailability

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3
Q
  1. Formalin consists of:
    a. Ethanol
    b. Propanol
    c. Methanol
    d. Butanol
A

c. Methanol

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4
Q
  1. Formaldehyde is:
    a. HCHO
    b. CHHO
    c. HHCO
    d. COHH
A

a. HCHO

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5
Q
  1. Formalin can cause these known reactions, except:
    a. Dermatitis
    b. Bronchitis
    c. Retinitis
    d. None of the above
A

c. Retinitis

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6
Q
  1. Kelly clamp characteristics except:
    a. Tapered end
    b. Blunt end
    c. Locking handles
    d. Smooth inner edge
A

d. Smooth inner edge

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7
Q
  1. Blade 15 attaches to what holder?
    a. Holder 1
    b. Holder 2
    c. Holder 3
    d. Holder 4
A

c. Holder 3

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following gives multi-directional restraint to diarthrodial joint?
    a. Capsule
    b. Ligament
    c. Tendon
    d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

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9
Q
  1. Provides unidirectional restraint to the mobility of the diarthodial joint:
    a. Capsule
    b. Ligament
    c. Tendon
    d. All of the above
A

b. Ligament

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10
Q
  1. Structure of origin of muscles:
    a. Bones
    b. Ligaments
    c. Tendons
    d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

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11
Q
  1. Glenohumeral movement to the dorsal plane along the sagittal plane is:
    a. Flexion
    b. Extension
    c. Abduction
    d. Adduction
A

b. Extension

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12
Q
  1. What action is made from the lateral movement of the glenohumeral joint from the coronal plane?
    a. Flexion
    b. Extension
    c. Abduction
    d. Adduction
A

c. Abduction

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13
Q
  1. Which simple machine provides the greatest mechanical advantage?
    a. First class lever
    b. Second class lever
    c. Third class lever
    d. None of the above
A

b. Second class lever

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14
Q
  1. In a lever construct the variable that is often a constant in a given problem is the:
    a. Lever
    b. Fulcrum
    c. Weight
    d. Force
A

c. Weight

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15
Q
  1. The easiest variable to modify in a lever system is:
    a. Lever
    b. Fulcrum
    c. Weight
    d. Force
A

c. Weight

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16
Q
  1. What type of lever is used for shoulder flexion?
    a. First class lever
    b. Second class lever
    c. Third class lever
    d. None of the above
A

a. First class lever

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17
Q
  1. Wrist flexion is what type of lever?
    a. First class lever
    b. Second class lever
    c. Third class lever
    d. None of the above
A

a. First class lever

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18
Q
  1. What lever is the ankle in dorsiflexion?
    a. First class lever
    b. Second class lever
    c. Third class lever
    d. None of the above
A

b. Second class lever

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19
Q
  1. The area under stress-strain curve of any object is _________.
    a. Energy absorbed
    b. Energy stored
    c. Energy to failure
    d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

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20
Q
  1. This structure possesses the narrowest toe region in the stress-strain curve in the anatomy of a knee joint.
    a. Joint capsule
    b. Anterior cruciate ligament
    c. Quadriceps tendon
    d. Articular cartilage
A

b. Anterior cruciate ligament

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21
Q
  1. The amount of stress necessary to produce permanent deformation:
    a. Yield point
    b. Yield strength
    c. Ultimate strength
    d. Breaking point
A

b. Yield strength

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22
Q
  1. The transition point between elastic and plastic deformity is:
    a. Yield point
    b. Yield strength
    c. Ultimate strength
    d. Breaking point
A

a. Yield point

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23
Q
  1. The load of failure is synonymous to:
    a. Yield point
    b. Yield strength
    c. Ultimate strength
    d. Breaking point
A

c. Ultimate strength

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24
Q
  1. Which bone has the most run when bending force is applied?
    a. Humerus
    b. Femur
    c. Ribs
    d. Clavicle
A

c. Ribs

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25
Q
  1. Which factor is most significant in taking advantage of the viscoelasticity of anatomical structures in the body?
    a. Load
    b. Stress
    c. Strain
    d. Time
A

d. Time

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26
Q
  1. Innervation in supinating the forearm except:
    a. Radial nerve
    b. Median nerve
    c. Musculocutaneous nerve
    d. None of the above
A

b. Median nerve

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27
Q
  1. The innervations of the muscles for pronation:
    a. Radial nerve
    b. Median nerve
    c. Musculocutaneous nerve
    d. None of the above
A

b. Median nerve

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28
Q
  1. Which muscle does not share a common origin than the rest?
    a. Palmaris longus
    b. Flexor carpi ulnaris
    c. Flexor digitorum
    d. Flexor pollicis longus
A

d. Flexor pollicis longus

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29
Q
  1. Known as the deepest, most distal, and most lateral flexor muscles to the wrist and hand:
    a. Palmaris longus
    b. Flexor carpi ulnaris
    c. Flexor digitorum
    d. Flexor pollicis longus
A

d. Flexor pollicis longus

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30
Q
  1. A common structure to radius and ulna, except:
    a. Head
    b. Styloid process
    c. Tuberosity
    d. Neck
A

d. Neck

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31
Q
  1. The radius and the ulna are articulated by this system, except:
    a. Condyloid
    b. Trochoid
    c. Syndesmosis
    d. None of the above
A

a. Condyloid

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32
Q
  1. The extensor indicis proprius tendon goes through this dorsal compartment:
    a. 1
    b. 2
    c. 3
    d. 4
A

d. 4

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33
Q
  1. This structure is not at all involved in (with) the preceding clinical condition mentioned:
    a. Extensor pollicis brevis
    b. Abductor pollicis brevis
    c. Abductor pollicis longus
    d. None of the above
A

b. Abductor pollicis brevis

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34
Q

All of the following share common innervation, except:

a. Extensor carpi radialis brevis
b. Extensor carpi ulnaris
c. Extensor indicis
d. None of the above

A

d. None of the above

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35
Q

Longest extensor muscle on dorsal of hand:

a. Extensor carpi ulnaris longus
b. Extensor digitorum
c. Extensor carpi ulnaris
d. Extensor indicis

A

b. Extensor digitorum

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36
Q

The shortest of these extensor muscle mechanisms:

a. Extensor carpi radialis longus
b. Extensor digiti communis
c. Extensor carpi ulnaris
d. Extensor indicis propius

A

d. Extensor indicis propius

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37
Q

Which structure has the most distal insertion in the hand?

a. Abductor pollicis longus
b. Extensor pollicis brevis
c. Extensor pollicis longus
d. Extensor indicis

A

d. Extensor indicis

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38
Q

Which dorsal compartment does the extensor pollicis longus pass through?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

A

c. 3

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39
Q

What muscle group is the strongest in the forearm?

a. Pronator
b. Supinator
c. Flexor
d. Extensor

A

b. Supinator

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40
Q
  1. The most important hand function:
    a. Flexion
    b. Extension
    c. Adduction
    d. Opposition
A

d. Opposition

41
Q

What part of the carpal is most likely to be injured?

a. Scaphoid
b. Lunate
c. Trapezium
d. Trapezoid

A

a. Scaphoid

42
Q
  1. What is the most important pulley system of the flexor tendons of the finger?
    a. C2-C4
    b. A2-A4
    c. C2-A4
    d. A2-C4
A

b. A2-A4

43
Q
  1. The following are innervated by the median nerve except:
    a. Lumbricals
    b. Opponens pollicis
    c. Flexor pllicis brevis
    d. Adductor pollicis
A

d. Adductor pollicis

44
Q
  1. The following are innervated by the ulnar nerve, except:
    a. Flexor pollicis brevis
    b. Lumbricals
    c. Interossei
    d. Abductor pollicis brevis
A

d. Abductor pollicis brevis

45
Q

The following have median and ulnar innervations, except:

a. Flexor pollicis brevis
b. Lumbricals
c. Interossei
d. None of the above

A

c. Interossei

46
Q

What is the most radial and deepest structure to pass under the carpal flexor retinaculum?

a. Flexor digitorum superficialis
b. Flexor digitorum profundus
c. Flexor pollicis longus
d. Median nerve

A

c. Flexor pollicis longus

47
Q

Teratogens over the development of limb buds have very little effect beyond this period:

a. 2 weeks
b. 4 weeks
c. 6 weeks
d. 8 weeks

A

d. 8 weeks

48
Q

Which is the most motile articulation?

a. Costosternal
b. Vertebrocostal
c. Sternoclavicular
d. Scapulothoracic

A

d. Scapulothoracic

49
Q

Where is deltoid attachment to humerus?

a. Tubercle
b. Tuberosity
c. Trochanter
d. Crest

A

b. Tuberosity

50
Q

Which is the lateral extension of the scapular spine?

a. Coronoid
b. Supraglenoid tubercle
c. Infraglenoid tubercle
d. Acromion

A

d. Acromion

51
Q
  1. During the initial phase of glenohumeral abduction, this structure engages into an osseous lock with acromion:
    a. Greater tubercle
    b. Greater tuberosity
    c. Anatomical neck
    d. Surgical neck
A

a. Greater tubercle

52
Q
  1. At full abduction this structure is fully engaged and locked with the acromion:
    a. Greater tubercle
    b. Greater tuberosity
    c. Anatomical neck
    d. Surgical neck
A

b. Greater tuberosity

53
Q

The ff. muscles suspend the shoulder girdle to the main body except:

a. Trapezius
b. Sternocleidomastoid
c. Levator scapulae
d. Pectoralis major

A

b. Sternocleidomastoid

54
Q
  1. The scapula is best described as rotated 30 degrees anterolaterally with respect to which plane?
    a. Coronal
    b. Transverse
    c. Sagittal
    d. None of the above
A

d. None of the above

55
Q

Neurovascular structures navigate these anatomical windows, except:

a. Quadrilateral space
b. Triangular interval
c. Triangular space
d. None of the above

A

c. Triangular space

56
Q

This structure is a common denominator of anatomical windows mentioned from the previous number.

a. Lateral head of triceps
b. Teres minor
c. Medial head of triceps
d. Teres major

A

d. Teres major

57
Q
  1. The following muscle inserts into the coracoid process:
    a. Biceps brachii short head
    b. Coracobrachialis
    c. Pectoralis minor
    d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

58
Q

A fracture in the surgical neck may denervate which muscle?

a. Deltoid
b. Teres major
c. Infraspinatus
d. None of the above

A

a. Deltoid

59
Q

The following muscles participate in shoulder flexion, except:

a. Biceps
b. Coracobrachialis
c. Brachialis
d. None of the above

A

c. Brachialis

60
Q
  1. Which muscle is not involved in elbow flexion?
    a. Biceps
    b. Coracobrachialis
    c. Brachialis
    d. None of the above
A

b. Coracobrachialis

61
Q

All these muscles adduct the shoulder except:

a. Teres minor
b. Latissimus dorsi
c. Triceps
d. Pectoralis major

A

a. Teres minor

62
Q
  1. Which of the following is not involved in shoulder extension?
    a. Teres minor
    b. Latissimus dorsi
    c. Triceps
    d. Pectoralis major
A

d. Pectoralis major

63
Q

What is the most proximal branch of the brachial artery?

a. Thoracoacromial artery
b. Circumflex humeral artery
c. Deep brachial artery
d. Inferior ulnar collateral artery

A

c. Deep brachial artery

64
Q

Most distal branch of the brachial artery:

a. Thoracoacromial artery
b. Circumflex humeral artery
c. Deep brachial artery
d. Inferior ulnar collateral artery

A

d. Inferior ulnar collateral artery

65
Q

The nerve innervating the deltoid traverses which window:

a. Triangular space
b. Quadrangular space
c. Triangular interval
d. Quadrangular interval

A

b. Quadrangular space

66
Q

The innervation of the triceps traverses what window?

a. Triangular space
b. Quadrangular space
c. Triangular interval
d. Quadrangular interval

A

c. Triangular interval

67
Q
  1. Which elbow ligament is the strongest?
    a. Anterior
    b. Posterior
    c. Medial
    d. Lateral
A

c. Medial

68
Q

What muscle is involved in the abduction of the arm?

a. Supraspinatus
b. Infraspinatus
c. Subscapularis
d. None of the above

A

a. Supraspinatus

69
Q
  1. What is most likely the injured area?
    a. Branch
    b. Root
    c. Cord
    d. Division
A

b. Root

70
Q
  1. The surgeon exposed the patient’s axillary artery at the level of the pectoralis minor. What structures were being searched for?
    a. Trunks
    b. Divisions
    c. Cords
    d. Branches
A

d. Branches

71
Q
  1. A surgeon pointed a nerve exiting the axilla piercing the coracobrachialis. What is this nerve?
    a. Dorsal scapular nerve
    b. Long thoracic nerve
    c. Musculocutaneous nerve
    d. Thoracodorsal nerve
A

c. Musculocutaneous nerve

72
Q
  1. Upon neural examination of the patient, which branch of the brachial plexus was most likely transected?
    a. Axillary nerve
    b. Median nerve
    c. Radial nerve
    d. Ulnar nerve
A

b. Median nerve

73
Q
  1. Which is NOT affected by the injury?
    a. Median nerve
    b. Lateral cord
    c. Posterior cord
    d. Musculocutaneous nerve
A

c. Posterior cord

74
Q
  1. Excessive compression of the posterior cord results to palsy of which of the following nerves?
    a. Axial and radial nerve
    b. Dorsal scapular and long thoracic nerve
    c. Median and musculocutaneous nerve
    d. Median and ulnar nerve
A

a. Axial and radial nerve

75
Q

] The 4th and 5th digit numbness is a neuropathy of which nerve?

a. Axillary nerve
b. Radial nerve nerve
c. Ulnar nerve
d. Median nerve

A

c. Ulnar nerve

76
Q
  1. Which is least likely to happen?
    a. Claw hand
    b. Horner’s syndrome
    c. Wrist drop
    d. Winging of scapula
A

d. Winging of scapula

77
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is false?
    a. A damage in the median nerve will result to Papal’s blessing
    b. A damage in the radial nerve will result to wrist drop
    c. A damage in the ulnar nerve will result to claw hand
    d. A damage to the axillary nerve will result to atrophy of rhomboid major and minor
A

c. A damage in the ulnar nerve will result to claw hand

78
Q
  1. Atrophy of the deltoid muscle suggests an injury to the:
    a. Axillary nerve
    b. Dorsal scapular nerve
    c. Long thoracic nerve
    d. Thoracodorsal nerve
A

a. Axillary nerve

79
Q
  1. A patient with transected medial and lateral cords is expected to have INTACT sensation in the:
    a. Lateral forearm
    b. Palmar side of the index finger
    c. Posterior hand
    d. Palmar side of the pinky finger
A

c. Posterior hand

80
Q
  1. A fracture on the medial epicondyle of the humerus will result to:
    a. Loss of sensation on the lateral surface of the forearm
    b. Inability to bend the wrist and hand joints
    c. Numbness of the medial part of palm and one and a half of fingers
    d. Sensory loss in dorsum of hand (?)
A

c. Numbness of the medial part of palm and one and a half of fingers

81
Q
  1. If axillary nerve is damaged, denervation of the ff muscles occur, except:
    a. Deltoid
    b. Infraspinatus
    c. Teres minor
    d. All of the above
A

b. Infraspinatus

82
Q
  1. [NV] Which statement best describes the characteristic of osteoblasts?
    a. They are found in the canaliculi of osteons.
    b. They resorb bone through lysosomic secretions.
    c. They make up the single layer of cell in the endosteum.
    d. They are only found in compact bones.
A

c. They make up the single layer of cell in the endosteum.

83
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about the characteristics of bone?
    a. Its matrix is made up of Type II Collagen Fibers.
    b. The Volksman Canals intersect the Haversian Canals.
    c. Bone is made up of 65% Organic Substances.
    d. Only bone has interstitial and appositional growth.
A

b. The Volksman Canals intersect the Haversian Canals

84
Q
  1. Given the following, choose the arrangement that shows the events in the order that they occur:
    1 - action potential travels down t tubules
    2 - acetylcholine is released from synaptic vesicles
    3 - heavy meromyosin forms cross-bridges with actin
    4 - calcium is released by the terminal cisternae
    a. 2431
    b. 1243
    c. 2143
    d. 1234
A

c. 2143

85
Q

The following are true for both intramembranous and endocondral ossification except:

a. ???
b. First bone to be produced is woven bone
c. Involves formation of bony matrix
d. Involves the use of cartilage model

A

d. Involves the use of cartilage model

86
Q
  1. Which among the following has elastic cartilage?
    a. Pinna
    b. Nasal septum
    c. Symphysis pubis
    d. Tracheal cartilage
A

a. Pinna

87
Q

What indicates that long bone has finished the ossification process?

a. Disappearance of epiphyseal plate
b. Avascularization of bone

A

a. Disappearance of epiphyseal plate

88
Q
  1. The following are found in both compact and spongy bone except
    a. Something lamellae
    b. Haversian canal
    c. Canaliculi
    d. Extracellular matrix
A

b. Haversian canal

89
Q
  1. [NV] What happens during the conversion of cartilage to bone?
    a. The chondrocytes degrade and die.
    b. The chondrocytes turn into osteblasts.
A

a. The chondrocytes degrade and die.

90
Q
  1. Which is true?
    a. Lamellae of spongy bone are arranged in osteons.
    b. Skull and mandible are formed by intramembranous ossification.
    c. Compact bone is formed only by endochondral ossification.
    d. Osteocytes and chondrocytes are both from ostroprogenitor cells.
A

b. Skull and mandible are formed by intramembranous ossification.

91
Q
  1. Cross Binding occurs when myosin combined with what structure?
    a. Actin
    b. Tropomyosin-Troponin Complex
    c. Tropomyosin
    d. Calsequetrin
A

a. Actin

92
Q

True of cardiac muscle:

a. Well developed sarcoplasmic reticulum
b. Triad at Z disc
c. Branching fibers
d. Fusiform cells

A

c. Branching fibers

93
Q
  1. What does the muscle spindle detect changes of?
    a. Stretch of extrafusal fibers
    b. Stretch of intrafusal fibers
    c. Muscle contraction
    d. Muscle relaxation
A

a. Stretch of extrafusal fibers

94
Q

Vesicular invaginations of the plasmalemma in the smooth muscle:

a. Cytoplasmic dense bodies
b. Pinocytotic vesicles
c. Caveolae
d. Junctional reticulum

A

c. Caveolae

95
Q

What is the function of terminal cisternae in skeletal muscles?

a. Glycogen storage
b. Replacement repair of the sarcolemma
c. End terminal of rough endoplasmic reticulum
d. Storage and source of calcium

A

d. Storage and source of calcium

96
Q
  1. What happens when an action potential reaches the presynaptic terminal of the motor neuron?
    a. Calcium is released into the inside of the muscle fiber
    b. Norepinephrine is released to the synaptic cleft
    c. Norepinephrine leaks to the synaptic cleft
    d. Physical contact between the axon and the muscle occurs
A

a. Calcium is released into the inside of the muscle fiber

97
Q
  1. What is the primary effect of Acetylcholine’s binding at the specific receptor sites of the motor end plate?
    a. Decrease K+ permeability
    b. Decrease Na+ permeability
    c. Allow entry of Ca2+ into the motor terminal
    d. Increase Na+ permeability
A

d. Increase Na+ permeability

98
Q
  1. Successive stimulation of skeletal muscle results to:
    a. Summation of action potentials
    b. Hyperpolarization of muscle membrane
    c. Summation of contractions
    d. Accumulation of calcium ions in the terminal cisternae.
A

c. Summation of contractions

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