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o 201 e2 Flashcards

1
Q 
1.	Which of the following bonds/interactions are responsible for the primary structure of polypeptides? 
A.	Van Der Waals
B.	Ionic interactions
C.	H-bonds
D.	Covalent Bonds
A

D. Covalent Bonds

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2
Q 
2.	The linear sequences in DNA encode proteins. Which is involved in producing 3D structures?
A.	Ionic interactions & H-bonds
B.	Covalent interactions & H-bonds
C.	Ionic & covalent interactions
D.	All of the above
A

D. All of the above

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3
Q 
3.	You are running a marathon. You sweat profusely so you drink a lot of fluid during your run. What property of water allows you to continue running without developing hyperthermia?
A.	Presence of H bonds
B.	Small degree of ionization
C.	Polarity
D.	High dielectric constant
A

A. Presence of H bonds

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4
Q
  1. In an aqueous environment, hydrophobic portions of biomolecules preferentially cluster at the center, away from the water molecules. Which of the following does not illustrate this principle?
    A. Serine at the outer surface of the plasma membrane
    B. Purine at the center of double stranded DNA
    C. Phosphate groups at the outer region of the bilipid layer
    D. Sialic residues at the outer surface of the cellular membrane
A

B. Purine at the center of double stranded DNA

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5
Q 
5.	Which of the following best describes the relationship between cyclohexane and 1-hexene?
A.	Functional isomer
B.	Positional isomer
C.	Enantiomer
D.	Tautomer
A

A. Functional isomer

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6
Q 
6.	What is/are the functional groups of cysteine?
A.	Sulfhydryl group
B.	Amino group
C.	Carboxylic group
D.	All of the above
A

A. Sulfhydryl group

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7
Q 
7.	Hormones like insulin are commonly transported by means of vacuolar transport. Of the following configurations of phospholipids, which is the most relevant in this form of transport?
A.	Micelle
B.	Monolayer
C.	Bilayer
D.	A & C
A

C. Bilayer

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8
Q 
Number 8:
A.	Non-polar (hydrophobic) amino acid
B.	Hydrophilic uncharged amino acid
C.	Positively charged amino acid
D.	Negatively charged amino acid

https://docs.google.com/document/d/1xPGEvvii92XcfBpTed3OTl5oCZT26gSXFbJc2BBCUjc/edit?usp=sharing

A

A. Non-polar (hydrophobic) amino acid

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9
Q 
Number 9:
A.	Non-polar (hydrophobic) amino acid
B.	Hydrophilic uncharged amino acid
C.	Positively charged amino acid
D.	Negatively charged amino acid

https://docs.google.com/document/d/1xPGEvvii92XcfBpTed3OTl5oCZT26gSXFbJc2BBCUjc/edit?usp=sharing

A

B. Hydrophilic uncharged amino acid

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10
Q 
Number 10:
A.	Non-polar (hydrophobic) amino acid
B.	Hydrophilic uncharged amino acid
C.	Positively charged amino acid
D.	Negatively charged amino acid

https://docs.google.com/document/d/1xPGEvvii92XcfBpTed3OTl5oCZT26gSXFbJc2BBCUjc/edit?usp=sharing

A

A. Non-polar (hydrophobic) amino acid

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11
Q 
11.	What level of protein organization is shown in Frame A?
A.	Primary
B.	Secondary
C.	Tertiary
D.	Quaternary

https://docs.google.com/document/d/1xPGEvvii92XcfBpTed3OTl5oCZT26gSXFbJc2BBCUjc/edit?usp=sharing

A

D. Quaternary

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12
Q 
12.	What stabilizes the secondary level of protein structure? (Frame C)
A.	Peptide
B.	Hydrogen bond
C.	Ionic bond
D.	Hydrophobic interaction
A

B. Hydrogen bond

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13
Q 
13.	Which is a cyclic amino acid that provides rigidity in the polypeptide?
A.	Serine
B.	Proline
C.	Alanine
D.	Glycine
A

B. Proline

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14
Q
  1. Which of the following biological processes follow/s the laws of thermodynamics
    A. The energy of glucose is converted to ATP in glycolysis
    B. Contraction of muscle after ATP hydrolysis
    C. Maintenance of core body temperature
    D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding beta-keratin is FALSE?
    A. Assumes a “beta-pleated sheet” (zigzag) configuration
    B. All hydrogen bonds are inter-chain rather than intrachain.
    C. Flexible, non-stretchable and insoluble in water.
    D. Oriented in parallel direction for stability.
    E. R groups are small and non-polar.
A

D. Oriented in parallel direction for stability

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following transport processes are greatly affected by the fluctuations in ATP-ADP concentrations?
    A. Transport of small to medium chain fatty acids across the membrane
    B. Transport of oxygen across the membrane
    C. Movement of water through aquaporins
    D. Transport of Na+ and glucose across the membrane
A

D. Transport of Na+ and glucose across the membrane

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17
Q
  1. What happen to the reactants and products of a reaction with a free energy of zero?
    A. No significant change occurs in the forward and reverse reactions.
    B. The concentration of reactants is greater than the products.
    C. The concentration of products is greater than the reactants.
    D. The concentrations of the reactants and products are equal.
A

A. No significant change occurs in the forward and reverse reactions.

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18
Q 
18.	Which of the following reaction characteristics CANNOT be determined through bioenergetics?
A.	Rate of reaction
B.	Spontaneity of reaction
C.	Direction of reaction
D.	Heat contributed to surroundings
A

A. Rate of reaction

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19
Q
  1. Which of the following statements does NOT describe why the deltaG from the hydrolases of ATP is large and negative?
    A. Electrostatic repulsion among the negatively charged oxygen atoms
    B. Better solvation of the products of ATP hydrolases compared to ATP
    C. Resonance stabilization of the products of ATP hydrolases
    D. Hydrophobic interaction among the triphosphate moieties
A

D. Hydrophobic interaction among the triphosphate moieties

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20
Q
  1. Which of the following about entropy is/are true?
    A. A reaction is spontaneous if its change in entropy is negative.
    B. Entropy is the randomness or disorder in a system.
    C. To maintain order within a cell, entropy is decreased in its surroundings.
    D. Only B and C are correct.
A

B. Entropy is the randomness or disorder in a system.

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21
Q 
21.	Which of the following conditions will be required for biochemical reactions to proceed under an enzyme free system?
A.	Large cells
B.	High temperature
C.	Large proteins
D.	Small atoms
A

B. High temperature

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22
Q 
22.	Which of the following classes of enzymes does not mediate group transfer reactions?
A.	Hydrolase
B.	Oxidoreductase
C.	Isomerase
D.	Transferase
A

A. Hydrolase

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23
Q 
23.	What is a component of a functional enzyme?
A.	Apoenzyme
B.	Substrate
C.	Prosthetic Group
D.	Active Site
A

D. Active Site

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24
Q 
24.	Which of the following enzymes is not a typical indicator of myocardial infarction?
A.	SGOT, SGPT
B.	Amylase
C.	Creatinine phosphokinase
D.	Lactic dehydrogenase
A

B. Amylase

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25
Q
  1. Azidodeoxythymidine (AZT) is an inhibitor that conjugates with the HIV reverse tanscriptase’s substrates for the active site. Which of the following statements about this type of inhibitor molecule is CORRECT?
    A. The inhibitor has the same shape as the product
    B. The inhibitor is a nucleoside analog
    C. The inhibitor is an endogenous substrate
    D. The compound binds to the allosteric site
A

B. The inhibitor is a nucleoside analog

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26
Q 
26.	The following exhibit proteolytic activity EXCEPT:
A.	Urokinase
B.	Fructokinase
C.	Streptokinase
D.	Caspase
A

C. Streptokinase

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27
Q 
27.	Which of the following molecules is present in the most reduced state?
A.	Amino Acid
B.	Glucose
C.	Fatty acid
D.	Nucleic Acid
A

C. Fatty acid

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28
Q 
28.	Which of the following classes of of lipids is responsible for the cell recognition site in the plasma membrane?
A.	Phospholipid
B.	Sphingolipid
C.	Cerebroside
D.	Ganglioside
A

D. Ganglioside

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29
Q
  1. Which of the following is true regarding the lipid composition of the plasma membrane?
    A. Phospholipid>Sphingolipid>Cholesterol
    B. Phospholipid>Sphingolipid>Cholesterol Ester
    C. Sphingolipid>Phospholipid>Cholesterol
    D. Sphingolipid>Phospholipid>Cholesterol Ester
A

A. Phospholipid>Sphingolipid>Cholesterol

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30
Q 
30.	Which of the following poly-unsaturated fatty acids is the precursor of the informational medium present in the cell membrane?
A.	Oleic Acid
B.	Linoleic Acid
C.	Arachidonic Acid
D.	Alpha-Linoleic Acid
A

C. Arachidonic Acid

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31
Q 
31.	Which of the following analogous pairs about alcohol backbone of corresponding type of lipid is incorrect?
A.	Glycerol : Lecithin
B.	Sphingosine : Ganglioside
C.	Ceramide : Sphingomyelin
D.	Sphingosine : Galactocerebroside
A

C. Ceramide : Sphingomyelin

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32
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about the cell membrane is CORRECT?
    A. The outer and inner leaflets exhibit symmetry
    B. Lipid rafts are rich in phospholipids cholesterol
    C. Cell membrane assembly is stabilised by covalent bonds
    D. Cell membrane appears trilamellar under electron microscope
A

D. Cell membrane appears trilamellar under electron microscope

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33
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about cholesterol ester is incorrect?
    A. It is a neutral lipid
    B. It is found in cell membranes where it regulates fluidity
    C. It is excreted as bile salts
A

B. It is found in cell membranes where it regulates fluidity

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34
Q 
34.	Which of the following lipid configurations is most associated with lipid digestion?
A.	Micelle
B.	Hemicaps
C.	Bilayer
D.	Monolayer
A

A. Micelle

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35
Q
  1. Which best describes fats as energy sources?
    A. Fats are poor energy sources because they
    B. They are not reliable sources of energy because they have low mobility
    C. Fats are good energy sources for their molecular weight because they are the least oxidized molecules
    D. Fats are preferred sources of energy because they are readily convertible into glucose
A

C. Fats are good energy sources for their molecular weight because they are the least oxidized molecules

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36
Q 
36.	Which of the following is a major constituent of the surfactant, preventing adherennce of the mucus surfaces of the lungs?
A.	Choline
B.	Dipalmitoyl lecithin
C.	Myoinositol
D.	Ceramide
A

B. Dipalmitoyl lecithin

37
Q
  1. What is CORRECT regarding fatty acids?
    A. Double bonds confer a higher melting point.
    B. Unsaturated fatty acids have cis-form bonds
    C. Saturated fatty acids are responsible for the fluidity of the cell
    D. Monounsaturated fatty acids have an extended trans configuration
A

B. Unsaturated fatty acids have cis-form bonds

38
Q 
38.	Which of the following is an aldopentose?
A.	Galactose
B.	Arabinose
C.	Ribulose
D.	Mannose
A

B. Arabinose

39
Q
  1. What is the similarity between glycogen and amylose?
    A. They mainly have structural function.
    B. They are both heteropolysaccharides.
    C. They are both branching.
    D. Their main chains are linked by alpha-glycosidic bonds
A

D. Their main chains are linked by alpha-glycosidic bonds

40
Q 
40.	Which of the following is the C-2 epimer of glucose
A.	Xylose
B.	Mannose
C.	Fructose
D.	Galactose
A

B. Mannose

41
Q
  1. What is the difference between sialic acid and sorbitol?
    A. Sialic acid has 6 Cs and Sorbitol has 9
    B. Sorbitol can be oxidized at the anomeric carbon by Cu2+
    C. Sialic acid is a usual component of glycoproteins and gangliosides
    D. Sorbitol is a component of red blood cell membrane saccharides
A

C. Sialic acid is a usual component of glycoproteins and gangliosides

42
Q
  1. What is the main the structural difference between proteoglycans and glycoproteins?
    A. Sugar moieties in proteoglycans do not form glycosidic bonds
    B. N-glycosidic bonds only present in glycoproteins
    C. Protein part serves as anchor to plasma membrane
    D. There are more carbohydrate portions than protein portions in glycoproteins than in proteoglycans
A

D. There are more carbohydrate portions than protein portions in glycoproteins than in proteoglycans

43
Q
  1. Why is glycogen the better choice as a storage polysaccharide in the animal body?
    A. It is highly branched
    B. It forms a compact structure
    C. It allows large amounts of carbon energy to be stored in a small volume
    D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

44
Q 
44.	Which glycosaminoglycan is found in mast cells and has anticoagulant properties
A.	Dermatan
B.	Heparin
C.	Chondroitin sulfate
D.	Heparan sulfate
A

B. Heparin

45
Q 
45.	What biomolecule has no sugar moiety?
A.	ATP
B.	NADH
C.	Sphingosine
D.	Mucin
A

C. Sphingosine

46
Q
  1. Which of the following processes does NOT involve carbohydrates?
    A. Clumping of RBC
    B. Adhesion of leukocytes to epithelial cells
    C. Sperm to egg recognition
    D. Binding of antibiotic to target cell
A

A. Clumping of RBC

47
Q
  1. Which is the most preferred energy storage form of the body?
    A. Glucose
    B. Triacylglyceride
    C. Dipeptide
A

B. Triacylglyceride

48
Q
  1. Glucagon inhibits neighboring alpha cells in the pancreas

A. Neurotransmitter
B. Autocrine
C. Paracrine
D. Endocrine

A

C. Paracrine

49
Q
  1. Luteinizing hormone secreted by the anterior pituitary stimulates secretion of testosterone by the Leydig cells in the testes.

A. Neurotransmitter
B. Autocrine
C. Paracrine
D. Endocrine

A

E. None

50
Q
  1. Sensory neurons deliver nerve impulses by secreting signals that will be received by the adjacent neuron and will eventually reach the central nervous system

A. Neurotransmitter
B. Autocrine
C. Paracrine
D. Endocrine

A

A. Neurotransmitter

51
Q
  1. Sensory neurons deliver nerve impulses by secreting signals that will be received by the adjacent neuron and will eventually reach the central nervous system

A. Neurotransmitter
B. Autocrine
C. Paracrine
D. Endocrine

A

A. Neurotransmitter

52
Q 
52.	What is the structure in the cell that allows for cell communication, allowing for direct exchange of ions between cells?
A.	Desmosomes
B.	Hemidesmosomes
C.	Tight Junctions
D.	Gap Junctions
E.	Ligands
A

D. Gap Junctions

53
Q
  1. Why do only specific cells respond to a hormone.
    A. Hormones are released on a seasonal basis depending on the time of year.
    B. Hormones are released from glands and cells far away from the glands do not respond to it.
    C. Only cells with the correct receptor respond to the hormone
A

C. Only cells with the correct receptor respond to the hormone

54
Q 
54.	Which one affects most cells in the body?
A.	Growth hormone
B.	Testosterone
C.	Luteinizing hormone
D.	Thyrotropin
A

A. Growth hormone

55
Q
  1. Which characteristic is common to hormones glucagon and insulin?
    A. Not stored in vesicles at the cytoplasm
    B. Synthesized from smooth endoplasmic reticulum
    C. Have cell surface receptors
    D. Derived from one tyrosine residue
    E. Bind to plasma proteins in the blood
A

C. Have cell surface receptors

56
Q
  1. What characteristics are shared by thyroxine and testosterone?
    A. Derived from 2 tyrosine residues
    B. Stored in secretory vesicles in the cytoplasm
    C. Response in receptor cells is rapid (mins)
    D. Requires binding to plasma proteins
    E. Rate-limiting step is the conversion of cholesterol to pregnenolone
A

D. Requires binding to plasma proteins

57
Q
  1. Hormones utilize secondary messenger systems because:
    A. The receptor in the target cell is in the cytosol
    B. Hormones have short half lives
    C. Hormones can’t pass through the plasma membrane
    D. The receptor in the target cell is in the nucleus
    E. Hormones occur in very small concentrations in the blood
A

C. Hormones can’t pass through the plasma membrane

58
Q
  1. Which is true about g protein?
    A. It is located inside the cytoplasm
    B. It has four subunits: alpha, beta, delta, and gamma
A

A. It is located inside the cytoplasm

59
Q 
59.	A kinase activates another protein by adding what moiety
A.	Glucose
B.	Calcium
C.	Phenylalanine
D.	ATP
E.	Phosphorus
A

E. Phosphorus

60
Q
  1. Secondary messengers amplify effects of a hormone or ligand by:
    A. Increasing the concentration of hormones that will circulate the entire body and reach target cells
    B. Increasing the number of receptors present in the cell membrane of target cells
    C. Delay the degradation of the hormone by certain enzymes
    D. Converts prohormone to active mature hormone
    E. Activating the 1st enzyme, then a 2nd enzyme and so on, leading to many more activated enzymes
A

E. Activating the 1st enzyme, then a 2nd enzyme and so on, leading to many more activated enzymes

61
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about PLC activity/pathway?
    A. PLC makes arachidonic acid from phospholipids
    B. PLC activity results in IP2 and triacylglycerols
    C. Binding to phospholipase A2
    D. Results in IP3 mobilizing calcium to activate PKC
A

D. Results in IP3 mobilizing calcium to activate PKC

62
Q
  1. True of simple diffusion, except:
    A. Polar and lipid soluble molecules can directly pass the membrane
    B. Net movement is from high concentration to low concentration
    C. Eliminates gradient
    D. Solute flow type of molecules
    E. None of the above
A

A. Polar and lipid soluble molecules can directly pass the membrane

63
Q
  1. The following correctly influences the rate of diffusion
    A. Lower molecular weight, more permeable the solutes are, higher diffusion
    B. More lipids, lower diffusion
    C. Thinner membrane, lower diffusion
    D. Lower area, higher diffusion
    E. None of the above
A

A. Lower molecular weight, more permeable the solutes are, higher diffusion

64
Q 
64.	Which is not a form of passive transport?
A.	Facilitated diffusion
B.	Endocytosis
C.	Diffusion
D.	Osmosis
E.	None of the above
A

B. Endocytosis

65
Q
  1. Receptor mediated endocytosis
    A. Clathrin coated vesicles inside cytoplasm
    B. Caveolae mechanism
    C. Nonspecific process wherein vesicles containing a high concentration of target molecule are endocytosed
    D. A & B
    E. A & C
A

D. A & B

66
Q
  1. Endocytosis coatomer vesicles
A.	Acetylcholine secretion
B.	COPI & COPII trafficking
C.	Cholesterol regulation
D.	Hormone uptake
E.	Absorption by intestinal cells
A

B. COPI & COPII trafficking

67
Q
  1. Receptor-mediated endocytosis
A.	Acetylcholine secretion
B.	COPI & COPII trafficking
C.	Cholesterol regulation
D.	Hormone uptake
E.	Absorption by intestinal cells
A

C. Cholesterol regulation

68
Q
  1. Exocytosis
A.	Acetylcholine secretion
B.	COPI & COPII trafficking
C.	Cholesterol regulation
D.	Hormone uptake
E.	Absorption by intestinal cells
A

A. Acetylcholine secretion

69
Q 
69.	Patients under dapaglifozin may exhibit the following except
A.	Weight loss
B.	Increased blood pressure
C.	Increased risks of dehydration
D.	Increased risks of UTI
E.	None of the above
A

B. Increased blood pressure

70
Q 
70.	The following are involved in glucose reabsorption:
A.	Facilitated Diffusion
B.	Primary Active Transport
C.	Secondary Active Transport
D.	Both A & B
E.	Both A & C
A

E. Both A & C

71
Q
  1. All of the following are characteristics of both actin and microtubules except:
    A. They require ATP to cause polymerization
    B. They both have polarity
    C. Their positive ends grow the filament faster than the negative ends
    D. They bind and hydrolyze a nucleotide
A

A. They require ATP to cause polymerization

72
Q 
72.	Which core protein filament is found in renal epithelial cells?
A.	Microtubules
B.	Intermediate Filament
C.	Myosin Filament
D.	Microfilament
A

A. Microtubules

73
Q 
73.	What is the most abundant protein in the body
A.	Thick myosin
B.	Microtubule
C.	Intermediate
D.	Microfilament
A

D. Microfilament

74
Q
  1. All are characteristics of actin and microtubules except?
    A. Set up tracks for traffic of motor proteins
    B. Have polarity
    C. The plus end grows faster than the minus end
    D. Involved in muscle contraction
A

D. Involved in muscle contraction

75
Q 
75.	Composition of the heterodimer of microtubules:
A.	Gamma tubulin and kinesin
B.	Apha tubulin and kinesin
C.	Alpha and beta tubulin
D.	Gamma and beta tubulin
A

C. Alpha and beta tubulin

76
Q 
76.	Which of the following protein pairs forms the dimers of microtubules?
A.	Actin and kinesin
B.	Kinesin and alpha-tubulin
C.	Alpha and beta-tubulin
D.	Beta-tubulin and actin
A

C. Alpha and beta-tubulin

77
Q 
77.	What do you call the fingerlike extensions of the cell that are used for movement?
A.	Filipodia
B.	Lamellipodia
C.	Microvilli
D.	Cilia
A

A. Filipodia

78
Q 
78.	In cytokinesis, in a cell, what is the form of actin?
A.	Cilia
B.	Cytoplasmic contractile bundle
C.	Microvilli
D.	Lamellipodia
A

B. Cytoplasmic contractile bundle

79
Q 
79.	Epidermolysis bullosa is a condition wherein the skin cells rupture upon slight pressure. Which filament is associated with this disease?
A.	Thick Myosin Filament
B.	Microfilament
C.	Intermediate filament
D.	Microtubule
A

C. Intermediate filament

80
Q 
80.	[NV] A couple is having a hard time getting pregnant then they found out that something's wrong with the guy's sperm movement. What protein filament is probably impaired?
A.	Microfilament
B.	Myosin
C.	Microtubules
D.	Intermediate filament
A

C. Microtubules

81
Q 
81.	Inability to contract Skeletal Muscle may be due to malformation of which cytoskeleton structure?
A.	Microtubules
B.	Intermediate Filaments
C.	Centrosome
D.	Microfilaments
A

D. Microfilaments

82
Q 
82.	The ciliary movement of cells lining the respiratory tree and lungs are responsible for clearing the airways of mucus and dirt. What cytoskeleton is responsible for this movement?
A.	Microfilaments
B.	Microtubules
C.	Flagella
D.	Intermediate Filaments
A

B. Microtubules

83
Q 
83.	Which intermediate filament is found in mesenchymal cells?
A.	Vimentin
B.	GFAP
C.	Keratin
D.	Neural filaments
A

A. Vimentin

84
Q 
84.	Intermediate filaments found in epithelial cells are:
A.	Nuclear lamins
B.	Filament proteins
C.	Keratin
D.	Vimentin
A

C. Keratin

85
Q
  1. Assuming the boy (in the previous question) is 12 y.o., which of these holds true?
    A. “Overweight” means that an individual’s BMI is 2 standard deviations from the growth reference median
    B. “Obese” means that an individual’s BMI is more than 3 standard deviations from the median
    C. “Obese” means that an individual’s BMI is more than 2 standard deviations from the median
    D. None of the above
A

C. “Obese” means that an individual’s BMI is more than 2 standard deviations from the median

86
Q
  1. [NV] Which of the following is true about BMI?
    A. BMI greater than 22 is cut-off for overweight
    B. Person with low BMI will not develop CVD
    C. BMI can be used to compare seasonal trends in different countries
    D. None of the above
A

D. None of the above

87
Q
  1. Which of the following is true regarding cellular changes in obesity?
    A. In obesity, the number of adipocytes increase.
    B. In obesity, the size of adipocytes increase.
    C. The number and size of adipocytes remain constant because fat is deposited outside the cell.
    D. There is an increase in the number and size of cells in non-adipocytes.
A

B. In obesity, the size of adipocytes increase.

88
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about the major biomolecules in obesity is true?
    A. Fatty acids are ideal energy stores because they are easily oxidized.
    B. A diet consisting of more than 50% fat is needed to induce obesity.
    C. A low protein diet decreases the synthesis of insulin, which is an obesogenic hormone.
    D. None of the above statements are true.
A

D. None of the above statements are true

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