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o 201 e3 Flashcards

1
Q 
1.	Given two states, A and B which of the following shows change in disorder?
A.	ΔH = HB – HA
B.	ΔS = SB – SA
C.	ΔG = ΔH – TΔS
D.	ΔS = SD – SA
A

B. ΔS = SB – SA

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2
Q 
2.	Arrange the following from lowest to highest redox potential: 1.) Oxygen 2.) NAD+ 3.) Pyruvate 4.) Carbohydrate 5.) Oxaloacetate
A.	1,2,3,4,5
B.	1,3,2,5,4
C.	4,3,5,2,1
D.	4,5,2,3,1
E.	4,3,2,5,1
A

C. 4,3,5,2,1

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3
Q 
3.	Which of the following enzymes or cofactors does not participate in redox reactions in living organisms?
A.	Oxidase
B.	Dehydrogenase
C.	Cytochrome
D.	Oxygenase
E.	Glycosidase
A

E. Glycosidase

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a “nature-defined” objective of metabolism?

A. Supply the building block molecules like amino acids and monosaccharides
B. Generate ATP for the energy-dependent activities of the cell
C. Supply reducing substances such as NAD+ and FAD
D. Supply elementary precursors like carbon dioxide and water
E. Couple catabolic and anabolic reactions for maintenance of energy economy

A

D. Supply elementary precursors like carbon dioxide and water

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5
Q 
5.	Catabolism : Anabolism as \_\_\_\_:\_\_\_\_\_
A.	Endergonic: Exergonic
B.	Work: Energy
C.	Entropy : Enthalpy
D.	Exergonic: Endergonic
A

D. Exergonic: Endergonic

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6
Q 
6.	What is the last step of the Electron Transport Chain (no verbatim).
A.	ADP + Pi = ATP + H2O
B.	C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O
C.	6CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O2
D.	1/2 O2 + 2 e- + 2H+ → H2O
A

D. 1/2 O2 + 2 e- + 2H+ → H2O

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7
Q 
7.	Which of the following pathways is amphibolic?
A.	Beta-oxidation
B.	Krebs Cycle
C.	Glycolysis
D.	Glycogenesis
E.	Glycogenolysis
A

B. Krebs Cycle

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding ATP is true?
    A. Its gamma and beta phosphate bonds yield the same amount of energy when cleaved.
    B. All its phosphate bonds yield the same amount of energy when cleaved.
    C. Participating groups in the phosphate bond does not affect the energy yield of the bonds.
    D. Adenosine is the energy yielding group of ATP.
    E. All of the above.
A

A. Its gamma and beta phosphate bonds yield the same amount of energy when cleaved.

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9
Q
  1. What is true based on the picture?
    A. ATP is synthesized in each site
    B. Protons flow from NADH to the next carrier until it reaches O
    C. Protons drive synthase mechanism until ATP is produced
    D. All reactions are endergonic
A

C. Protons drive synthase mechanism until ATP is produced

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10
Q 
10.	Which of the following enzyme complex-inhibitor pairs is incorrect?
A.	Complex IV – Carbon monoxide
B.	Complex I - Amobarbital
C.	Complex II - Malonate
D.	Complex III – Oligomycin
A

D. Complex III – Oligomycin

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about thermogenin is incorrect?
    A. Thermogenin is a carrier protein in the inner mitochondrial membrane
    B. It is found in brown adipose tissue in newborn mammals
    C. Uncoupler that blocks the flow of electrons
    D. Uncoupling stimulates respiration with G released as heat
    E. NOTA
A

C. Uncoupler that blocks the flow of electrons

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12
Q 
12.	The branched structure of glycogen is made by a transglucosidase which removes 6 to 8 glucosyl residues from the non-reducing end of the glycogen chain to non-terminal glucosyl units via a \_\_\_\_ linkage.
A.	alpha (1→4)
B.	alpha (1→6)
C.	beta (1→4)
D.	beta (1→6)
A

B. alpha (1→6)

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13
Q 
13.	What is the primary product when glycogen is degraded by glycogen phosphorylase?
A.	Free glucose
B.	Glucose-6-phosphate
C.	Glucose-1- phosphate
D.	Limit dextin
A

C. Glucose-1- phosphate

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14
Q 
14.	Which vitamin is necessary for glycogenolysis to proceed because it acts as a coenzyme for phosphorylase?
A.	Biotin
B.	Cobalamin
C.	Pantothenic acid
D.	Pyridoxal phosphate
A

D. Pyridoxal phosphate

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15
Q
  1. What is the rate determining and commited step in glycolysis?
    A. Phosphorylation of glucose
    B. Phosphorylation of fructose-6-phosphate
    C. Cleavage of Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
    D. Phosphorylation of PEP
A

B. Phosphorylation of fructose-6-phosphate

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16
Q 
16.	Which of the following intermediates in glycolysis is the product of a substrate level phosphorylation, where high energy compounds synthesize ATP without going through the electron transport chain?
A.	Fructose-6-phosphate
B.	Dihydroxyacetone phosphate
C.	1,3-bisphosphoglycerate
D.	Pyruvate
A

D. Pyruvate

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17
Q 
17.	Which of the following enzymes is involved in catalyzing the rate-limiting step of the pentose phosphate pathway?
A.	Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
B.	6-phosphate-gluconolactone hydrolase
C.	6-phosphate-gluconate dehydrogenase
D.	Transketoaldolase
A

A. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

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18
Q 
Match the hormone with the amino acid from which it was derived from
A.	Cysteine
B.	Glutamine
C.	Glutamate
D.	Tyrosine
E.	Tryptophan
  1. Niacin
A

E. Tryptophan

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19
Q 
Match the hormone with the amino acid from which it was derived from
A.	Cysteine
B.	Glutamine
C.	Glutamate
D.	Tyrosine
E.	Tryptophan
  1. Epinephrine
A

D. Tyrosine

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20
Q 
Match the hormone with the amino acid from which it was derived from
A.	Cysteine
B.	Glutamine
C.	Glutamate
D.	Tyrosine
E.	Tryptophan
  1. Coenzyme A
A

A. Cysteine

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21
Q 
Match the hormone with the amino acid from which it was derived from
A.	Cysteine
B.	Glutamine
C.	Glutamate
D.	Tyrosine
E.	Tryptophan
  1. Purine ring
A

C. Glutamate

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22
Q 
22.	Which of the following amino acids undergoes transamination for its catabolism?
A.	Lysine
B.	Proline
C.	Glutamate
D.	Threonine
A

C. Glutamate

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23
Q 
23.	Which amino acid transports ammonia to circulation/liver?
A.	Alanine
B.	Glutamine
C.	Glutamate
D.	Aspartate
A

B. Glutamine

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24
Q
  1. Which of the following amino acids undergoes transamination for its catabolism?
    A. It is facilitated by the active form of gastric and pancreatic proteases as released by the cell.
    B. It is completed by enzymes which degrade tripeptides and dipeptides into amino acids.
    C. Trypsin, the most specific endopeptidase, activates the other proteolytic enzymes.
    D. It is initiated in the stomach by pepsin and HCl.
A

A. It is facilitated by the active form of gastric and pancreatic proteases as released by the cell.

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25
Q 
25.	Which of the ff. does not participate in one-carbon transfers?
A.	SAM
B.	Cysteine
C.	THF
D.	Cobalamin
A

A. SAM

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26
Q
  1. Which of the following is not true about the transport of amino acids across the cell membrane?

A. Specific transport proteins are used for amino acid
B. Is not the same as the transport of glucose
C. Transport of amino acid uses facilitated diffusion and active transport

A

B. Is not the same as the transport of glucose

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27
Q 
27.	What will be observed in a patient with defective carbamoyl phosphate synthetase 1?
A.	Elevated urea
B.	Elevated ammonia
C.	Elevated ornithine
D.	Elevated citrulline
A

B. Elevated ammonia

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28
Q 
28.	The hydreolytic action of pancreatic lipase leads to two primary products: \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and free fatty acids.
A.	Glycerol
B.	1-monoacylglycerol
C.	2-monoacylglycerol
D.	3-monoacylglycerol
A

C. 2-monoacylglycerol

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29
Q 
29.	The hydrolytic action of pancreatic lipase leads to two primary products: \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and free fatty acids.
A.	Glycerol
B.	1-monoacylglycerol
C.	2-monoacylglycerol
D.	3-monoacylglycerol
A

C. 2-monoacylglycerol

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30
Q 
30.	Which apoprotein is acquired by nascent chylomicron from HDL when it reaches the plasma?
A.	Apo A-I
B.	Apo B-48
C.	Apo C-II
D.	Apo D
A

C. Apo C-II

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31
Q 
31.	Triglycerides constitute what percent of VLDL?
A.	5
B.	20
C.	50
D.	90
A

C. 50

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32
Q
  1. Which of the following homeostatic events in hepatocytes occurs first as effect endocytosis of high amounts of cholesterol?

A. Expression of the gene for HMG CoA is inhibited
B. Degradation of HMG CoA is accelerated
C. Activation of acyl CoA: cholesterol acyltransferase (ACAT) is enhanced
D. Expression of LDL receptor gene decreases

A

B. Degradation of HMG CoA is accelerated

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33
Q 
33.	What lipid is transferred from VLDL to HDL via Cholesterol Ester Transfer Protein (CETP)?
A.	Cholesterol
B.	Cholesterol ester
C.	Phospholipid
D.	Triglyceride
A

B. Cholesterol ester

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34
Q 
34.	HDL is primarily a reservoir for Apo C-II and \_\_\_\_ which is important in receptor-mediated endocytosis of IDL and Chylomicron remnants.
A.	Apo A-II
B.	Apo B-100
C.	Apo D
D.	Apo E
A

D. Apo E

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35
Q 
35.	An individual with biotin deficiency was shown to produce fatty acids at a greatly reduced rate than someone without it. This is due to which of the following?
A.	Low activity of citrate lyase
B.	Reduced activity of malic enzyme
C.	Reduced activity of acetyl-CoA
D.	Reduced ability to form malonyl-CoA
A

D. Reduced ability to form malonyl-CoA

36
Q 
36.	You have a patient who is already taking inhaled steroids and albuterol but is still having problems. You add Montelukast to her regimen. Which of the following metabolic pathways does Montelukast inhibit?
A.	Cyclooxygenase
B.	Lipooxygenase
C.	Cori Cycle
D.	Cytochrome P450
A

B. Lipooxygenase

37
Q
  1. A patient was told by her friend that she needed to lose weight and was advised to go on a high fat, no carbohydrate diet. What would be the net effect of this kind of diet on the patient?
    A. Glucose is the major fuel for the brain and red blood cells in well-nourished people on a balanced diet, but a high fat diet will make the brain adapt by utilizing ketone bodies.
    B. Formation of acetoacetate, B-hydroxybutyrate, and acetone
    C. A and B
    D. B only
A

C. A and B

38
Q 
38.	A fatty acid containing 18 C atoms will undergo how many cycles of beta oxidation?
A.	9
B.	8
C.	7
D.	6
A

B. 8

39
Q
  1. Which of the following statements best describes the beta oxidation of odd numbered fatty acids
    A. Additional enzymes are needed for oxidation
    B. One carbon is removed in one cycle
    C. Production of hydroxy fatty acids
    D. End product is propionyl-CoA
A

D. End product is propionyl-CoA

40
Q
  1. Which of the ff statements is the molecular basis of the saying “fats burn in the flames of carbohydrates”
    A. Fatty acids and glucose are oxidized simultaneously
    B. Acetyl coA is the main product of fatty acid and glucose metabolism
    C. Acetyl coA is oxidized completely in the presence of oxaloacetate in the citric acid cycle
A

C. Acetyl coA is oxidized completely in the presence of oxaloacetate in the citric acid cycle

41
Q
  1. Steps for beta oxidation:
    A. Oxidation, hydration, oxidation, carbon-carbon breaking
    B. Oxidation, reduction, oxidation, carbon-carbon breaking
    C. Oxidation, hydration, reduction, carbon-carbon breaking
    D. Oxidation, dehdyration, reduction, oxidation, carbon-carbon breaking
A

A. Oxidation, hydration, oxidation, carbon-carbon breaking

42
Q 
42.	Which of the following is a source of NADPH for fatty acid synthesis?
A.	Pentose phosphate pathway
B.	TCA
C.	Glycolysis
D.	AOTA
A

A. Pentose phosphate pathway

43
Q
  1. Which is TRUE about energy stores in the body?
    A. Less than 10% of amino acids from food is stored as protein in muscle.
    B. Fatty acids are not stored because they are hydrophobic and are difficult to transport.
    C. The glycogen in the muscle is not used for serum glucose.
    D. All carbohydrates from food are stored eventually as glycogen in the liver.
A

C. The glycogen in the muscle is not used for serum glucose.

44
Q
  1. Which of the follow describes glucose in energy production?
    A. Glucose is the only biomolecule that can undergo respiration without oxygen.
    B. Glycogen breakdown in muscle and liver tissues primarily maintain serum glucose levels.
    C. Glucose provides more calories than fatty acids
    D. Glucose is mainly stored as amino acids and fatty acids
A

A. Glucose is the only biomolecule that can undergo respiration without oxygen.

45
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes glucose homeostasis?
    A. Glucose from the blood comes from the breakdown of amino acids and fats in the liver cells
    B. Blood glucose is maintained 2 hours after eating
    C. Glucose in the blood can be converted to fats and amino acids but not vice versa
    D. Brain, adrenal cortex, muscle and RBC use glucose
A

B. Blood glucose is maintained 2 hours after eating

46
Q
  1. Which statement is true about the following enzymes?
    A. Enzymes with low Km have high affinity to the substrate
    B. Hexokinase has a high km so glycolysis in the liver only occurs with high levels of glucose
    C. Glucokinase has a low km so glucose phosphorylation in the liver occurs At any glucose level
    D. Only A and B are true
A

A. Enzymes with low Km have high affinity to the substrate

47
Q
  1. Which among the following statements about covalent modification is TRUE?
    A. Covalent modification by phosphorylation adds a phosphate group to the allosteric modifier
    B. The phosphorylation of the binding site allows better fit for the substrate
    C. Covalent modification involves the formation of covalent bonds between enzyme and ligand
    D. Covalent modification of enzymes causes the cell to synthesize more of the enzyme.
A

C. Covalent modification involves the formation of covalent bonds between enzyme and ligand

48
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes amplification?
    A. Occurs when several allosteric enzymes are covalently bonded to the active sites
    B. Phenomenon where a small signal produces a large end effect
    C. Single enzyme catalyzes a series of sequential reactions or a cascade
    D. Only possible due to the concomitant synthesis of relevant enzymes
A

B. Phenomenon where a small signal produces a large end effect

49
Q
  1. Which statement correctly describes the Pentose Phosphate Pathway?
    A. Its products are NADPH, ATP and ribose.
    B. Its regulation is based on the body’s need for NADPH and ribose.
    C. Excess ribose is converted into glycolysis intermediates.
    D. AOTA
A

C. Excess ribose is converted into glycolysis intermediates.

50
Q
  1. Which of the following describes why the liver stores glucose but does not use it much for energy?
    A. Glucose is able to enter the liver only when serum glucose levels are high.
    B. When glycogenolysis occurs in the liver, glycolysis cannot occur in the liver.
    C. The hydrophilic nature of glucose runs against the large amount of fat deposited in the liver.
    D. Only A and B are correct
A

A. Glucose is able to enter the liver only when serum glucose levels are high.

51
Q
  1. Based on the figure above, which among the choices is true?
    A. Glucagon phosphorylates phosphofructokinase
    B. Insulin increases fructose-2,6-biphosphate
    C. Fructose-2,6-biphosphate covalently modifies phosphofructokinase
    D. NOTA
A

B. Insulin increases fructose-2,6-biphosphate

52
Q
  1. Which statement rationalizes why insulin dep glucose transporters are only found in certain types of cells?
    A. Glucose needs to enter the muscle to be glycogen when glucose levels are high
    B. Needs to be reabsorbed in renal tubules when levels are high
    C. Into adipose to be converted to FFA when glucose is low
    D. To enter the liver when glucose is low
A

A. Glucose needs to enter the muscle to be glycogen when glucose levels are high

53
Q
  1. The body has mechanisms by which simultaneous occurrence of synthesis and breakdown of biosynthesis is prevented. Which of the following demonstrate/s this strategy?
    A. Beta-oxidation happens in the mitochondria, while fatty acid synthesis happens in the cytosol
    B. Gluconeogenesis happens in the mitochondria, glycolysis happens in cytosol
    C. Amino acid synthesis happens in nucleus, while amino acid breakdown happens in the cytosol
    D. AOTA
A

A. Beta-oxidation happens in the mitochondria, while fatty acid synthesis happens in the cytosol

54
Q
  1. Certain substances involved in the middle of opposing pathways come from different origins. Which of the following statements about the role of these substances is true:
    A. In gluconeogenesis, the pyruvate comes from amino acids while in glycolysis, it comes from glucose.
    B. In fatty acid synthesis, acetyl CoA comes from glucose while in beta oxidation, it comes from fatty acids.
    C. Oxaloacetic acid comes from amino acids in gluconeogenesis and glucose in glycolysis.
    D. AOTA
A

D. AOTA

55
Q
  1. Hormones regulate futile cycle. Which of these shows how hormones are able to regulate glycogen synthesis?
    A. Glucagon stimulates dephosphorylation of glycogen synthase and glycogen phosphorylase
    B. Glucagon inhibits phosphorylation of glycogen synthase and glycogen phosphorylase
    C. Insulin stimulates the dephosphorylation of glycogen synthase and glycogen phosphorylase
    D. Insulin inhibits the dephosphorylation of glycogen synthase and glycogen phosphorylase
A

C. Insulin stimulates the dephosphorylation of glycogen synthase and glycogen phosphorylase

56
Q
  1. Hormones also function to make sure that opposite reactions do not cancel each other out. Which of the following best demonstrate this?
    A. Glucagon promotes dephosphorylation of glycogen synthetase and glycogen phosphorylase.
    B. Glucagon inhibits dephosphorylation of glycogen synthetase and glycogen phosphorylase.
    C. Insulin promotes dephosphorylation of glycogen synthetase and glycogen phosphorylase.
    D. Insulin inhibits dephosphorylation of glycogen synthetase and glycogen phosphorylase.
A

C. Insulin promotes dephosphorylation of glycogen synthetase and glycogen phosphorylase.

57
Q
  1. Which of the following explains how exercise can reverse obesity?
    A. Exercise increases muscle cells that prefer using fatty acids as energy
    B. Muscle contraction during exercise requires energy and uses calories
    C. Exercise decreases muscle glycogen that causes increase in insulin sensitivity
    D. AOTA
A

A. Muscle contraction during exercise requires energy and uses calories

58
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes the fate of glucose from our diet.
    A. Most of the glucose from our diet Is stored as glycogen
    B. Most of the glucose from our diet Is stored as triglycerides
    C. Most of the glucose from our diet is stored as amino acids or proteins
    D. Glucose from our diet is not absorbed by the body
A

B. Most of the glucose from our diet Is stored as triglycerides

59
Q
  1. Which of the following demonstrates the relationship between glucose and fatty acid metabolism
    A. High glucose will stimulate CPT I
    B. High glucose will stimulate acetyl CoA carboxylase
    C. High serum free FAs will inhibit malate dehydrogenase
    D. High serum free FAs will stimulate hexokinase
A

B. High glucose will stimulate acetyl CoA carboxylase

60
Q
  1. Which of the following describes the critical role of glucagon on glucose and fatty acid metabolism ?
    A. Glucagon promotes the breakdown of glucose for fatty acid synthesis
    B. Glucagon inhibits acetyl coA carboxylase
    C. Glucagon inhibits pyruvate kinase causing pyruvate to enter gluconeogenesis
    D. AOTA
A

B. Glucagon inhibits acetyl coA carboxylase

61
Q
  1. Which of the following describes the role of insulin in fatty acid metabolism?
    A. Promotes dephosphorylation of acetyl CoA Carboxylase
    B. Promotes dephosphorylation of glycogen phosphatase
    C. Stimulates transport of FAs into mitochondria through CPT1
    D. Stimulates hormone dependent lipase
A

A. Promotes dephosphorylation of acetyl CoA Carboxylase

62
Q
  1. What is the role of insulin in Fatty Acid metabolism
    A. Dephosphorylation of Acetyl CoA carboxylase
    B. Dephosphorylation of glycogen phosphorylase
    C. Stimilation of fatty acid transport to mitochondrion by CPT1
    D. Stimulation of hormone sensitive lipase
A

A. Dephosphorylation of Acetyl CoA carboxylase

63
Q
  1. Which of the following statements describes how glucose contributes to the synthesis of fatty acids?
    A. Excess glucose in the blood is converted to Acetyl CoA, which is used to make fatty acids
    B. When the blood glucose level is low, Glucagon stimulates Acetyl CoA Carboxylase
    C. When the blood glucose level is high, Insulin stimulates Pyruvate Dehydrogenase
    D. AOTA
A

A. Excess glucose in the blood is converted to Acetyl CoA, which is used to make fatty acids

64
Q
  1. Which statement best illustrates the relationship between caloric intake and obesity?
    A. Excess calories are stored as glycogen
    B. Excess calories can be counteracted by burning it through exercise
    C. Excess calories stored as fat is more dangerous than being stored as carbs
    D. AOTA
A

D. AOTA

65
Q
  1. How do you attain good nutrition?
    A. Eat plant food stuff only and not animal food stuff
    B. Take supplements
    C. Eat a variety of foods
    D. Eat vegetables and fruits because they have everything you need
A

C. Eat a variety of foods

66
Q
  1. Which is true about Glycemic Index (GI) and Glycemic Load (GL)?
    A. GI is a tool used to measure the amount of sugar raised from a known amount of carbohydrate in a food while GL is used to measure carbohydrate content in food
    B. GI measures rate of increase in blood glucose while GL estimates impact of amount of carbohydrates consumed using GI
    C. Food with intermediate to high GL in a typical serving size has same GI value
    D. AOTA
A

B. GI measures rate of increase in blood glucose while GL estimates impact of amount of carbohydrates consumed using GI

67
Q 
67.	Most common nutritional health problem in developing countries?
A.	Protein energy malnutrition
B.	Iron deficiency anemia
C.	Vitamin C deficiency
D.	AOTA
A

D. AOTA

68
Q
  1. Which of the following statements describes why cellulose is of no nutritional value?
    A. They are not digested in the GIT of man
    B. They do not contain maltose which is the primary sugar utilized by man for energy
    C. When they are completely hydrolyzed, their monosaccharide units yield no energy
    D. They are fermented immediately by bacteria
A

A. They are not digested in the GIT of man

69
Q
  1. Which among the following statements is true about protein intake?
    A. It has the highest SDA (Specific Dynamic Action
    B. It is not completely oxidized in the body
    C. Urinary nitrogen can be used to measure protein metabolism
    D. AOTA
A

D. AOTA

70
Q 
70.	Which parameter in determining protein quality is used in food labeling?
A.	PDCAAS
B.	Biological value
C.	Chemical score
D.	Net protein utilization
A

A. PDCAAS

71
Q 
71.	Which of the following directly influence basal metabolism?
A.	Epinephrine
B.	 Insulin
C.	Thyroxine
D.	Gastrin
A

C. Thyroxine

72
Q
  1. In increased total caloric intake, what vitamin is needed more?

A. Thiamin
B. Biotin
C. Vitamin K
D. Cobalamin

A

A. Thiamin

73
Q 
73.	Which of the following is not true about fat-soluble vitamins?
A.	Transported and absorbed by bile
B.	Toxic in excess amounts
C.	Readily excreted in the urine
D.	Stored in liver and adipose tissue
A

C. Readily excreted in the urine

74
Q 
74.	A five year old child developed gradual loss of vision resulting in blindness. Upon physical examination, he had bilateral keratomalatocis and corneal scarring. This could have been prevented if the child had proper dietary intake of:
A.	Alpha tocophenol
B.	Alpha retinol
C.	Vitamin A
D.	Vitamin E
A

C. Vitamin A

75
Q
  1. Which function differentiates Vit. A from Vit. E?
    A. Protection of WBC and RBC cell membrane
    B. Prevents Night Blindness
    C. Antioxidant and Immune Response
A

Prevents Night Blindness

76
Q 
76.	What vitamin controls the levels of ions in the blood?
A.	Vitamin A
B.	Vitamin D
C.	Vitamin E
D.	Vitamin K
A

B. Vitamin D

77
Q 
77.	A B vitamin for energy metabolism. It can be ingested preformed or made in the body from tryptophan
A.	Niacin
B.	Biotin
C.	Riboflavin
D.	Thiamin
A

A. Niacin

78
Q 
78.	B vitamin involved in lipid metabolism and other types of metabolism
A.	Niacin
B.	Biotin
C.	Thiamin
D.	Riboflavin
A

B. Biotin

79
Q 
79.	Vitamin K is a fat-soluble vitamin necessary for the synthesis of proteins involved in blood clotting system by forming:
A.	Gamma-carboxyglutamate
B.	Gamma-carboxylic acid
C.	Gamma-carboxyglutamic acid
D.	Gamma-carboxyglutamin
A

A. Gamma-carboxyglutamate

80
Q 
80.	Supplements of Vitamin D is necessary among:
A.	Middle aged
B.	Newborn Infants
C.	Adolescents
D.	Pregnant Women
A

C. Adolescents

81
Q

determine whether the individual has Positive Nitrogen Balance (A), Normal Nitrogen Balance (B), or Negative Nitrogen Balance (C).

  1. Pregnant woman
A

Nitrogen Balance (A)

82
Q

determine whether the individual has Positive Nitrogen Balance (A), Normal Nitrogen Balance (B), or Negative Nitrogen Balance (C).

  1. 2-year old child –
A

Nitrogen Balance (A)

83
Q

determine whether the individual has Positive Nitrogen Balance (A), Normal Nitrogen Balance (B), or Negative Nitrogen Balance (C).

  1. Hyperthyroidism
A

Negative Nitrogen Balance (C)

84
Q

determine whether the individual has Positive Nitrogen Balance (A), Normal Nitrogen Balance (B), or Negative Nitrogen Balance (C).

  1. A healthy person who does not exercise
A

Normal Nitrogen Balance (B),

85
Q

determine whether the individual has Positive Nitrogen Balance (A), Normal Nitrogen Balance (B), or Negative Nitrogen Balance (C).

  1. An athletic person -
A

Nitrogen Balance (A)

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