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o 204 e1 Flashcards

1
Q 
1.	Upon injection of anesthetic in the pterygopalatine fissure, numbness can expected in this structure
A.	Supraorbital region
B.	Nasal cavity
C.	Lower lip
D.	Parotid region
A

B. Nasal cavity

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2
Q 
2.	On a surgery in the area of the submandibular gland, a nerve was injured. The resulting disability would be:
A.	Inability to close eyes
B.	Inability to smile
C.	Inability to close lips
D.	Sagging chin
A

D. Sagging chin

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3
Q 
3.	Injury to this nerve results to numbness to anterior tongue
A.	Chorda tympani
B.	Hypoglossal nerve
C.	Mandibular nerve
D.	Glossopharyngeal nerve
A

C. Mandibular nerve

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4
Q
  1. What is true of the otic ganglion?
    A. Located inferior to foramen ovale
    B. Site of parasympathetic synapse from cranial nerve VII to V
    C. Sends off parasympathetic innervations to the submandibular gland via lingual nerve
    D. Lesions to otic ganglion result in loss of hearing
A

A. Located inferior to foramen ovale

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5
Q 
5.	Which of the following structures encircles the middle meningeal artery?
A. Auriculotemporal nerve
B. Facial nerve
C. Pterygoid plexus
D. Nerve to mylohyoid
A

Auriculotemporal nerve

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6
Q 
6.	Landmark used in dissecting the facial nerve as it exit the temporal bone during a parotidectomy
A.	Tragal cartilage
B.	Styloid process
C.	Stylomastoid foramen
D.	Oval window
A

A. Tragal cartilage

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7
Q
  1. A patient presents with upper right facial weakness. What would be your consideration?
    A. Temporal bone
    B. Stroke with central nerve palsy
    C. Sequelae of botulinum injections
    D. Main trunk transection during parotidectomy
A

C. Sequelae of botulinum injections

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8
Q
  1. Injection of botulinum toxin to the right lateral pterygoid results in:
    A. Drifting of the mandible to the left during opening
    B. Drifting of the mandible to the right during opening
    C. Drifting of the mandible to the left during closing
    D. Drifting of mandible to the right during closing
A

B. Drifting of the mandible to the right during opening

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9
Q 
9.	External auditory canal pain is referred to irritation of the following nerves except:
A.	Maxillary
B.	Mandibular
C.	Vagus
D.	Glossopharyngeal
A

A. Maxillary

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following is true?
    A. Vibration of the vestibular membrane directly stimulates the inner and outer hair cells
    B. The tip of the cochlear duct is the helicotrema
    C. The saccule and the cochlear duct is connected by the ductus reuniens
    D. The cochlear duct is made up by the endoderm
A

C. The saccule and the cochlear duct is connected by the ductus reuniens

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11
Q
  1. True of the tensor tympani:
    A. Originated from the hypotympanum
    B. Comes out of the pyramidal eminence to insert to the malleus
    C. Innervated by the mandibular nerve
    D. Tenses the incudostapedial joints to prevent noise-induced hearing loss
A

C. Innervated by the mandibular nerve

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12
Q 
12.	Known as the secondary tympanic membrane:
A.	Oval window
B.	Round window 
C.	Utricle
D.	Pars flaccida
A

B. Round window

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13
Q 
13.	Otoacoustic emissions are made possible by the proper functioning of:
A.	Inner hair cells
B.	Outer hair cells
C.	Cochlear duct
D.	All of the above
A

B. Outer hair cells

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14
Q 
14.	Muscles for facial expressions are innervated by:
A.	CN I
B.	CN III
C.	CN V
D.	CN VII
E.	CN IX
A

D. CN VII

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15
Q 
15.	Which of the following separates the lips?
A.	Orbicularis oris
B.	Zygomatic major
C.	Buccinator
D.	Orbicularis oculi
E.	Platysma
A

B. Zygomatic major

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16
Q
  1. Which is true about submandibular glands?
    A. Secretion is predominantly serous
    B. Produces 20% of the total salivary secretions when unstimulated
    C. The gland is prone to siadentitis
    D. Smallest of the major salivary glands
    E. Not prone to sialothitis
A

A. Secretion is predominantly serous

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17
Q
  1. What is the correct sequence:
    i. release of neurotransmitters
    ii. excitation of the cell membrane of taste cells
    iii. interaction of tastants with the taste buds
    iv. excitation of cranial nerve
    A. i-iii-ii-iv
    B. ii-iii-iv-i
    C. iii-ii-i-iv
    D. iii-ii-iv-i
    E. ii-iv-iii-i
A

C. iii-ii-i-iv

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18
Q 
18.	Which of the following problems does not take place during oral phase of swallowing?
A.	Reflux
B.	Drooling
C.	Difficulty in chewing
D.	Extremely long tie to form bolus
E.	Difficulty in clearing the mouth
A

A. Reflux

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19
Q 
19.	Muscles of mastication are innervated by:
A.	CN I
B.	CN V
C.	CN VII
D.	CN IX
A

B. CN V

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20
Q 
20.	What is true of the parotid gland?
A.	Opens to the buccal mucosa of the 2nd molar of the mandible
B.	Drained by Wharton's duct
C.	Drained by duct of Rivinus
D.	Drained by Stensen's duct
A

D. Drained by Stensen’s duct

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21
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT true regarding decibels?
    A. Logarithmic
    B. Incorporates ratio
    C. Linear
    D. Relative measurement
    E. Encompasses different reference levels
A

C. Linear

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22
Q 
22.	What is the threshold of pain in terms of sound?
A.	0 dB-SPL
B.	45 dB-SPL
C.	100 dB-SPL
D.	130 dB-SPL
E.	200 dB-SPL
A

D. 130 dB-SPL

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23
Q 
23.	What is the basic measure for all acoustic measurements?
A.	Decibels (dB)
B.	Sound Pressure Level (SPL)
C.	Hearing Level (HL)
D.	Sensation Level (SL)
E.	Deafness Level (DL)
A

B. Sound Pressure Level (SPL)

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24
Q 
24.	What unit is used to measure frequency?
A.	Decibel
B.	Hertz
C.	Watts/m2
D.	Micropascal
E.	Dynes/cm2
A

B. Hertz

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25
Q 
25.	How long would you spend at a rock concert before experiencing noise-induced hearing loss?
A.	7 minutes
B.	12 minutes
C.	50 minutes 
D.	75 minutes
E.	120 minutes
A

A. 7 minutes

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26
Q 
26.	What part of the bony labyrinth encapsulates the saccule?
A.	Vestibule
B.	Semicircular canal
C.	Cochlea
D.	Utricle 
E.	Saccule
A

A. Vestibule

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27
Q 
27.	True of the endolymph
A.	Similar to the extracellular fluid
B.	Low K+
C.	Low Na+
D.	Similar to perilymph
A

C. Low Na+

28
Q 
28.	Which is not part of the vestibular nuclei?
A.	Superior nucleus
B.	Inferior nucleus
C.	Lateral nucleus
D.	Deiter's
E.	Scarpa’s
A

E. Scarpa’s

29
Q 
29.	A neurosurgeon wants to gain access to the cleft between the cerebral hemispheres. What could be used as guide as he/she proceeds with the craniostomy?
A.	Coronal suture
B.	Sagittal suture
C.	Lambdoid suture
D.	Metopic suture
A

B. Sagittal suture

30
Q 
30.	An ORL surgeon will perform a mastoidectomy for chronic otitis media. What is at risk of injury?
A.	CN V
B.	CN VI
C.	CN VII
D.	CN VIII
A

C. CN VII

31
Q 
31.	A neurosurgeon wants to do a radiofrequency rhizotomy which involves ablation of the mandibular division of the trigimenal nerve using electric current. What area must be exposed/accessed to complete this procedure?
A.	Infraorbital fissure
B.	Foramen rotundum
C.	Foramen ovale
D.	Foramen spinosum
A

C. Foramen ovale

32
Q 
32.	A 33 y/o female has a huge tumor involving the pituitary gland. Surgery is planned to excise the tumor. Which of the following is likely to be traversed if the sella will be accessed through the nose?
A.	Frontal sinus
B.	Sphenoid sinus
C.	Maxillary sinus
D.	Mastoid air cells
A

B. Sphenoid sinus

33
Q 
33.	A 6-month old infant has several episodes of loose stools over the past 3 days. He was severely dehydrated when he was brought to the hospital. Which of the following will be depressed and sunken during physical examination?
A.	Anterior fontanel
B.	Posterior fontanel
C.	Mastoid fontanel
D.	Sphenoid fontanel
A

A. Anterior fontanel

34
Q 
34.	During tonsillitis, which lymph node is enlarged?
A.	Jugulodigastric lymph node
B.	Submental lymph node
C.	Submandibular lymph node
D.	Inferior deep cervical lymph node
A

A. Jugulodigastric lymph node

35
Q 
35.	Arterial supply of the hard palate:
A.	Lingual artery
B.	Ascending pharyngeal artery
C.	Int1ernal maxillary artery
D.	NOTA
A

C. Int1ernal maxillary artery

36
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about the salivary glands is true?
    A. There are many accessory salivary glands located on the hard palate.
    B. The sublingual gland opens into a duct on the roof of the mouth.
    C. The sublingual gland is located in front of the submandibular gland.
    D. The sublingual gland is drained by Wharton’s duct.
A

A. There are many accessory salivary glands located on the hard palate.

37
Q 
37.	The venous plexus of the pharynx communicates with the pterygoid plexus to end in the:
A.	External Jugular Vein
B.	Internal Jugular Vein
C.	Vertebral –
D.	Cavernous sinus
A

D. Cavernous sinus

38
Q 
38.	The inferior constrictor muscle is the \_\_\_\_ covering of the pharynx
A.	Outer 
B.	Inner
C.	Inner middle
D.	Middle
A

A. Oute

39
Q 
39.	Level of cricoid:
A.	C5
B.	C6
C.	C7
D.	C8
A

B. C6

40
Q 
40.	Aryepigglotic is the the upper boundary of \_\_\_\_\_.
A.	Triangular membrane
B.	Quadrangular membrane
C.	Cricothyroid
D.	Conus elasticus
A

B. Quadrangular membrane

41
Q 
41.	What is the sensory supply of the mucous membrane around the entrance of the larynx?
A.	CN IX
B.	CN X, Internal laryngeal
C.	CN XI, Cranial
D.	Maxillary
A

B. CN X, Internal laryngeal

42
Q 
42.	Rotator muscles of the larynx:
A.	Aryepiglottis
B.	Thyroarytenoid
C.	Cricothyroid
D.	Vocalis
A

D. Vocalis

43
Q
  1. What is true about the pale appearance of the true vocal cords?
    A. Covered by stratified squamous epithelium
    B. Made up of tough fibrous ligament
    C. Has no true submucosa
    D. Made up of cartilage
A

A. Has no true submucosa

44
Q 
44.	What layer of the scalp serves as attachment for the muscle bellies of the occipitofrontalis and temporoparietalis?
A.	Connective tissue layer
B.	Pericranium
C.	Epicranial aponeurosis
D.	Loose areolar connective tissue
A

C. Epicranial aponeurosis

45
Q 
45.	The facial muscles are from:
A.	1st Pharyngeal arch
B.	2nd Pharyngeal arch
C.	3rd Pharyngeal arch
D.	4th Pharyngeal arch
A

B. 2nd Pharyngeal arch

46
Q 
46.	The infraorbital nerve enters the orbit on the the face through the infraorbital formen and supplies the:
A.	Lower eyelid and cheek
B.	Skin over temple
C.	Lower lip
D.	Auricle
A

A. Lower eyelid and cheek

47
Q 
47.	Facial paralysis (refer to image) is caused by damage to: 
A.	Central facial nerve, right
B.	Peripheral nerve, right
C.	Central facial nerve, left
D.	Peripheral facial nerve, left

https://docs.google.com/document/d/1xPGEvvii92XcfBpTed3OTl5oCZT26gSXFbJc2BBCUjc/edit?usp=sharing

A

D. Peripheral facial nerve, left

48
Q 
48.	The forehead and anterior part of the face drains to:
A.	Parotid lymph node
B.	Submandibular lymph node
C.	Submental lymph node
D.	All of the above
A

A. Parotid lymph node

49
Q 
49.	What muscle tenses the skin of the inferior face and neck?
A.	Depressor anguli oris
B.	Risorius
C.	Mentalis
D.	Platysma
A

D. Platysma

50
Q 
50.	What supplies the skin at the tip of the nose?
A.	CN V1
B.	CN V2
C.	CN V3
D.	Great Auricular Nerve
A

A. CN V1

51
Q 
51.	Which is the strongest side/bone of the orbital socket?
A.	Superior side (Orbital roof)
B.	Inferior (Orbital floor)
C.	Lateral 
D.	Medial
A

C. Lateral

52
Q 
52.	What is between the bulbular and palpebral conjunctiva?
A.	Sclera
B.	Conjuctival sac
C.	Palpebral fissure
D.	Orbital septum
A

B. Conjuctival sac

53
Q
  1. Which is responsible for the gentle closing of the eyelids?
    A. Orbital part of the orbicularis oculi
    B. Palpebral part of the orbucularis oculi
    C. Lacrimal part of the orbicularis oculi
    D. Levator palpebrae superioris
A

B. Palpebral part of the orbucularis oculi

54
Q 
54.	Innervated by cranial nerve III
A.	Medial rectus
B.	Lateral rectus
C.	Superior oblique
D.	All of the above
A

A. Medial rectus

55
Q 
55.	What nerve innervates the orbital region, orbit and eyeball?
A.	CN II
B.	CN V
C.	CN VI
D.	CN IV
A

B. CN V

56
Q 
56.	What muscles are associated with ptosis of the eye?
A.	Superior oblique muscle
B.	Lateral rectus muscle
C.	Levator palpebrae superioris
D.	Inferior oblique muscle
A

C. Levator palpebrae superioris

57
Q 
57.	What nerve does not work if the left eye does not constrict after shining light on the right eye?
A.	CN III
B.	CN II
C.	CN IV
D.	CN VI
A

A. CN III

58
Q 
58.	Which of the following innervates the tip of the nose?
A.	CN V1
B.	CN V2
C.	CN V3
D.	Greater auricular nerve
A

A. CN V1

59
Q
  1. Motion sickness is brought about by which of the following:
    A. Movement of the cerebrospinal fluid transmitting hydrostatic pressure in to the perilymph
    B. Movement of the otoliths in the macula
    C. Hyperstimulated vestibulocochlear reflex
    D. Misplaced otoliths into the semicircular canals
A

B. Movement of the otoliths in the macula

60
Q 
60.	A 9 year old boy is brought to the emergency room after falling from a tree house. On CT scan, he was found to have a frontotemporal epidural hematoma. Which of the following was most likely to have been injured?
A.	Bregma
B.	Pterion
C.	Asterion
D.	Basion
A

B. Pterion

61
Q 
61.	A 33 yr old female was involved in a car accident and hit the left side of her face. She was unable to move her entire left side of the face due to damage of her facial nerve. Her hearing was also absent in her left ear due to damage of her vestibulocochlear nerve. What bone is most likely damaged?
A.	Frontal
B.	Sphenoid
C.	Petrous 
D.	Occipital
A

C. Petrous

62
Q
  1. What is true about the tensor tympani?
    A. –
    B. –
    C. –
    D. Medially pulling the handle of the malleus tenses the membrane, preventing damage to the internal ear when exposed to loud sounds
A

D. Medially pulling the handle of the malleus tenses the membrane, preventing damage to the internal ear when exposed to loud sounds

63
Q 
63.	Clumsy extractionn of the third lower molar damage the:
A.	Lingual nerve
B.	Hypoglossal nerve
C.	Spinal accessory nerve
D.	Lesser palatine nerve
A

A. Lingual nerve

64
Q 
64.	What makes up the Circle of Waldeyer?
A.	Palatine tonsil
B.	Tubal tonsil
C.	Lingual tonsil
D.	All of the above
A

D. All of the above

65
Q 
65.	Which receptor organ orients the body during angular acceleration?
A.	Semicircular canals
B.	Saccule
C.	Cochlea
D.	Retina
A

A. Semicircular canals

66
Q
  1. Which nerve is affected in the photo:
    https: //docs.google.com/document/d/1xPGEvvii92XcfBpTed3OTl5oCZT26gSXFbJc2BBCUjc/edit?usp=sharing

A. CN III
B. CN IV
C. CN VI
D. None of the above

A

B. CN IV

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