Nutrition Care for Individuals and Groups: Topic A - screening & assessment Flashcards

1
Q

what is the nutrition care process

A

NCP is a standardized, consistent structure and framework used to provide nutrition care. this is different from standardized care, which infers that all patients receive the same cares

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

ADIME documentation

A

assess, diagnose, intervene, monitor and evaluate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

critical thinking in screening and assessment

A

critical thinking integrates facts, informed opinions, active listening and observations. it is a reasoning process where ideas are produced and evaluated. it includes the ability to conceptualize, think rationally, think creatively, be inquiring, and think autonomously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Data reviewed during assessment is reviewed when during NCP?

A

Data reviewed during assessment is reviewed during all steps of NCP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

nutrition screening

A

A. use of preliminary nutrition assessment techniques to identify people who are
malnourished or who are at risk for malnutrition
B. all health care team members can participate (not a part of the four step
process, but serves a supportive role); brief 5-10 minutes
C. review: client’s history, lab results, weight, physical signs
D. for screening to be effective, the mechanism must be accurate based on:
specificity (can it ID patients without a condition), sensitivity (can it ID those who
have the condition)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is cultural competence

A

Cultural competence is the ability to provide care to patients with diverse values,
beliefs and behaviors and tailor delivery to meet their social, cultural and linguistic
needs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The joint commission and nutrition risk

A

The Joint Commission requires that nutrition risk is
identified in hospitalized patients, but does not mandate a method of screening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

subjective global assessment screening tool

A

SGA - Subjective Global Assessment (history, intake, GI symptoms, functional
capacity, physical appearance, edema, weight change)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Mini Nutritional Assessment
screening tool

A

MNA - evaluates independence, medications,
number of full meals consumed each day, protein intake, fruits and
vegetables, fluid, mode of feeding); for people 65 years of age and older

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Nutrition Screening Initiative - screening tool

A

NSI - elderly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Geriatric Nutritional Risk Index - screening tool

A

GNRI - (serum albumin, weight changes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Malnutrition Screening Tool

A

MST - (acute hospitalized adult population) recent
weight loss, recent poor dietary intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Nutrition Risk Screening

A

NRS - (medical-surgical hospitalized) % weight loss,
BMI, intake, >70 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Malnutrition Universal Screening Tool

A

MUST - (BMI, unintentional weight loss,
effect of acute disease on intake for more than 5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Nutrition assessment of individuals - introduction/initiation

A
  1. initiated by referral/screening of individuals or groups for nutritional risk factors
  2. Assessment makes comparisons between data collected and reliable standards.
    It is an on-going, dynamic process that involves continual reassessment and
    analysis of patient/client/group needs. It provides the basis for the Nutrition
    Diagnosis.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

critical thinking skills needed for nutrition assessment include

A

a. Observe verbal/nonverbal cues that can guide effective interviewing methods
b. Determine appropriate data to collect
c. Select tools and procedures and apply in valid, reliable ways
d. Distinguish relevant from irrelevant, and important from unimportant data
e. Validate, organize and categorize the data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

components: review, cluster, identify - for nutrition assessment include

A

a. Review data for factors that affect nutritional and health status
b. Data is clustered for comparison with characteristics of a diagnosis:
food/nutrition related history, lab/medical tests, nutrition-focused physical
findings, anthropometrics, client history
c. These indicators are compared to identified standards and criteria for
interpretation and decision-making. Indicators are clearly defined markers that
can be observed and measured. They are also used to monitor and evaluate
progress towards nutrition outcomes. Nutrition care criteria are what
indicators are compared against.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

documentation of nutrition assessment

A

Documentation: date and time, pertinent data and comparison with standards;
patient’s perceptions, values and motivation related to problem; changes in
patient’s level of understanding, behaviors, outcomes; reason for discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Dietary intake assessment, analysis

A
  1. diet history - present patterns of eating. Do not ask leading questions.
  2. food record - food diary, record of everything eaten in a specific period of time
  3. 24 hour recall - mental recall of everything eaten in previous 24 hours.
    Quick tool to estimate a sample daily intake. Clinical setting.
    Underreporting and overreporting are concerns.
  4. food frequency lists - how often an item is consumed. Community setting.
    Quick way to determine intakes on large numbers of people
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Hamwi formula estimates desirable body weight

A

Frame
medium -
Women:
100 lbs for first 5’
add 5 lbs for each additional inch
subtract 5 lbs for each inch under 5’

Men
106 lbs for first 5’
add 6 lbs. for each additional inch
subtract 6 lbs or each inch under 5’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Hamwi formula estimates desirable body weight - small or large frame

A

small & large for women and men -
subtract 10%
add 10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

hamwi Amputations:

A

entire leg 16% of body weight, lower leg with foot 6%, entire arm 5%,
forearm with hand 2.3%.

Adjusted IBW = (100 - % amputation)/100 X IBW for original height

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

hamwi Spinal cord injury

A

quadriplegic reduce by 10-15% of table weight
paraplegic reduce by 5-10% table weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

% weight change -

A

stresses significance of weight change; assess nutritional risk

(1) usual weight - actual (current) weight / usual weight
X 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

significant weight loss

A

10% loss within 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

triceps skinfold thickness - TSF

A

(1) measures body fat reserves; measures calorie reserves
(2) standard: male 12.5mm; female 16.5 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

arm muscle area AMA

A

(1) measures skeletal muscle mass (somatic protein)
(2) to determine: use TSF and MAC (midarm circumference)
(3) standard: male 25.3cm; female 23.2 cm
(4) important to measure in growing children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

e. BMI body mass index - Quetelet index - compares weight to height

A

(1) weight in KG divided by height squared in meters; or weight in pounds
divided by height in inches squared X 703
(2) healthy adult 18.5 - 24.9 (healthy for most elderly 24-29), 25-29 overweight,
30 and above obese
(3) BMI for age charts starting at age two when accurate stature can be obtained

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

waist circumference

A

> 40 M, >35 F is independent risk factor for disease when
out of proportion to total body fat (with BMI of 25-34.9)
Waist circumference best for assessing risk. It predicts central adiposity
(lower torso around abdominal area)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

EAL recommends at annual visit calculate

A

adult BMI and waist circumference to
determine risk of CVD, Type 2 diabetes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

waist/ hip ratio (WHR)

A

(1) differentiates between android and gynoid obesity
(2) WHR of 1.0 or greater in men, 0.8 or greater in women is indicative of
android obesity and an increased risk for obesity-related diseases
(diabetes, hypertension)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

BIA bioelectrical impedance analysis

A

used at bedside to evaluate fat free mass
and total body water (usefulness in critical illness may be limited)
(1) must be well hydrated, no caffeine, alcohol or diuretics in the past 24 hours, no
exercise in the past 4-6 hours
(2) fever, electrolyte imbalance and extreme obesity may affect reliability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

NFPE Nutrition - focused physical exam - inspection

A

a. Inspection: visual assessment using sight, sense of smell and hearing to observe
textures, sizes, colors, shapes and sounds
(1) information obtained: obesity, cachexia, fluid status, skin integrity, wound
healing, feeding devices, jaundice, ascites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

assessment - hair -
thin, sparse, dull dry brittle
easily pluckable

A

vitamin C, protein deficiency, protein deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

assessment - eyes - pale, dry, poor vision

A

vitamin A, zinc or riboflavin deficiencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

assessment - lips - swollen, red, dry, cracked

A

riboflavin, pyridoxine, niacin deficiencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

assessment - Tongue - smooth, slick, purple, white coating

A

vitamin or iron deficiencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

assessment - Gums - sore, red, swollen, bleeding

A

vitamin C deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

assessment - Teeth -missing, loose, loss of enamel

A

calcium deficiency, poor intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

assessment - Skin - pale, dry, scaly

A

iron, folic acid, zinc deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

assessment - Nails - brittle, thin, spoon-shaped

A

iron or protein deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Palpation

A

gathering data via touch using palms and fingertips
information obtained: areas of tenderness, muscle rigidity, fluid retention or
pitting edema, skin integrity and moisture, body temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Auscultation

A

listening to bowel using stethoscope on the RLQ (right lower
quadrant which is the location of the ileocecal valve))
(1) normal bowel sounds are gurgling high-pitched sounds every 5-15 seconds.
(2) hypoactive bowel sounds, every 15-20 seconds, may indicate paralytic ileus
or peritonitis.
(3) hyperactive, continuous, high-pitched, tinkling sounds may indicate diarrhea or intestinal obstruction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Percussion

A

(not done by RD, but findings recorded in medical record).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Intake and output (I and O)

A

used to assess hydration status, measure fluid balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

serum albumin

A

3.5-5.0 g/dl visceral protein (blood and organs)
a. maintains colloidal osmotic pressure
b. hypoalbuminemia associated with edema, surgery
c. levels above normal range likely due to dehydration
d. long half-life, does not reflect current protein intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

serum transferrin

A

> 200 mg/di visceral protein (transports iron to bone marrow)
a. serum level controlled by iron storage pool; rises with iron deficiency
b. can be determined from TIBC - total iron binding capacity
c. not useful as measure of protein status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

TTHY transthyretin, PAB prealbumin

A

16 - 40mg/dl
a. short half-life; picks up changes in protein status quickly
b. during inflammation, liver synthesizes CRP at expense of PAB
c. limited usefulness in screening or assessment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

RBP retinol-binding protein

A

3-6mg/dl
a. circulates with prealbumin; shortest half-life (12 hours)
b. binds and transports retinal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Hct hematocrit

A

men 42-52%, women 36-48%, pregnant women 33%,
newborn 44-64 %
a. volume of packed cells in whole blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Hgb hemoglobin

A

men 14-18 gm/di, women 12-16 gm/di; pregnant ~11
a. iron-containing pigment of red blood cells
b. erythrocytes are produced in bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

serum ferritin

A

10-150ng/ml F 12-300ng/ml M
a. indicates size of iron storage pool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

serum creatinine

A

0.6-1.2 mg/di M, 0.5-1.1 F
a. related to muscle mass; measures somatic protein
b. may indicate renal disease, muscle wastage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

CHI creatinine height index

A

80% normal
a. ratio of creatinine excreted/ 24 hours to height
b. estimates lean body mass - somatic protein
c. 60-80% mild muscle depletion

55
Q

BUN blood urea nitrogen

A

10-20 mg/di
a. related to protein intake
b. indicator of renal disease
c. BUN: creatinine ratio normal 10-15:1

56
Q

urinary creatinine clearance

A

115 ± 20ml/minute
a. measures GFR - glomerular filtration, renal function
b. estimate includes body surface area (height and weight)

57
Q

TLC total lymphocyte count

A

> 2700 cells/cu mm
a. measures immunocompetency
b. moderate depletion 900-1800, severe depletion <900
c. decreased in protein-calorie malnutrition

58
Q

CRP C-reactive protein

A

marker of acute inflammatory stress
a. as it declines, indicates when nutritional therapy would be beneficial
b. when elevated CRP decreases, PAB increases

59
Q

FEP Free erythrocyte protoporphyrin

A

direct measure of toxic effects of lead
on heme synthesis (leading to anemia). Increased in lead poisoning. Lead and
calcium compete at plasma membrane for transport

60
Q

PT prothrombin time

A

11.0 - 12.5 seconds; 85-100% of normal
a. anticoagulants prolong PT
b. evaluates clotting adequacy; change in vitamin K intake will alter rate

61
Q

Hair analysis

A

not for nutritional assessment; useful in measuring intake of
toxic metals

62
Q

Assessment of energy requirements
1. based on activity factors and BEE

A

a. BEE X 1.2 sedentary
b. BEE X 1.3 active
c. BEE X 1.5 stressed

63
Q

Medication management - megestrol acetate

A

appetite stimulant

64
Q

Medication management - marinol

A

appetite stimulant

65
Q

Medication management - dextroamphetamine (Adderall)

A

appetite suppressant, anorexia, nausea, weight loss

66
Q

Medication management - orlistat

A

decreased fat absorption by binding lipase; vitamin/mineral supp.

67
Q

Medication management - methylphenidate (Ritalin)

A

anorexia, weight loss, nausea

68
Q

Medication management - statins

A

avoid grapefruit juice; decreased LDL, TG; increase HDL

69
Q

Medication management - chemotherapy

A

malabsorption

70
Q

Medication management - mineral oil, cholestyramine

A

decrease absorption of fat, fat-soluble vitamins

71
Q

Medication management - glucocorticoids, antibiotics

A

protein deficits

72
Q

Medication management - oral contraceptives

A

decrease folate, Bs, C

73
Q

Medication management - loop diuretics

A

deplete thiamin, potassium, magnesium, calcium, sodium

74
Q

Medication management - thiazide diuretics

A

decrease potassium and magnesium, absorb calcium

75
Q

Medication management - antibiotics

A

decrease vitamin K

76
Q

Medication management - corticosteroids

A

hyperglycemia, thin skin, hypertension, bone fracture

77
Q

Medication management - methotrexate

A

decrease folate

78
Q

Medication management - lithium carbonate
(antidepressant)

A

increased appetite, weight gain; Maintain consistent sodium and caffeine intake to stabilize levels. If sodium or caffeine are restricted, lithium excretion decreases, leading to toxicity

79
Q

Medication management - anticoagulant
(warfarin sodium)

A

antagonizes vitamin K (consistent intake essential); avoid
Ginkgo biloba extract (GBE), garlic, ginger (may increase
bleeding); avoid high dose vitamin A, E

80
Q

Medication management - propofol

A

administered in oil, consider fat calories, 1.1 cals/cc, check TG

81
Q

Medication management - phenobarbital

A

decreased folic acid, vitamins B12, B6, D, K

82
Q

Medication management - cyclosporine (immunosuppresant)

A

hyperlipidemia, hyperglycemia, hyperkalemia, hypertension

83
Q

Medication management - lsoniazid (treats TB)

A

(INH)
depletes pyridoxine, peripheral neuropathy, don’t take with
food, interferes with vitamin D, calcium, phosphorus

84
Q

Medication management - Elavil (antidepressant)

A

sedative effect, weight gain, increased appetite

85
Q

Medication management - vitamin B6 and protein

A

decrease effectiveness of L-dopa (levodopa) which controls
symptoms of Parkinson’s disease. Take drug in morning with
limited protein (competes with drug for absorption sites)

86
Q

Medication management - calcium

A

binds tetracycline

87
Q

Medication management - tyramine

A

hypertension if taken with MAOI (monoamine oxidase inhibitor)
1. Eliminate dopamine and restrict tyramine (monoamines). MAO inhibitors
interact releasing norepinephrine which elevates blood pressure. Restrict aged,
fermented, dried, pickled, smoked, spoiled foods.
2. Avoid hard, aged cheese (cheddar, Swiss), sauerkraut, some sausages, luncheon
meats, tofu, miso, Chianti wine, tomatoes. Limit sour cream, yogurt, buttermilk.
3. OK: cottage cheese, cream cheese. Good advice: buy, cook, eat fresh foods
curcumin (turmeric) may reduce inflammation, antioxidant, in curry powder

87
Q

Economic/social factors

A

Factors that influence food choices: income, price of food, time spent on food activities
How easily can they get foods from stores nearby?
Do their cultural practices support the kind of changes they need to make?
Are food sources near their workplace supportive of healthy eating?
What media do they watch or use? What are their sources of nutrition and food
information?

88
Q

Nutrition assessment of populations and community needs assessment

A

A. Determine purpose and goals of assessment. Obtain and assess community and
group nutrition status indicators.
1. Obtain overview to determine whether nutritional resources are adequate,
what groups are potentially at high nutritional risk, how well health needs are
being met by existing programs.
2. Identify target population and nutritional problem of concern.
3. Set parameters of the assessment, collect data, analyze and interpret data,
share findings and set priorities.
4. Define goals and objectives, develop plans, define management system
(personnel, staff, record-keeping).
5. HRA Health Risk Appraisal - survey categorizing a populations’ general health
status (used in worksites, government agencies as a health education or
screening tool)
a. consists of questionnaire, calculations that predict risk of disease,
educational message to the participant

89
Q

sources of assessment information

A

a. demographic - population by age, ethnic groups, sex, birth rates, deaths,
socioeconomic stratification (census data, housing statistics)

90
Q

morbidity (disease) rates, mortality (death) rates

A

a. Infant mortality rate: infant deaths under 1 year of age, expressed as the
number of deaths per 1000 live births

91
Q

incidence

A

number of NEW cases of a disease over a period of time /
total number of people at risk
X 100,000

92
Q

prevalence

A

total number of people with a disease during a period of time /
average number of people
X 100,000

93
Q

Food security

A

is the access by all people at all times to sufficient food for an
active and healthy life. It is the ready availability of nutritionally adequate and
safe foods and an assured ability to acquire them in a socially acceptable
manner (without resorting to emergency food programs, stealing, scavenging).

94
Q

Community Food Security Initiative

A

a. development of sustainable, community-based strategies to ensure that all
have access to culturally acceptable, nutritionally adequate food at all times.
b. strategies that strengthen local food systems:
(1) farmer’s markets - increased access to fresh produce
(2) food recovery and gleaning programs - collect excess wholesome foods
that would otherwise be thrown away (from farms, packing houses,
caterers, cafeterias, restaurants) for delivery to hungry people
(3) PPFPs - Prepared and Perishable Food Programs - nonprofit programs
that link sources of unused, cooked and fresh foods with social service
agencies that serve the hungry

94
Q

Food insecurity

A

is prevalent among emergency food recipients. It affects all
ages, ethnicities and locations. It Impacts the working poor. It extends to
government food assistance recipients, and those with poor health status

95
Q

Nutrition survey

A
  1. nutrition survey - examination of a population group at a particular point of time
    a. considered a cross-sectional exam; pin-points problems
    b. determines prevalence of condition or characteristic at a specific time
    c. WIG PC and NCCOR National Collaborative on Childhood Obesity Research
96
Q

nutritional surveillance - continuous collection of data

A

a. identifies problem, sets baseline, sets priorities, detects changes in trends
b. use height, weight, hematocrit, hemoglobin, serum cholesterol
c. on-going system linked to active health program: WIC, CDC (Center for
Disease Control) EPSDT - Early Periodic Screening, Diagnosis, Treatment
d. data identifies needs and kind of intervention needed

96
Q

NSI Nutrition Screening Initiative

A
  • promote nutrition and improve nutritional
    care for the elderly to identify nutritional problems early
97
Q

NSI Nutrition Screening Initiative - DETERMINE checklist

A

identifies factors placing people at nutritional risk
- increases awareness of factors that influence nutritional health
- disease, tooth loss, economic hardship, reduced social contact, multiple
medications, involuntary weight loss/gain, needs assistance in self-care,
elder years above age 80

98
Q

NSI Nutrition Screening Initiative - LEVEL I screen

A

identifies those who need more comprehensive assessments

99
Q

NSI Nutrition Screening Initiative - LEVEL II screen

A

provides more specific diagnostic info on nutritional status

100
Q

focus group

A

a. 5 - 12 people brought together to talk about concerns, beliefs, problems
b. obtain advice, insights and information; contributes attitudinal data

101
Q

NNMRRP National Nutrition Monitoring and Related Research Program

A

a. includes all data collection and analysis activities of the federal government
related to measuring the health and nutritional status, food consumption,
attitudes about diet and health
b. jointly run by USDHHS and USDA

102
Q

PedNSS Pediatric Nutrition Surveillance System

A

USDHHS
a. low income, high risk children, birth - 17 years, emphasis on birth-5 years
b. height, weight, birth-weight, hematocrit, hemoglobin, cholesterol, breast-feeding
c. monitors growth and nutritional status, infant-feeding practices

103
Q

PNSS Pregnancy Nutrition Surveillance System

A

USDHHS
a. low income, high risk pregnant women
b. maternal weight gain, anemia, pregnancy behavioral risk-factors (smoking,
alcohol), birth-weight, counts # of women who breast-feed
c. identify and reduce pregnancy-related health risks

104
Q

NHANES - National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey

A

CDC
a. ongoing (repeated)survey to obtain info on health of American people
b. evaluates clinical, chemical (hemoglobin, hematocrit, cholesterol), anthropometric,
nutritional data (24 hour recall, food frequency lists)
c. NHANES Ill - oversampling of adults >=65 with NO upper age limit
d. WWEIA What We Eat in America - dietary intake component of NHANES
(also known as National Food and Nutrition Survey NFNS)
(1) two days of 24 hour dietary recall data with times of eating occasions and
sources of foods eaten way from home
(2) USDA conducts over-sampling of adults >=60, African Americans, Hispanics

105
Q

USDA Nationwide Food Consumption Surveys (NFCS)

A

a. to obtain info on food intake of individuals and total households from entire US
b. evaluates 7 nutrients - protein, calcium, iron, thiamin, riboflavin, vitamins C, A
c. diets rated good if intakes equaled or surpassed RDA; rated poor if less than
2/3 of RDA for 1 or more nutrients

106
Q

BRFSS Behavioral Risk Factor Surveillance System

A

USDHHS
a. adults 18 years and older residing in households with telephones
b. telephone interviews collect info on height, weight, smoking, alcohol use,
food frequency for fat, fruits and vegetables

107
Q

YRBSS Youth Risk Behavior Surveillance System

A

USDHHS
a. Grades 9-12. Smoking, alcohol use, weight control, exercise, eating habits
b. prevalence of health risk behaviors among young people

108
Q

FSANS Food Safety and Nutrition Survey

A

FDA
a. assess consumers’ awareness, knowledge, understanding and reported behaviors
related to food safety and nutrition-related topics
b. help to make better informed regulatory, policy, education decisions to promote
and protect public health

109
Q

Temporary Assistance for Needy Families

A

TANF - a. states determine the eligibility and the benefits and services provided
b. helps needy families achieve self-sufficiency, time-limited, helps foster
economic security and stability
c. grants funds to states

110
Q

USDA Commodity Food Donation/ Distribution Program

A

a. provides foods to help meet nutritional needs of children and adults and strengthens agricultural market for products produced by American farmers
b. food given to School Lunch, elderly feeding, supplemental food programs

111
Q

CSFP Commodity Supplemental Food Program

A

(1) administered by state health agencies
(2) monthly commodity canned or packaged foods
(3) improve health of low-income elderly at least 60 years of age
(4) states may require that participants be at nutritional risk

112
Q

The Emergency Food Assistance Program

A

TEFAP
(1) quarterly distributions of commodity foods by local, public or private
nonprofit agencies, food banks, soup kitchens, homeless shelters
(2) supplements diets of low-income households, short term hunger relief

113
Q

National School Lunch Program USDA Food and Nutrition Service (FNS)

A

NSLP
a. entitlement program to improve nutrition of children, especially from low
income families; utilize surplus production of foods
b. cash grants and food donations; dollars reimburse schools on basis of
numbers of meals served
c. implements the Dietary Guidelines into the Lunch and Breakfast Programs
d. lunch must provide on average over each school week: 1 /3 of the
recommended intake for protein, vitamins A and C, iron, calcium
e. grades 9-12: 2 ounces meat serving; nuts must be combined and only used
for half the requirement.
f. graham flour is considered whole grain
g. K through 5: ¾ cup vegetables is one serving
h. 100% full-strength fruit juice may be used as ½ of weekly servings of fruit
i. Team Nutrition implements School Meals Initiatives for Healthy Children
(1) motivate child to make healthy choices; helps schools meet Guidelines
(2) provides recipes, training, support to child nutrition professionals

114
Q

NSBP National School Breakfast Program - USDA

A

NSBP
a. entitlement program, meals must meet federal Dietary Guidelines
b. breakfast must provide on average over each school week: 1/4 daily
recommended levels for protein, calcium, iron, vitamin A, vitamin C

115
Q

Afterschool Snack Programs - USDA;

A

ASP
provides healthy snacks
a. cash subsidies for each snack served, same eligibility bases as NSLP

116
Q

Special Milk Program USDA

A

SMP
a. provides milk to children in schools and childcare institutions who do not
participate in other Federal meal service programs
b. reimburses schools for milk served

117
Q

Summer Food Service Program USDA School Lunch

A

SFSP
a. entitlement program; purpose is to initiate, maintain or expand foodservice
programs to children and teens in low-income areas when school is out
b. reimburses providers for meals served at a central site, 18 and younger
c. administered by FNS, state educational agencies, public or private nonprofit
residential summer camps

118
Q

Child and Adult Care Food Program USDA

A

CACFP
a. supports public and non-profit food service programs for family day care centers, neighborhood houses, homeless shelters, nonresidential adult daycare centers
b. reimburses operators for meal costs, provides commodity foods and nutrition education materials
c. meals must meet guidelines; must offer free or reduced-price to eligible
d. eligibility standards same as NSLP (1/3)

119
Q

Fresh Fruit and Vegetable Program USDA

A

FFVP
a. introduces children to fresh fruits and vegetables; help develop eating habits
that improve health, prevent obesity and subsequent chronic disease
b. free to children at eligible elementary schools who operate the NSLP

120
Q

WIC Special Supplemental Nutrition Program for Women, Infants, and Children
USDA

A

a. for pregnant, postpartum, breast-feeding women; infants and children up to 5
b. provides food for low income mothers at nutritional risk (abnormal weight gain,
history of high risk, LBW, underweight, overweight, anemia)
c. risk: weight, height, head circumference in infants, hemoglobin, hematocrit
d. provides food, nutrition education, referrals to other agencies
e. health exam is REQUIRED
f. must meet income standards, be at nutritional risk, and in need of foods offered
g. foods provided included: iron-fortified formula, cereal, milk, cheese, fruit juice
h. not an entitlement program: cap on the amount of federal dollars allocated
i. priorities: pregnant and breast-feeding women, infants up to 1 year
j. WIC FMNP Farmers’ Market Nutrition Program: coupons to purchase fresh,
locally grown foods at farmers’ markets
k. EBT electronic benefits transfer card

121
Q

EFNEP Expanded Food and Nutrition Education Program USDA

A

EFNEP
a. provides grants to universities that assist in community development
b. trains nutrition aides to educate the public
c. works with small groups; teaches skills needed to obtain a healthy diet (how to
budget, meal planning, shop, cook)
d. does not provide food

122
Q

Maternal and Child Health Block Grant USDHHS

A

a. under Title V of the Social Security Act
b. fosters public health nutrition programs at the state and local levels
c. provides training, consultation, funding
d. women of child-bearing age, infants, children; state eligibility requirements

123
Q

Healthy Start USDHHS

A

a. reduce infant mortality, improve health of low-income women, infants,
children, families

124
Q

Nutrition Services Incentive Program AoA Administration on Aging

A

NSIP
developed services to foster independent living; cash and commodities to state agencies

125
Q

Older Americans Act Nutrition Program (formerly ENP Elderly Nutrition
Program) USDHHS Title Ill

A

OAA
(1) one hot meal each day, 5 days/week, provide 1/3 recommended intake
(2) eligibility: all aged 60 and older plus spouse, regardless of income
(3) Congregate Meals - ambulatory; transportation essential for rural elderly
(4) Home delivered meals - Meals on Wheels - must be homebound
(5) counseling, nutrition education, referrals, social interaction

126
Q

SNAP Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program USDA

A

a. largest food assistance program: entitlement
b. assist low income with monthly benefits; net income must be at or below
certain % of poverty level; income limits vary by household size and are
adjusted to the cost of living. Nutritional risk NOT a consideration.
c. designed to increase their purchasing power; not for non-food items
d. figures are adjusted to reflect cost of food in Thrifty Food Plan for June of
preceding year - least costly of USDA four food plans
e. SNAP nutrition education program: provided to program participants
f. EBT electronic benefits transfer card

127
Q

Headstart USDHHS

A

a. helps low income children; ages 3 through 5
b. introduces new foods, teaches good food habits
c. child’s participation in food activities is important

128
Q

NETP Nutrition Education and Training Program USDA

A

NETP
a. amendment to School Lunch Act
b. provides nutrition education training to teachers and school foodservice personnel

129
Q

Senior Farmers’ Market Nutrition Program USDA

A

SFMNP
a. cash grants to states to provide low-income seniors(~ 60 years) with coupons to
be exchanged for eligible foods at farmers’ markets, roadside stands, community
supported agriculture programs (CSA)
b. fresh, nutritious, unprepared fruits, vegetables, herbs and honey
c. may be limited to specific and locally grown foods
d. nutrition education and information are provided (how to select, store, prepare)

130
Q

Non-governmental agencies
a. Feeding America is the largest

A

domestic hunger relief organization in the US
(food banks, shelters, soup kitchens)

131
Q

International agencies
a. FAO - Food and Agricultural Organization

A

raising world- wide levels of
nutrition by increasing efficiency of production and distribution of foods