Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

RDN Exam > Management of Food and Nutrition Programs and Services - Domain III > Flashcards

Management of Food and Nutrition Programs and Services - Domain III Flashcards

1
Q

planning phase of management

A

basic function of management
- objectives
- policies
- procedures
- time span
- emergency preparedness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

organizing and staffing

A

identify tasks and activities, divide tasks into positions, establish relationships among all other functions of management
- organizational chart
- chain of command
- span of control
- staffing patterns
- work schedules
- FTE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

FTE/day

A

labor hours worked/day / 8 hr normal work load

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

FTE/week

A

labor hours worked/week / 40 hr normal work load

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

FTE/year

A

labor hours worked that year / 2080

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

absolute FTE

A

min number of employees needed to staff the facility; counts productive hours (hours actually worked)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

adjusted FTE

A

also takes into account the benefit days and days off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

relief workers

A

approx 1.55 employees are necessary for everyday
0.55 (129/236)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

inputs (resources)

A

labor, money, materials, facilities, energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

outputs (units of service)

A

meal, patient days, consults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

meals per labor hour

A

meal produced / # hours worked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

work simplification - motion economy

A

reduce motions and time required
use shortest and straightest routes to move materials.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

work simplification - occurrence sampling

A

observe random samples (intermittent observations) to determine percentages of time working or idle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

work simplification - pathway chart or flow diagram

A

scale drawing showing path of a worker during a process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

work simplification - operation charts

A

movement of hands; reduces transportation and re-plan work areas. use both hands simulataneously and effectively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

work simplification - process charts

A

steps involved in process using symbols

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

work simplification - cross charts

A

efficiency of equipment placement, studies work motions, shows number of movements between pieces of equipment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

directing

A

coordination links activities of various departments within the organization
delegation is the distribution of work to qualified people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

communication

A

transmitting and receiving information to bring about a desired action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

downward communication

A

from Dept head through the ranks of workers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

upward communication

A

from works up to the Dept head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

horizontal communication

A

between depts or between production and service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

diagonal communication

A

minimizes time and effort expended in org

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

informal channel (grapevine)

A

meets social needs of group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

maslow’s hierarchy of needs

A

determinants of behavior, motivated by the desire to satisfy specific needs
basic needs
when the basic needs are met, then the high needs become motivators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

maslow’s hierarchy of needs - physiological (survival needs)

A

food, clothing, shelter
- pay, benefits, working conditions, schedule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

maslow’s hierarchy of needs - security and safety

A

insurance, retirement plans, job security

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

maslow’s hierarchy of needs - social

A

belonging, acceptance, affiliation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

maslow’s hierarchy of needs - self-esteem

A

job title, praise, rewards, promotions, recognition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

maslow’s hierarchy of needs - self-realization

A

realizing your potential growth using creative talents; advanced training, job enrichment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Herzberg’s two-factor theory

A
  • motivation and maintenance approach
    maintenance hygiene factors
    motivators call forth energy and enthusiasm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Herzberg’s two-factor theory - maintenance hygiene factors

A

if present and perceived as good…satisfiers
if lacking or perceived as negative, dissatisfiers will interfere with work
do not produce motivation, but can prevent motivation from occurring

fair wage, conditions (working), retirement benefit, insurance, supervision, interpersonal relationships on the job, schedule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Herzberg’s two-factor theory - motivators

A

job enrichment
achievement, personal accomplishment, recognition, responsibility, participation in decision-making, opportunity to growth and advance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

McClelland’s theory

A

suggests that all people have three needs
- achievement - motive is a desire to do something better or more efficiently
- power - enjoy competition and seek confrontation
- affiliation - desire to be liked by others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

MacGregor theory X & Y

A

attitude of the manger toward employees has an impact on job performance
theory X - people inherently dislike work and will avoid it if possible, authoriarian, work-centered; workers prefer to be controlled and directed by pressure; negative, autocratic
theory Y - work as a natural as play or rest; management should arrange conditions so workers can achieve goals by directing own efforts, positive, participative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Hawthorne studies, Elton Mayo

A
  • if you involve people in the process, they become more productive
  • productivity due to: employees were given special attention, were involved in an interesting experience, and were well-treated by supervisors
  • placebo effect (special attention improves behavior)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

expectancy theory - beer, vroom

A
  • rewards serve as motivators only under certain circumstances
  • employees must believe that effective performance leads to certain rewards
  • employees must feel that rewards offered are attractive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

path goal theory

A

focuses on leader’s effect on employee’s motivation to perform. motivation to behave in a particular manner is the result of an expectation that a behavior will result in a particular goal and how strongly a person desires the goal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

leadership theories - autocratic

A

demands obedience, most control, full responsibility, crisis control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

leadership theories - consultative

A

asks for input, but makes major decisions alone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

leadership theories - bureaucratic

A

by the book, follows procedures to the letter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

leadership theories - participative

A

emerging trend in management. encourage workers to participate in decision-making. uses quality circles: small group of employees who meet regularly to identify and solve problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

leadership theories - democratic

A

guides and encourages the group to make decisions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

leadership theories - free rein (laissez-faire)

A

least control, allows group to make decisions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Likert - management of conflict
exploitive, autocratic

A

job-centered, makes all decisions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Likert - management of conflict
benevolent, autocratic

A

job-centered, minor decisions made by workers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Likert - management of conflict
consultative

A

employee-centered, gain some confidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Likert - management of conflict
participative

A

employee-centered, trust and responsibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

leadership grid - blake and mouton

A

plot’s leader’s concern for people (employees) vs. their concern for production
- country club management
- team management
- middle of the road management
- impoverished management
- autocratic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

leadership continuum - tanenbaum and schmidt

A
  • developed continuum or range of possible leadership behaviors. each type of beahvior is related to the degree of authority used by the manager and the amount of freedom available to subordinates in reaching decisions
  • tells decision, sells decision, discusses decision, asks for input on decision, collaborates on decision, delegates responsibility for decision
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

contingency approach - fiedler

A

in both highly favorable and highly unfavorable situations, a task-oriented leader is more effective.
in moderately favorable situations, a relationship-oriented leader tends to be more effective because cooperation is more successful than task-oriented leadership

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

leadership effectiveness model: hersey, blanchard, johnson

A

readiness of followers and recommended leadership styles to use for each. readiness - desire for achievement, willing and able to accept responsibility, skills relevant to task
- low readiness: tell
- low to mod readiness - sell
- mod to high readiness - participate
- high readiness - delegate
* how you lead depends on who you are leading and their ability to follow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

transactional vs. transformational leadership

A

how leaders and followers influence each other
- transactional leader - clarifies roles and responsibilities; uses rewars and punishments to achieve goals (autocratic)
transformational - agents of changes (participative)
- inspire followers to becmoe motivated to work towards organizational goals rather than personal gain; builds on extends transactional leadership; cultivation of employee acceptance of the group mission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

management - traditional or classical

A

formal structure that organizes and administers the work activities
coordination is main responsibility of management
focus on tasks, structure, authority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

management - traditional or classical - scalar principle

A

authority and responsibility flow in a direct line vertically from the highest to lowerest echelons: clear and unbroken lines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

management - traditional or classical - unity of command

A

each is accountable to only one superior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

management - human relations (behavioral) theory

A

uses behavioral sciences, workers exist in social groups
employee partcipation in decision-making is essential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

theory Z (ouchi)

A

the value of the company is the people
everyone who will be affected by a decision is involved in making the decision (consensus decision-making)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

systems approach

A

system is an organized whole composed of interdependent parts called subsytems (classified according to their purpose: procurement, production, distribution and service, safety and sanitation)s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

subsystem

A

complete system within itself that is part of a larger system (foodservice) is a subsystem of the hospital, production is a subsystem of the foodservice department)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

systems - interdependency of parts

A

each part affects performance of other parts leading to integration and synergy. view as a whole, not as isolated parts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

systems - integration

A

parts are blended together into a unified whole (which leads to…)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

systems - synergy

A

units working together may have greater impact than each operating separately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

systems - dynamic equilibrium

A

steady state, continuous response and adaptation to environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

systems - equifinality

A

same or similar output can be achieved by using different inputs or by varying the transformation process (various alternatives may be used to achieve similar results)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

systems - permeability of boundaries

A

allows system to be affected by changing environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

systems - interface

A

where two systems or subsytems come in contact with each other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

scientific management - Taylor

A

work centered - workers must work at fastest pace possible and at max efficiency, systematic approach ot improving worker effieincy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

management by objectives (MBO) - Drucker

A

type of democratic management that provides control from within
establish performance goals and objectives with employees
participative leadership

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

controlling/evaluating

A

measure present performance against standard performance
- determine whether goals have been reached
- shows strengths and weaknesses, solves problems
- establish qualitative and quantitative standards (what is expected to happen)
- measure performance
- compare to standard
- take corrective actions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

informational roles

A

monitor, disseminator, spokesman

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

informational - monitor

A

constantly searching for information to become more effective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

informational - disseminator

A

transmits info to subordinates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

informational - spokesman

A

transmits info to people inside and outside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

interpersonal roles

A

leader, liaison, figurehead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

interpersonal - leader

A

responsible for work of the staff, hiring, training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

interpersonal - liaison

A

dealing with those inside and outside the org

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

decisional roles

A

negotiator, entrepreneur, resource allocator, disturbance handler

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

decisional steps in problem solving

A

recognize and analyze problem, determine workable solutions, gather data, choose solutions, take action, follow up the action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

nominal group technique

A
  • Delbecq
  • generate innovate, creative ideas
  • has authoritative leader, controlled interactions
  • silent generation of ideas by participants
  • round robin reporting
  • group ranks items in priority order; vote for final decision
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Delphi technique

A
  • consensus of experts
  • designed to probe expert minds in a series of written interviews from which some consensus is sought
  • participants do not meet
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

cause and effect fish diagram

A

what influences the outcome?
what are the causes of the effects (results) you are seeking?
technique to increase worker involvement in decision-making
- causes: interesting topic, knowledgeable speaker, interested attendees
- effects - sound info, pleasant experience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

pareto analysis, bar chart

A

illustrates the relative importance of problems
- work on the tallest bar or problem that occurs more frequently
- most effects have relatively few causes
80-20 rule: 80% of a given outcome results from 20% of an input
(80% of sales come from 20% of customers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

queue

A
  • queuing theory
  • develops the relationships involved in waiting in line
  • used in analyzing flow of customers in a cafeteria - balance cost of waiting lines with the cost of preventing waiting lines through increased service
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

traits of leadership - reward power

A

ability to reward another for carrying out an order, give incentives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

traits of leadership - coercive power

A

negative side of reward power, ineffective in motivating behavior change, may create resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

traits of leadership - position (legitimate) power

A

subordinate acknowledges that the influencer has the right to exert influence due to position (job title)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

traits of leadership - expert power

A

belief that influencer has some relevant expertise that the subordinate does not; provides credibility

89
Q

traits of leadership - referent power

A
  • based on the desire to identify with or imitate the influencer, how well you are liked
90
Q

expert and legitimate powers

A

are important for compliance

91
Q

expert and referent powers

A

are related to subordinates’ performance and satisfaction

92
Q

unemployment comp

A

insurance against loss of income
must be employed for specific time, able and willing to work
each state has own laws that define benefits in accordance with minimum federal standards

93
Q

workman’s compensation

A
  • administered by state
  • insurance covering employers’ liability for the costs of any accident incurred by an employee in connection with their job
  • must furnish a safe place to work, competent, supervision, instructions
94
Q

national labor relations act

A

wagner act
- guaranteed right to organize and join labor unions
- gave union the right to be the bargaining agent
- created the national labor relations board - NLRB

95
Q

taft hartley labor act

A

labor Management Relations act
- balanced powers of labor and management
- outlawed the closed shop; limited union shop to one year
- specified unfair labor practices of the union

96
Q

landrum-griffin, labor management reporting and disclosure act

A
  • bill of rights for union members; regulates internal union affairs
97
Q

civil rights act

A
  • prevents discrimination on basis of race, color, national origin; prohibits sexual harassment
  • overseen by the EEOC
98
Q

equal employment opportunity act

A

prevents discrimination in employment based on race, color, religion, sex, national origin, political affiliation, overseen by EEOC

99
Q

fair labor standards act

A
  • may be called minimum wage or wage hour law; set min wage
  • for overtime work (over 40 hrs in 1 week) must pay time and one-half
  • amendment - equal pay act - prohibits discrimination on basis of sex
  • donated (tolerated) time - compensable - must be paid
  • child labor laws regulate owrk hours and duties of children
  • in food service, students can handle and clean cutters and slicers only if enrolled in food-related programs
  • occupations exempt from min wage and overtime requirements: executive, administrative, professional, outside salespersons
100
Q

age discrimination in employment act

A

prevents discrimination due to age

101
Q

FMLA

A

family and medical leave act
- applies to public agencies and private agencies employing >50 workers
- up to 12 workweeks of UNPAID job protected leave during any 1 months for: birth or placement of a child for adoption, to care for an immediate family member, or medical leave for a serious health condition
- when you return you are guaranteed an equal job, but NOT the same job

102
Q

Americans with disabilities act

A
  • covers employers with 15 or more employees
  • must provide “reasonable accommodations” - remove barriers, have wide aisle (36”) and doors (32”); install ramps, lower shelves and phones, rearrange tables and chairs, flashing alarm lights
103
Q

HIPAA

A

health insurance portability and accountability act
- allows employees to transfer coverage of existing illness to a new employer’s insurance plan

104
Q

social security act

A

insurance program to protect employees against wage loss from retirement, unemployment or diasability

105
Q

NPI

A

national provider identifier
10-digit identification number for providers and practitioners of health care services. used in standard transactions, such as in coordination of benefits between health plans, in healthcare claims, medical records

106
Q

NCQA

A

national committee for quality assurance
credentialing is the process used to assess and verify the qualifications of a healthcare provider. many insurance companies require RDNs to become credentialed in order to provide services for their members and in order to pay claims

107
Q

CAQH ProView

A

is an online credentialing portal that a provider can elect to share with multiple health plans or payer orgs. it eliminates the need for multiple insurance credentialing submissions

108
Q

licensure

A

a state agency issues a license to individuals who meet specified qualifications to practice a particular profession. licensing statutes for dietetics and nutrition always include a title protection provision, which is designed to prevent unlicensed individuals from holding themselves out to the public as Dietitians.

109
Q

check off

A

deduction of union dues from pay

110
Q

union shop

A

must join union after being hired

111
Q

open shop

A

can join union or not

112
Q

closed shop

A

must be member of union first before hiring

113
Q

union and closed shops are

A

illegal in public employment

114
Q

agency shop

A

all workers must pay agency fee, but not required to join union

115
Q

collective bargaining

A
  1. bargaining between union steward and management
  2. if that fails: mediation - neutral person helps settle differences; decision not binding
  3. if that fails: arbitration - hearing to dissolve a dispute during an impasse; decision is usually binding. FINAL step in bargaining
116
Q

unions can negotiate

A

working conditions, vacations, and holidays, but not personnel requirements or strategic initiatives

117
Q

job analysis

A

studies all aspects job, done by worker and their supervisor
- conducted first to collect information for job description

118
Q

job description

A

reflects required skills and responsibilities
- matches applicants to job, orientation and training, employee appraisal

119
Q

job specification

A

duties involved, conditions, qualifications (education, experience); written for each job
- used in selection and placement of employees (hiring)
- does not have detailed info as to what to do or time involved

120
Q

fair employment practice law

A

adopted by states - makes it illegal to ask about a candidate’s race, religion, sex, national origin, age, marital status, or if they have children (after hire, can ask). check with personal dept regarding restrictions

121
Q

benefits - statutory

A

payment required by law to ensure income in event of unemployment, injury or death

122
Q

benefits - compensatory

A

benefits or pay for time not worked

123
Q

benefits - supplementary

A

life and health insurance

124
Q

disciplinary action

A

steps taken to correct undesirable behavior
1. oral warning
2. written warning
3. suspension
4. dismissal

125
Q

obstacles to effective appraisals - halo effect

A

judge on most noticeable positive trait

126
Q

obstacles to effective appraisals - leniency of error

A

rate everyone higher than they deserve

127
Q

obstacles to effective appraisals - error of central tendency

A

rate everyone as average

128
Q

labor turnover rate

A

high labor turnover rates result in higher labor costs (replacement, hiring, training).
goal: low turnover rate

129
Q

Cultural Awareness:

A

Involves recognizing &
acknowledging one’s own cultural biases, values,
beliefs, & their impact on healthcare practices

130
Q

Cultural Skill:

A

Involves the ability to conduct a
cultural assessment & effectively communicate with
individuals from different cultural backgrounds using
culturally appropriate communication techniques

131
Q

Cultural Knowledge:

A

Understanding of different
cultural practices, beliefs, & values of diverse
populations; Involves seeking information about
specific cultural groups, including their health beliefs,
communication styles, & healthcare practices

132
Q

Cultural Encounters:

A

Engaging in direct cultural
interactions with diverse individuals & communities

133
Q

Cultural Desire:

A

Motivation & commitment to
providing culturally competent care; Involves
developing a genuine interest and respect for
diverse cultures

134
Q

cultural humility

A

involves the ability to maintain an interpersonal stance that is other-oriented (or open to the other) in relation to aspects of cultural identify that are most important to the client/employee

135
Q

cultural competence

A

is the ability of systems to provide care to pts with diverse values, beliefs and behaviors, including the tailoring of health care delivery to meet pt’s social, cultural, and linguistic needs

136
Q

cultural sensitivity

A

is being aware of similarities and differences among various cultures as you engage in active communication with other communities

137
Q

operating budget

A

forecast of revenues, expenses, and profit for a specific period of time
first step - forecast sales or revenue (income) portion then budget expenditures (labor, food, operating expenses) related to the projected level of revenue

138
Q

cash budget

A

projects revenue and expenses, showing inflow and output of cash
purpose is to determine if funds will be available when needed

139
Q

capital budget

A

plant facilities, equipment, cost of improvements and repairs (service, maintenance contracts), expansions, replacements, long term
- includes expenditures whose returns are expected to last beyond one year

140
Q

pro forma statement

A

(hypothetical), projects expected income, expenditures and profit

141
Q

traditional (incremental, baseline)

A

uses existing budget as base and projects changes for the ensuing year in relation to the current budget
- usually begins with this year’s expenses plus an inflation factor

142
Q

zero-based budget (ZBB)

A

not this year’s expenses plus an inflation factor, instead begins at 0. must justify each expense

143
Q

fixed budget

A

prepared at one level of sales or revenue (no expected major change in patient or customer count during the year)

144
Q

flexible budget

A

adjusted to various levels of operation with varying levels of sales or revenue throughout the year (changes in patient or customer count)

145
Q

performance budget

A

details what it costs to perform an activity (how much to supervise the trayline)

146
Q

straight line depreciation

A

value of the equipment (cost) - salvage value / # of years of useful life

147
Q

differential costs

A

amount of increase or decrease in cost when you compare alternative choices; difference in costs between two delivery systems

148
Q

edible portion vs. as purchased prices

A

raw purchase cost (AP) / cooked edible weight = EP cost/lb.

149
Q

food costs

A

most readily controlled item

150
Q

labor costs

A

less controllable than food costs

151
Q

operating costs

A

12-18% of budget
utilities (electricity), laundry

152
Q

income statement

A

profit and loss statement, shows operating results over a period of time (dynamic)
presents the income (revenue), expenses and profit over the course of the budget period
analyzes operational effectiveness

153
Q

balance sheet

A

shows financial condition as of a particular date (static)
- lists assets (goods and products owned) - cash, inventory, accounts receivable (amounts owed to you)
- lists liabilities - amounts owed to others
- assets = liabilities + capital (equity)
- quick way to view financial condition

154
Q

liquidity ratios

A

assess ability to meet short term debt (pay bills when due)
- current assets and current liabilities

155
Q

net worth ratios

A

assess ability to meet long term debt, solvency
- total assets and total liabilities; debt to asset ratio

156
Q

turnover ratios

A
  • asset management - shows current effectiveness of inventory control
  • inventory turnover rate = cost of sales (food costs or COGS) / average inventory cost
  • high ratio indicate a limited inventory is being kept
  • low ratios indicate large amounts of money are tied up in stock
  • 2-4 times per month is desirable
157
Q

daily food cost report / food cost percentage

A

daily food cost / daily income = food cost percentage

158
Q

food cost per meal

A

food cost per month / # meals per month

food cost = beginning inventory minus ending inventory, plus food purchases

159
Q

profit margin

A

financial efficiency;
net profit (profit after ALL expenses have been paid) / sales dollars (revenue)

160
Q

cost of sales

A

cost of the raw food and bev sold COGS

161
Q

gross profit

A

profit shown after deducting raw food and beverage (cost of sales) from sales (revenue)

162
Q

net profit

A

profit shown after ALL expenses have been deducted from sales

163
Q

payback period

A
  • determines the length of time it will take for the cash inflows from a project to equal the initial cash outlay
  • add up the costs of the service
  • add up costs saved by using the new service
  • divide costs of service by dollars saved
164
Q

marketing process first step

A

identify a need that is not being filled (market niche)

165
Q

market segmentation

A

divide market into groups of people with similar product needs

166
Q

demographic variables

A

age, gender, race, education, income

167
Q

geographic variables

A

urban, suburban, climate, resources, cultural values

168
Q

psychographic

A

social class, lifestyle, motive

169
Q

innovators

A

high income, high self-esteem

170
Q

makers

A

lower income, focus on self-sufficiency, family-oriented

171
Q

achievers

A

successful individuals, higher incomes

172
Q

experiencers

A

young, impulsive, variety seekers

173
Q

behavioristic

A

occasions, loyalty, purchase volume

174
Q

positioning statement

A

how you would like the marketplace to view your product

175
Q

marketing mix - product

A

a good, a service, an idea
- signature brands refer to unique items your business has developed

176
Q

marketing mix - place

A

where it is offered

177
Q

marketing mix - price

A

amount that is offered

178
Q

marketing mix - promotion

A

to increase or renew awareness, short term
publicity, news releases
direct mail packages
paid aids
public visability

179
Q

breakeven point

A

BE = Fixed costs / selling price - variable costs

180
Q

breakeven point in sales volume

A

BE = Fixed costs / 1 - (variable costs / sales)

181
Q

factor pricing method, traditional method, markup method

A
  • 100/food cost percentage = markup factor
  • markup factor x raw food cost = selling price
  • hidden costs of 10% may be added to food cost to cover unproductive costs (losses in preparation, etc.)
182
Q

prime cost method

A
  • determine prime cost: raw food cost + direct labor cost
  • determine price factor (markup)
  • add desired food cost percentage to percentage of direct labor cost
  • divide total into 100
  • selling price = prime cost x price factor (markup factor)
183
Q

loss leaders

A

items priced lower to draw people in in the hope that they will purchase other items at normal markups

184
Q

cost of profit pricing

A

add up all costs (including profit cost) as percentages
- subtract the total from 100% to find the targeted food cost percentage
- to determine the selling price of the item:
-> total food cost / desired food cost percentage

185
Q

DNV GL healthcare accreditation program

A

validates Medicare compliance

186
Q

TJC

A

the joint commission accredits and certifies healthcare orgs

187
Q

CMS

A

centers for medicare and medicaid services

188
Q

AWV

A

a wellness visit is provided by ACA affordable care act to medicare beneficiaries.

189
Q

PPS

A

prospective payment system

190
Q

medicare part A

A

hospital inpatient stays under prospective payment system using predetermined rates for hospital discharges

191
Q

medicare part B

A

optional insurance for supplementary benefits

192
Q

IBT

A

intensive behavioral therapy: benefit for obese under Medicare part B. coverage is granted only in primary care setting. bmi must be >30, continued treatment contigent on wt loss assessed at the 7th month of treatment

193
Q

medicaid

A

federal law administered by states, payment for medical care for all eligible needy: all ages, blind, disabled, dependent children

194
Q

ACA

A

patient protection and affordable care act: opportunities to provide MNT under benefit category “preventive and wellness services”

195
Q

CHIP

A

children’s health insurance program under the SSA is a partnership between federal and state govs expanding health coverage to uninsured children whose families earn too much income to qualify for medicaid but too little to afford private coverage

196
Q

PCMH

A

patient centered medical home
focuses on the relationship between the patient and their personal physician. THe RDN should be considered part of the medical home treatment plan

197
Q

ACO

A

accountable care org
is a healthcare org that ties provider reimbursements to quality metrics and reductions in the cost of care. ACOs in the US are formed from a group of coordinated health-care practitioners

198
Q

APM

A

an alternative payment model is a payment approach that gives added incentive payments to provide high-quality and cost-efficient care. APMs can apply to a specific clinical condition, a care episode, or a population

199
Q

ICD-10-CM

A

international classification of diseases 10th revision, clinical modification describes an individual’s disease or medical condition
- codes for malnutrition E43-E46

200
Q

CPT

A

codes current procedural terminology: five digits that describe the services rendered. MNT codes 97802, 97803, 97804 are used to report RDN provided services

201
Q

CMS 1500 form

A

submit noninstitutional claims to medicare/medicaid for healthcare services

202
Q

cost benefit

A

determines whether the goal of the intervention is worthwhile in terms of cost
the value of the benefits derived from the intervention must outweigh the costs of providing the intervention

203
Q

cost effectiveness

A

assumes that the goal of the project is worthwhile
the question to resolve is which method of intervention is the most effective in terms of value in achieving the goal. it compares costs of alternative strategies using the results of outcomes research

204
Q

TQM

A

total quality management
- focuses on improving organizational processes to increase overall performance & customer satisfaction
- encourages involvement from everyone in the org, including employees in responding to customer needs and finding solutions
- Plan do study act (PDSA) / plan do check act (PDCA)

205
Q

CQI

A

continuous quality improvement
- component of TQM that specifically focuses on data collection and process improvement
- assumes performance and processes can always get better

206
Q

rate-based indicator

A

comparative rate indicator
- what will happen with the BEST care, thresholds between 1% and 99%
example: 95% high risk patients are assessed within 24 hrs

207
Q

sentinel event indicator

A

is a serious event that requires further investigation each time it occurs; undesirable but avoidable events
- threshold of either 0% of 100% (never or always)
example: 100% oncology patients are fed within 5 days

208
Q

effectiveness

A

refers to the degree to which an exchange helps to achieve your objectives (doing the right thing)

209
Q

efficiency

A

refers to the minimization of resources you must spend to achieve that desired level of exchange (doing things right)

210
Q

six sigma

A

data driven approach for improving quality by removing defects and their causes
DIMAC approach - define, improve, measure, analyze, control
little variation in a process

211
Q

kaizen philosophy

A

good change suggests making continuous and small incremental improvements in process on a daily basis, rather than large revolutionary changes.
focuses on teamwork, discipline, improved morale, quality circles and suggestions for improvements

212
Q

lean method

A

use less human effort, less space, less capital and less time to make products exactly as the customer wants with few defects

213
Q

SOP

A

standards of practice - describes in general terms a competent level of nutrition care practice as shown by the NCP (problem-solving method used to think critically and make decisions to provide safe, effective, high-quality nutrition care). for those working in direct pt care.

214
Q

SOPP

A

standards of professional performance - describes a competent level of behavior in the professional role
- provision of service, application of research, communication and application of knowledge, utilization and management of resources, quality in practice, competency and accoutability

215
Q

code of ethics - non-maleficence

A

competence and professional development in practice: intent to not inflict harm

216
Q

code of ethics - autonomy

A

integrity in personal and organizational behaviors and practice

217
Q

code of ethics - beneficence

A

professionalism: take positive steps to benefit others; participate in and contribute to decisions that affect the well-being of patients/clients

218
Q

code of ethics - justice

A

supports fair, equitable and appropriate treatment for individuals and fair allocation of resources

219
Q

FOCUS - PDCA

A

In the FOCUS-PDCA model for performance improvement, F represents finding an area to improve.

F = Find an improvement area

O = Organize a team

C = Clarify current practices

U = Understand source of variation/problem

S = Select a strategy

PDCA = Plan Do Check Act

RDN Exam (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions