Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

RDN Exam > Misc from All Domains > Flashcards

Misc from All Domains Flashcards

1
Q

monoglycerides

A

emulsifier - which means they help oil and water to blend. Small quantities are often added to packaged and frozen foods to improve texture and stability, prevent oil from separating, and extend shelf life.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

diglycerides

A

emulsifier - At high temperatures, triglycerides are capable of rearranging into monoglycerides and diglycerides. Diglycerides are emulsifiers that are used in products like frozen desserts, margarine, and shortening to improve texture, stability, volume, softness, aeration, homogenization, and shelf life.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

lecithin

A

emulsifier - Lecithin is a naturally occurring substance derived from several sources, including egg yolks, soybeans, sunflower, canola, corn and others. Lecithin is a multi-purpose ingredient that is often used as an emulsifier in foods, but it can also be used as an antioxidant and flavor protector.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

disodium phosphate

A

emulsifier - is used as a pH buffer, stabilizer, and emulsifier in processed cheese, condensed milk, instant pudding, and other food applications. This ingredient is also used as a pH buffering agent in textile and water treatment applications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

sorbitol

A

humectant (retains moisture), sweetener, bulking agent, limits mold
- Due to its sweetness (∼60% compared to sucrose) and high-water solubility, sorbitol is largely used as a low-calorie sweetener, a humectant, a texturizer, or a softener. It is present in a wide range of food products, such as chewing gums, candies, desserts, ice creams, and diabetic foods.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

pectin

A

stabilizers/thickeners:
a soluble fiber (polysaccharide) found in fruits. It is used as a thickener in cooking and baking. It is also sometimes used to make medicine. Pectin binds substances in the intestines and adds bulk to the stools. often used to thicken jellies and jams

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

cellulose

A

stabilizers/thickeners:
It plays a vital role in ensuring consistency and texture by stabilizing and thickening various food product.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

gelatin

A

stabilizers/thickeners:
Gelatin can be used to thicken a variety of foods, from sweet desserts like panna cotta and fruit jellies to savory dishes like sauces and gravies. It can also be used as a stabilizer in whipped cream and cream cheese frostings. Another benefit of using gelatin as a thickener is that it is a natural ingredient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

gum

A

stabilizers/thickeners:
Vegetable gums: guar gum (extracted from guar bean), xanthan gum (from microbial fermentation used in gluten-free baked goods), locust bean gum (from carob tree)
Effective thickening agent and stabilizer that prevents ingredients from separating.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

agar

A

stabilizers/thickeners:
Agar is a jelly-like substance, derived from seaweed, with many uses. It’s sold in stores as a powder or flake. It’s most common use is as a vegan gelatin substitute, but can be used as a thickener or stabilizer for fruit preserves, ice cream, custards, or even soups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

carrageenan

A
  • prevents chocolate from sedimenting in fat-free milk
  • stabilizer/thickener
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

calcium silicate

A

anti-caking
- is used in the food industry as an anticaking agent, stabilizer, and thickener. It is used to improve the texture and consistency of food products, as well as to prevent clumping and caking. It is also used to improve the shelf life of food products by preventing moisture absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

mannitol

A

anti-caking
- It reduces “stickiness” and is also used as an anti-caking agent due to its low tendency to retain water.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

nitrites

A

fixes color, inhibits spores of clostridium botulinum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

calcium propionate

A

mold inhibitor, used in bakery products
- Calcium propionate is used as a preservative in bread and other baked goods. It keeps bread and baked goods from spoiling by preventing mold and bacterial growth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

sodium benzoate (soda)

A

mold inhibitor
- is a salt of benzoic acid and is well soluble in water, tasteless, and odorless, and due to its antifungal and antibacterial properties, it is a preservative added to food in strictly defined doses. It inhibits the growth of bacteria, yeast, and mold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

propyl gallate

A

antioxidant
- Propyl Gallate is a generally recognized as safe (GRAS) antioxidant to protect fats, oils, and fat-containing food from rancidity that results from the formation of peroxides.
- Propyl gallate is an antioxidant that is added to foods containing oils and fats to prevent oxidation. Oxidation is most likely to occur in products that contain fat, including sausage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

BHA - Butylated hydroxyanisole

A

antioxidant
- BHA is a food additive generally used as an antioxidant in products containing fats or oils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

BHT - butylated hydroxytoluene

A

antioxidant
- BHT is an antioxidant and used as preservative in foods, animal feed, animal and vegetable oil, petroleum products, rubber and plastics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

ascorbic acid

A

antioxidant
- Slowing the oxidation preserves color and freshness. The low pH of ascorbic acid can help prevent microbial growth, thereby preventing spoilage and preserving freshness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

alpha tocopherol (natural)

A

antioxidant
- which can inhibit lipid oxidation by scavenging free radicals and by reacting with singlet oxygen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

MSG - monosodium glutamate

A

flavor enhancer - provides umami, savory taste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Canthaxanthin

A

primarily used as a feed additive for animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

citric acid

A

is commonly used as a food additive for natural flavoring. It is often added as an emulsifying agent and preservative. Citric acid is also added to many canned and jarred foods to help prevent botulism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Benzoyl peroxide

A

is a food additive that can be used as a flour treatment agent. It oxidizes the naturally-occurring carotenoids in flour, which gives untreated flour a yellowish tint, and whitens the flour as a result. It is often used as some consumers prefer white flour to yellowish ones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

disodium inosinate

A

is used as a flavor enhancer, in synergy with monosodium glutamate (MSG) to provide the umami taste.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA)

A

is used as a preservative in many foods like dried and canned beans, mayo, and cooked canned seafood to preserve flavor and color.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Dipotassium phosphate

A

As a food additive, dipotassium phosphate is used in imitation dairy creamers, dry powder beverages, mineral supplements, and starter cultures. It functions as an emulsifier, stabilizer and texturizer; it also is a buffering agent, and chelating agent especially for the calcium in milk products.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Glycerol

A

It is added to icing (frosting) to prevent it from setting too hard.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Calcium carbonate

A

can be used to regulate the acidity or alkalinity of foods such as fruit juices, pastes and preserves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Calcium alginate

A

Coatings and films of calcium alginate are capable of preserving frozen fish. It’s highly useful in oily fish which becomes rancid smelling because of oxidation even when quickly frozen. However, if the fish is in frozen calcium alginate jelly, it will then be protected from air as well as rancidity due to oxidation.

In the food industry, alginate has been used to coat fruits and vegetables, as a microbial and viral protection product, and as a gelling, thickening, stabilizing or emulsifying agent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

acetic acid

A

is used as a sour agent added in vinegar, pickled vegetables, and sauce, and as a raw material for spice.
- an efficient preservative, as it prevents the formation and growth of bacteria and fungi, and helps in the inactivation of salmonella in foods such as mayonnaise, it is also used in salads,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Calcium chloride

A

The mineral calcium chloride is a widely used additive for the production of cheese. It is used to increase the size and strength of the curds. Calcium chloride is frequently added to milk at the start of cheese making as a coagulation aid. Adding calcium chloride also increases the effectiveness of rennet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Tragacanth gum

A

has been used as a stabilizer, emulsifier, and thickener in food products. Its superior water-absorbing qualities make it an excellent thickening agent. Gum tragacanth is used in many everyday commercial products of low viscosity as jellies and pourable dressings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Turmeric

A

Turmeric, turmeric oleoresin, and curcumin are yellow color additives that can be used in condiments such as pickles, mustard, seasonings, relish, hot peppers, snacks, baked goods, sauces, salad dressing, oils, margarine, frozen desserts, cheeses, pies, cakes, candies, beverages, frosting, cereal, snacks, fruit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

megestrol acetate

A
  • also known as Megace
  • synthetic form of progesterone
  • cancer, aids
  • appetite stimulant, weight gain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

marinol

A
  • also known as Dronabinol
  • cancer, aids
  • appetite stimulant
  • synthetic THC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

dextroamphetamine (Adderall)

A
  • appetite suppressant, anorexia, nausea, weight loss
  • stimulant to treat ADHD and increase neurotransmitter activity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

orlistat

A
  • obesity med
  • decrease fat absorption by binding lipase; vit/mineral supp
  • lipase inhibitor, reversibly inhibits gastric and pancreatic lipases
  • fat absorption reduced, steatorrhea, wt loss
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

methylphenidate (Ritalin)

A
  • anorexia, weight loss, nausea, vomiting
  • stimulant to treat ADHD and increase neurotransmitter activity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

statins

A
  • example: lipitor
  • inhibit cholesterol synthesis by binding HMG-CoA reductase
  • avoid grapefruit juice; decreased LDL; TG; increase HDL
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

chemotherapy

A

malabsorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

mineral oil

A
  • laxative
  • coats bowel and stool with waterproof film
  • not absorbed in the body
  • decrease absorption of fat; fat-soluble vitamins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

cholestyramine

A
  • also known as Prevalite
  • for high cholesterol
  • bile acid sequestrant; binds to bile acid in intestines and forms a complex and it’s removed from our bodies
  • lowers cholesterol
  • decreases fat/fat-soluble vitamin absorption
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

glucocorticoids

A
  • inflammatory/autoimmune diseases
  • corticosteroids
  • reduce inflammation; suppress immune system
  • lower protein levels, increased protein breakdown
  • protein deficits
  • hot COCOa tends to be low in PROTEIN
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

oral contraceptives

A
  • decreased levels of folate, B6, C
  • FAB at preventing pregnancies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

loop diuretics

A
  • for heart failure, liver cirrhosis, hypertension, kidney diseases
  • deplete thiamin, potassium, magnesium, calcium, sodium
  • help excrete excess salt and water through urine
  • Soda Causes Me To Pee
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

thiazide diuretics

A
  • for high blood pressure or congestive heart failure
  • decrease potassium and magnesium, absorb/increase calcium, may induce hypokalemia
  • Zide rhymes with outside - CAMP - Calcium, A, Magnesium, Potassium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

antibiotics

A

decreased vit. K, protein deficits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

corticosteroids

A
  • for rheumatoid arthritis, IBD, asthma, allergies
  • reduces inflammation; suppress immune system
  • hyperglycemia, thin skin, hypertension, bone fracture
  • BOTHH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

methotrexate

A
  • for arthritis, psoriasis
  • immunosuppressant
  • structure is similar to folate
  • lowers folate
  • MethFOtrexLATE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

lithium carbonate

A
  • antidepressant; bipolar disorder; neutrotransmitters
  • increased appetite, wt gain; maintain consistent sodium and caffeine intake to stabilize levels. if Na or caffeine are restricted, lithium excretion decreases, leading to toxicity
  • blocks TSH, which can lead to hypothyroidism
  • LithiYUM
  • Lithium+sodium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

anticoagulant (warfarin sodium)

A
  • for strokes, heart attack, CHF
  • thin the blood
  • antagonizes vit K (consistent intake is essential);
  • avoid Ginkgo Biloba (GBE), garlic, ginger (may increase bleeding),
  • avoid high dose vit. A, E
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

propofol

A
  • general anesthesia
  • lipid loving
  • administered in oil, consider fat kcal, 1.1 kcal/cc, check TG
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

phenobarbital

A
  • anti-seizure
  • decreased folic acid, B6, vit. B12, D, K
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

cyclosporine

A
  • immunosuppressant
  • hyperlipidemia, hyperglycemia, hyperkalemia, hypertension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Isoniazid

A
  • treats TB
  • INH - depletes pyridoxine (B6), peripheral neuropathy can develop, don’t take with food, interferes with vit. D, calcium, phosphorus
  • Dietitians Periodically Buy 6 Carrots
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

elavil

A
  • antidepressant
  • sedative effect, wt gain, increased appetite
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

vit b6 and protein

A
  • decrease effectiveness of L-DOPA (Levodopa) which control symptoms of Parkinson’s. take in AM w/ limited protein
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

calcium

A

binds tetracycline so calcium levels decrease
- tetracycline is an antibiotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

tyramine

A
  • MAOI - antidepressant, treats Parkinson’s
  • hypertension if taken with MAOI (monoamine oxidase inhibitor)
    1. Eliminate dopamine and restrict tyramine (monoamines). MAO inhibitors
    interact releasing norepinephrine which elevates blood pressure. Restrict aged,
    fermented, dried, pickled, smoked, spoiled foods.
    2. Avoid hard, aged cheese (cheddar, Swiss), sauerkraut, some sausages, luncheon
    meats, tofu, miso, Chianti wine, tomatoes. Limit sour cream, yogurt, buttermilk.
    3. OK: cottage cheese, cream cheese. Good advice: buy, cook, eat fresh foods
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

curcumin (turmeric) as medication/supplement

A

may reduce inflammation, antioxidant, in curry powder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Bolus: premeal or prandial
(a) rapid-acting

A

Aspart (Novolog), Lispro (Humalog)
- take 5 - 15 minutes before eating, usual duration 4 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Bolus: premeal or prandial
short-acting:

A

Regular (Humulin R);
- take 30-45 minutes before meal (burst of insulin to cover the meal just about to be eaten). One unit covers 10 - 15 grams CHO; duration 3-6 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Basal, background
(c) intermediate-acting:

A

NPH (Humulin N, Novolin N, ReliOn)
- onset 2 - 4 hours, duration 10 - 16 hours, cloudy in appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Basal, background
long-acting:

A

Glargine (Lantus), Determir (Levemir)
- onset 2 - 4 hours, duration 18 - 24 hours. Start at 1 0 units/day or 0.1 - 0.2 units/kg. Take around same time each day
- Dude Lets Go Lift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

biguanides

A

Metformin (Glucophage) - suppress hepatic glucose
production (inhibit gluconeogenesis). First line therapy for most with T2D. Take with food. Check B12 levels. Deficiency can lead to anemia or peripheral neuropathy. Weight neutral. Low risk of hypoglycemia. GI disruption.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

DPP-4 inhibitors:

A

saxagliptin (Onglyza), sitagliptin (Januvia) - often used with Metformin. Allows endogenous GLP-1 to stay active longer and keep producing insulin, reduces glucose released by the liver overnight and between meals. Weight neutral. used with Metformin.
- prevents DPP4 from stopping GLP1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

SGLT-2 inhibitors (sodium-glucose-like transporter 2):

A

canagliflozin (lnvokana), dapagliflozin (Farxiga),
empagliflozin (Jardiance) - prevent reabsorption of glucose; glucose excreted in urine; Monitor kidney function. Weight loss. Considered for patients with T2D and CKD.
- 90% of kidney glucose reabsorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) receptor agonist (agonists - mimic)

A

Exenatide (Byetta), dulaglutide (Trulicity), semaglutide (Ozempic) - slows gastric emptying,
enhances insulin secretion when glucose is high after eating - more insulin can take glucose out of blood and into cell, decreases glucagon levels, promotes fullness and leads to weight loss.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

TZD Thiazolidinediones:

A

(Actos) - increase insulin sensitivity in muscle. makes tissues more sensitive to insulin. Fluid retention; Weight gain; people with CHF should avoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Sulfonylureas

A

glimepiride (Amaryl) - secretagogue stimulates the pancreas to release more insulin. May lead to hypoglycemia. Weight gain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

metformin

A

glucophage
- a biguanide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

actos

A

thiazolidinediones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

empagliflozin

A

jardiance
- SGLT2 inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

canagliflozin

A

invokana
- SGLT2 inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Dapagliflozin

A

farxiga
- SGLT2 inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

semaglutide

A

ozempic
- GLP-1 receptor agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

dulaglutide

A

trulicity
- GLP-1 receptor agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

exenatide

A

byetta
- GLP-1 receptor agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

sitagliptin

A

januvia
- DPP4 inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

saxagliptin

A

onglyza
- DPP4 inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

determir

A

levemir
- long acting background insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

glargine

A

lantus
- long acting background insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

aspart

A

novalog
- rapid acting premeal bolus insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

lispro

A

humalog
- rapid acting premeal bolus insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

humulin R

A

Regular insulin
- short acting premeal or bolus insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

neutral protamin hagedorn (NPH)

A

humulin N, novolin N, ReliOn
- intermediate basal or background insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

black cohosh

A
  • relieves menopause symptoms
  • affects blood; be careful with meds like anticoagulants/statins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

comfrey

A
  • calms nerves and helps with inflammation
  • may damage liver
  • CALMfrey
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

valerian root

A
  • calms nerves and helps with inflammation
  • may damage liver
  • VERI CALM
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

echinacea

A
  • helps with cold symptoms via immunostimulant activity
  • should not exceed greater than 2 months use
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

ephedra

A
  • used for wt loss
  • similar effects to caffeine; associated with headaches and increased heart rate
  • can be particularly hazardous
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

kava kava

A
  • lessens anxiety
  • compromises liver function
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

milk thistle

A
  • liver protective properties; helps liver function
  • antioxidant, anti-inflammatory
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

st john’s wort

A
  • antidepressive, increased serotonin levels, treats mood disorders
  • may interact with warfarin, oral contraceptives, statins, and antihypertensives
  • WOSA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

saw palmetto

A
  • treats enlarged prostate
  • used as a diuretic; dehydration, electrolyte imbalance
  • P for prostate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

yohimbe

A
  • alleviates erectile dysfunction
  • can increase blood pressure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

garlic

A
  • decreases blood pressure and cholesterol
  • reduces clotting time
  • interacts with warfarin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

ginger

A
  • decreases nausea/vomiting
  • interacts with warfarin
  • avoid with drugs that effect bleeding
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

ginkgo biloba

A
  • increases vasodilation, blood vessels widen
  • interacts with warfarin
  • avoid presurgery
  • caution with diabetes because may increase insulin resistance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

ginseng

A
  • increases immunity; endurance
  • interacts with warfarin
  • high blood pressure, may decrease blood glucose
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

causes of variations in cakes
- yellowing

A

alkaline batter (excess baking soda)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

causes of variations in cakes
- fallen center

A

too much sugar, fat, or baking powder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

causes of variations in cakes
- tough, dry crumb

A
  • too much flour, egg, mixing, or baking
  • too little fat or sugar
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

causes of variations in cakes
- coarse texture

A

too much baking powder or sugar, oven temp too low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

causes of variations in cakes
- poor volume

A
  • too little baking powder or an unsuitable level of sugar or fat
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

meta-analysis
- PRISMA

A

randomized controlled trials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

meta-analysis
- CONSORT

A

clinical trials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

meta-analysis
- QUOROM

A

randomized trials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

meta-analysis
- MOOSE

A

observational studies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

pour batter

A

1 part liquid
1 part flour
waffles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

drop batter

A

1 part liquid
2 part flour
muffins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

soft dough

A

1 part liquid
3 part flour
bread

115
Q

stiff dough

A

1 part liquid
4 part flour
pie crust

116
Q

kinesics

A

physical communication

117
Q

paralinguistic

A

how the client’s message is delivered

118
Q

proxemics

A

personal space

119
Q

listening response - clarification

A

pose a question after an ambiguous client message; used to make previous message explicit

120
Q

listening response - active or reflective listening

A

paraphrase or repeat back what was just said
- focus on the thoughts and feelings of others rather than on their own personal reaction
- absorb what is being said and respond to the person’s concerns

121
Q

listening response - legitimation statement

A

acknowledges that there was a reason for a behavior, indicating that the response from the client was legitimate. “you have a right to feel upset, anybody would”

122
Q

listening response - feedback

A

info client gives back to you as you are discussing and questioning; lets you know what he knows and what he understands about what you are saying

123
Q

responses to client - evaluative

A

make judgment about persons feelings, or imply how he should feel. leads to offering of advice, not problem-solving, seldom helpful. “if you eat too much ice cream, I suggest you stop buying ice cream”

124
Q

responses to client - hostile

A

uncontrolled anger or frustration; may antagonize or humiliate client “maybe you are not losing weight because you are not trying hard enough”

125
Q

responses to client - reassuring

A

may make is difficult to solve the client’s problem or discuss it further. suggests the problem does not exist. Client is prevented from working through feelings. Little attempt is made to understand the needs of the client. “don’t worry about making changes, it just takes time”

126
Q

responses to client - probing

A

attempt to clarify or gain more info as they recall details. may encourage conversation “can you tell me more about that?”

127
Q

responses to client - understanding

A

one of the best ways to respond, try to recreate the persons message in your own frame of reference. may lead to more client cooperation. helps client feel accepted and safe in expressing their feelings. “you seem to be saying that you are feeling…”

128
Q

formal evaluation - objective test

A

not well suited for clinic or community setting (multiple choice)

129
Q

formal evaluation - performance test

A

client asked to complete task based on learning objectives - active involvement, helps retention

130
Q

informal evaluation

A

unstructured observation of food selection and behaviors

131
Q

altmetrics

A

presentation of amount of activity from Twitter, Facebook, science blogs, mainstream news and other sources over time

132
Q

NCP - data

A

national consumer panel - data helps manufacturers understand consumer preferences on specific brands; enables retailers to stock the right item assortment for their local markets

133
Q

FTC

A

federal trade commission - regulates content of food ads; enforces truth in labeling; challenges product claims when product crosses state lines

134
Q

FDA

A

ensures safety of some domestic and imported food products; in charge of the food code

135
Q

FCC

A

federal communications commission - licenses radio and TV

136
Q

federal register (ppdu)

A

notices of public hearings, proposed and final rules, agency decisions, published weekly; lists changes in USDA food programs

137
Q

child nutrition reauthorization covers

A

NSLP, SBP, CACFP, SFSP, SMP, WIC

138
Q

the farm bill covers

A

national and international nutrition education, research, funding

139
Q

the older americans act funds

A

nutrition programs in the community

140
Q

hypothesis should be FINER

A

feasible, interesting, novel or innovative, ethical and relevant

141
Q

research objectives define the study’s purpose. Consider PICO format

A

population, intervention/exposure, comparison, and outcome

142
Q

RQ

A

carbon dioxide expired / oxygen consumed
- carb alone 1
- protein alone 0.82
- 0.7
- mixed intake 0.85

143
Q

sodium Na+ range

A

136 - 145 mEq/L

144
Q

potassium K+ range

A

3.5-5 mEq/L

145
Q

calcium Ca++ range

A

4.5-5.5 mEq/L or 9-11 mg/dl

146
Q

magnesium Mg++ range

A

1.5-2.5 mEq/L (1.8-3 mg/dl)

147
Q

urine specific gravity range

A

1.002-1.025

148
Q

chloride range Cl-

A

96-106 mEq/L

149
Q

phosphorus P

A

3-4.5 mg/dl

150
Q

osmosis

A

fluid moves from less to more concentrated side of membrane

151
Q

diffusion

A

particles move from more to less concentrated side

152
Q

anasarca

A

extreme generalized edema

153
Q

pH

A

7.35 - 7.45

154
Q

HCO3

A

sodium bicarbonate
24-28

155
Q

pCO2 / H2CO3

A

carbonic acid
35-45

156
Q

calories during pregnancy 2nd trimester

A

340 kcal

157
Q

calories during pregnancy 3rd trimester

A

452 kcal

158
Q

kcal during lactation first 6 months

A

330 kcal

159
Q

kcal during lactation first 6-12 months

A

400 kcal

160
Q

protein during second half of pregnancy and lactation

A

71 grams

161
Q

wt gain pregnancy at risk

A

failure to gain 4 lbs / month in last half of pregnancy; <16 or >=35 years of age; <12 months between pregnancies

162
Q

iron during pregnancy

A

30 mgs during 2nd and 3rd trimesters

163
Q

kcal, protein, fat, water - 0-6 months

A

108 kcal
9.1 g
min of 30 g / day
125-155 ml/kg

164
Q

kcal, protein, fat, water - 7-12 months

A

98 kcal
11 g
min of 30 g / day
1.5 ml/kcal

165
Q

neonate

A

birth to 1 month can absorb whole, intact protein

166
Q

lactation human milk kcal/oz

A

20 kcal/oz

167
Q

digestion - mouth CHO

A

amylase - starch -> dextrin -> maltose

168
Q

digestion - mouth fat

A

mechanical

169
Q

digestion - mouth protein

A

mechanical

170
Q

digestion - stomach - CHO

A

amylase - starch -> dextrin -> maltose

171
Q

digestion - stomach - fat

A

mechanical

172
Q

digestion - stomach - protein

A

protein - proteolysis (protein digestion):
- pepsinogen + HCL of stomach -> pepsin
- pepsin acts on protein -> proteose, peptones

Pepsin is a digestive enzyme found in gastric juice that catalyzes the breakdown of protein to peptides. However, hydrochloric acid is the substance that denatures the protein and is critical for creating the environment for pepsin activity in digestion.

173
Q

conditionally essential AA during catabolic stress

A

arginine and glutamine

174
Q

precursor for serotonin and niacin

A

tryptophan

175
Q

phenylalanine converts to

A

tyrosine

176
Q

methionine converts to

A

cysteine

177
Q

soybeans are low in

A

methionine

178
Q

legumes are low in

A

methionine, cystine, and tryptophan

179
Q

gelatin is low in

A

methionine, lysine and has no tryptophan

180
Q

lack of omega-6

A

creates eczema, poor growth rate, petechiae (red, purple skin spots)

181
Q

if linoleic acid replaces CHO

A

LDL decreases, HDL increases

182
Q

if linoleic acid replaces saturated fat

A

total cholesterol decreases and HDL decreases

183
Q

lack of omega-3

A

retinal function and brain development deficiency
numbness and blurred vision

184
Q

linolenic acid decreases

A

hepatic production of triglycerides (inhibits VLDL synthesis); little effect on total cholesterol levels

185
Q

what oils are winterized

A

corn, soy and cottonseed

186
Q

food in the oral cavity is chewed and mixed with saliva secreted by what glands in the mouth

A

parotid, submaxillary, sublingual

187
Q

complete digestion and absorption of food takes place where

A

small intestine

188
Q

bile produced in the liver is stored where

A

the gallbladder. the liver stores glycogen and synthesizes glucose

189
Q

hormone gastrin stimulates

A

gastric secretions and motility
Gastrin is a hormone secreted in the stomach that is involved in the production of gastric acid.

190
Q

hormone CCK

A

cholecystokinin - released from duodenum when fat enters - contracts gallbladder releasing bile, stimulates pancreas
Cholecystokinin is a polypeptide hormone produced principally by the small intestine in response to the presence of fats.

191
Q

hormone secretin

A

(duodenum) stimulates flow of pancreatic juice (bicarbonate) and water into the duodenum, inhibits gastric acid secretion
Secretin is a hormone formed by the epithelial cells of duodenum under stimulus of acid contents from stomach, which incites secretion of pancreatic juice.

192
Q

hormone glucagon-like peptide 1

A

hormone glucose-dependent insulinotropic polypeptide, released from intestine in presence of glucose and fat, stimulates insulin synthesis and release

193
Q

large intestine absorbs what

A

water, salts and the vitamins synthesized by bacteria (vitamin k, b12, thiamin, riboflavin) which are used by gi mucosal cells

194
Q

colonic salvage

A

anaerobic fermentation and absorption of end-products of carb, fiber, and AA breakdown

195
Q

aerobic glycolysis produces

A

pyruvate

196
Q

anaerobic glycolysis produces

A

lactate

197
Q

what is needed for the transport of AA

A

pyridoxine

198
Q

branched chain AA are

A

valine, leucine, isoleucine

199
Q

PDCAAS

A

protein digestibility correct amino acid score
- estimates % of protein in each food category that is actually digested

200
Q

monoglycerides, diglycerides and long chained fatty acids combine with the help of bile salts to form what

A

micelles

201
Q

most dietary fat enters blood as what

A

chylomicron

202
Q

active transport

A

most nutrients - glucose, AA, Na, K, Mg, Ca, Fe
- sodium pump: uphill pumping from lower to higher concentration, across a membrane against an energy gradient, needs energy from ATP

203
Q

simple diffusion

A

some water and electrolytes
- higher to lower concentration: intestine to blood to lymph

204
Q

passive diffusion

A
  • carrier-facilitated - water-soluble nutrients
  • higher to lower concentration
205
Q

protopectin converts to

A

pectin (ripe fruit) then converts to pectic acid (overripe fruit)

206
Q

climacteric fruits

A

ripen post harvest (peach, pear, banana, apple, tomato)

207
Q

non climacteric fruits

A

best when ripened before harvest (grapes, melon, citrus)

208
Q

pheophytin

A

olive green in acid

209
Q

chlorophyllin

A

bright green in alkaline

210
Q

yellow, orange carotenoids

A

insoluble in water
little effect in acid or alkaline solution
lycopenes

211
Q

flavonoids - anthocyanins - in acid

A

bright red

212
Q

flavonoids - anthocyanins - in alkaline

A

blueish

213
Q

colorless or white to yellow - anthoxanthins or flavones - in acid

A

colorless (bleaching effect)

214
Q

colorless or white to yellow - anthoxanthins or flavones - in alkaline

A

yellow

215
Q

10 case

A

6/case - 13 cups

216
Q

canned fruits and veggies grade A

A

dessert, salads
Fancy

217
Q

canned fruits and veggies grade B

A

processed
Choice

218
Q

canned fruits and veggies grade C

A

puddings, pies
Standard

219
Q

fresh produce grades

A

Fancy, Extra #1, #1, Combination, #2

220
Q

collagen

A

structural part of tendon that surrounds muscle
in heat - hydrolyzed to gelatin; becomes tender

221
Q

elastin

A

resistant to heat - little change in cooking
found in ligaments, cartilage; yellow color

222
Q

main contributor to meat color

A

myoglobin

223
Q

MAP

A

modified atmosphere packaging
prolongs shelf life
air (oxygen) is removed and replaced with gases (CO2, nitrogen)
prevents deterioration by slowing respiration

224
Q

grades of meat

A

prime, choice, select, standard

225
Q

dry heat

A

tender cuts near backbone (loin, sirloin)
frying, broiling, roasting, grilling

226
Q

moist heat

A

water involved, less tender cuts of meat with more connective tissue (bottom round, chuck, brisket)
braising, simmering, steaming, stewing

227
Q

surimi

A

purified and frozen minced fish with a preservative, used in analogs, may have egg white or starch added to create desired structure

228
Q

histamine toxicity

A

linked to inadequate refrigeration of tuna, mackerel, mahimahi

229
Q

grades of eggs

A

AA, A, B

230
Q

candling

A

pass an egg in front of bright light to view contents

231
Q

syneresis (weeping)

A

liquid released from a coagulated product - occurs when cooked at too high a temp, or too low a temp for too long a time, creates a tough, watery product

232
Q

milk composition

A

80% casein
rest is whey

233
Q

when using buttermilk in place of regular milk

A

increase the baking soda

234
Q

creams by fat content

A

heavy or thick >36%
medium 30-36%
whipped cream 35%
light or thin 18-30%
sour cream >18%
half and half no less than 10.5%

235
Q

hydrolytic rancidity in butter

A

at room temp leads to flavor changes in butter (saturated fat)

236
Q

oxidative rancidity in soybean oil

A

unsaturated oils are more subject to this
uptake of oxygen at a double bond in an unsaturated fat

237
Q

uncured cheeses

A

refrigerate immediately (cottage, cream cheese)

238
Q

cured cheeses

A

additional whey removed, salt added, ripened over time

239
Q

% moisture content for cheese

A

cottage, cream, mozz, …. cheddar, gorgonzola, parmesan

240
Q

scutellum

A

flour
in germ
has the most of the thiamin

241
Q

flours

A

bread (strong gluten and protein)
all purpose
pastry
cake (weakest gluten)

242
Q

leavening agents

A

steam
co2

243
Q

sugar is hygroscopic

A

modifies texture by tenderizing
softens gluten and prevents gluten development by absorbing some of the water that gluten needs
too much sugar weakens product and results in coarse cells, thick walls, a shiny crust, and a crumbly product

244
Q

amylose

A

is responsible for gelation in cooled, cooked pastes

245
Q

amylopectin

A

waxy starches (corn, rice, sorghum) have amylopectin and 1,4 + 1,6 alpha glucosidic linkages

246
Q

thickening ability of starches

A

potato is best
wheat is worst

247
Q

gelatinization

A

swelling that occurs when starch is heated in water close to the boiling point

248
Q

retrogradation

A

gritty texture after a starch paste has been cooled or chilled. staling of bread, seperation when a gravy thaws

249
Q

crystalline sugar candies

A

fixed orderly pattern of molecules or atoms
large crystals - rock candy
small crystals - fondant, fudge
ingredients that interfere - milk, chocolate, corn syrup

250
Q

non crystalline sugar

A

amorphous, glasslike
crystallization is prevented by adding interfering substances (fat, milk) or by increasing the concentration of sugar

251
Q

ice cream

A

overrun is the increase in volume from freezing and whipping
fat interferes with crystal formation making crystals small and smooth
- to produce smoother ice cream, increase fat

252
Q

gelatin is what type of protein

A

incomplete protein because no tryptophan and low in methioinine and lysine

253
Q

indoles

A

cruciferous veg (sulfur)
detoxification of carcinogens

254
Q

isoflavones

A

anthoxanthin in soybeans - lower elevated cholesterol

255
Q

viscosimeter

A

measures the viscosity of liquids that flow, measures the flow on an incline plane or on a rotational basis

256
Q

line spread test

A

measures viscosity of liquids or semi-solid foods that flow on a flat surface

257
Q

affective sensory evaluation of food

A

affective - used with untrained panelists, determine preference, acceptance or opinions of a product
hedonic rating, paired preference, ranking test

258
Q

analytical sensory evaluation of food

A

paired comparison test
triangle
ranking or scaling

259
Q

low kcal

A

no more than 40 kcal/serving

260
Q

kcal free

A

<5 kcal/serving

261
Q

low fat

A

3 g or less per serving

262
Q

fat free

A

<0.5 g/serving

263
Q

very low sodium

A

no more than 35 mgs /serving

264
Q

low sodium

A

no more than 140 mgs/serving

265
Q

low saturated fat

A

1 g or less per serving

266
Q

light or lite

A

1/3 fewer kcal or 50% less fat

267
Q

gluten free

A

<20 ppm

268
Q

organic

A

minimum of 95% of organic ingredients; up to 5% non organic allowed

269
Q

%DV

A

based on a 2000 kcal intake

270
Q

new food labels

A

DVs for vit D, potassium, calcium, iron, total sugar, added sugars

271
Q

health claims

A

based on authoritative statements from a scientific body of the US Gov or the National Academy of Sciences. “a calcium rich diet may help prevent osteoporosis”

272
Q

qualified health claims

A

emerging evidence of a relationship but not conclusive. requires a disclaimer “evidence suggests but does not prove that…”

273
Q

structure function claims

A

may be used without FDA permission “fiber maintains bowel regularity”

274
Q

abc framework

A

The ABC (antecedent, behavior, consequence) framework is a tool for functional behavior evaluation. Antecedents are events or environments that trigger a specific behavior or response. Example: watching a TV commercial advertising burgers may trigger an eating behavior.

275
Q

prevalence

A

Prevalence is the proportion of a population affected by a certain disease or condition at a given time and includes both old and new cases.

276
Q

andragogy

A
  1. Adults need to be involved in the planning and evaluation of their instruction. 2. Experience provides the basis for learning activities. 3. Adults are most interested in learning subjects that have immediate relevance to their job or personal life. 4. Adult learning is problem-centered rather than content-oriented.
277
Q

Chymotrypsin

A

Chymotrypsin is a pancreatic digestive enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of certain proteins in the small intestine into polypeptides and amino acids

278
Q

Sodium aluminum sulfate

A

Baking powder usually consists of sodium bicarbonate and another salt such as sodium aluminum sulfate. The sodium bicarbonate releases carbon dioxide at low temperatures.

279
Q

Incidence

A

Incidence reflects the number of new cases of a condition that develops in a population over a specific period of time.

280
Q

Titanium dioxide

A

Titanium dioxide is approved for use as a (white) food coloring agent.

281
Q

turgor

A

Turgor is the normal distention or rigidity of plant cells, resulting from the pressure exerted by the cell contents on the cell walls. Example: turgor is present in celery, and loss of turgor would occur as the cells lose water. As a result, the celery wilts.

282
Q

validity

A

Validity refers to whether a study measures what it intended to measure

283
Q

reliability

A

reliability is the consistency of the actual measuring instrument or procedure.

RDN Exam (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions