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RDN Exam > Foodservice Systems - Domain IV > Flashcards

Foodservice Systems - Domain IV Flashcards

1
Q

cycle menu for hospitals with 2-4 day average pt stay

A

1-2 week cycles

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2
Q

cycle menu for long term care facility

A

3-4 week cycle

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3
Q

high school lunch programs

A

2-week cycle with four choices

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4
Q

room services uses what kind of menu

A

static menu

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5
Q

table d’hote

A

pre fixe
complete meal at set price

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6
Q

a la carte

A

separate items at separate prices

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7
Q

du jour

A

menu of the day; uses leftovers and food bargains

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8
Q

southeast asians

A

pork, few dairy products (non-dairy calcium source)

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9
Q

kosher

A

no meat and dairy at same meal; no pork, shellfish

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10
Q

chinese

A

yin foods (raw, cold: fish, veg, fruits)
yang foods (bright, hot: hot chicken soup, eggs, warm spices).
rice is neutral

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11
Q

seventh day adventist

A

ovo-lacto-vegetarian; no caffeine, alcohol, pork

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12
Q

central america/hispanic/latin

A

fruits, veg, meat, poultry, fish, less dairy

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13
Q

muslim

A

halal dietary laws, prohibited foods are called haram (no pork, alc, gelatin, congealed salad), overeating is discouraged, fasting dawn to sunset during Ramadan

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14
Q

roman catholics

A

meat is not consumed on Fridays during Lent

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15
Q

buddhism

A

no alcohol

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16
Q

NuMenus

A

nutrient standard menu planning, uses USDA approved nutrient analysis software

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17
Q

Assisted NuMenus

A

nutrient analysis may be done by another school or consultant

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18
Q

enhanced food based and traditional food based

A

computers not required

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19
Q

equipment selected after

A

menu is written

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20
Q

kitchen floor space is too expansive

A

efficiency declines

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21
Q

truth in menu legislation

A

requires that menus accurately decscribe foods to be served (maine lobster, fresh fish)

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22
Q

food code

A

person in charge must be able to identify food allergens and associated symptoms

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23
Q

emergency/disaster menus

A

power failure, disruption in water supply
plan to require min staffing for prep and service
multiple days of food supplies avail
one gallon of water/person/day for min of 3 days

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24
Q

master menu steps

A
  1. plan dinner entree
  2. plan lunch entree
  3. starchy items with entrees
  4. salads, veg, accompaniments and apps
  5. desserts and breads for both lunch and dinner
  6. breakfast and other items
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25
Q

menu psychology

A

design and layout in such a way as to influence the sale of foods served
position items you want to sell more of in the first and last position within a category
center of a three-fold menu is the prime menu sales area

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26
Q

menu engineering

A

is the practice of developing menus with the goal to encourage customers to buy certain items. focuses on popularity and contribution to profit of the items

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27
Q

menu mix

A

popularity relative to other items
calculated by dividing the number sold of a particular item, by the total number of all items sold
using the formula based on having popularity greater or less than 70% of total sales

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28
Q

contribution margin

A

its contribution to profit
calculated by subtracting a menu item’s food cost from its selling price
items are categorized into high and low contribution margin based on whether the margin is above or below the average contribution margin for the entire menu

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29
Q

star menu item

A

high profit, high popularity
- items should be promoted

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30
Q

dog menu item

A

low profit, low popularity
- consider eliminating

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31
Q

puzzle menu item

A

high profit, low popularity
- consider eliminating or changing price

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32
Q

plowhorse menu item

A

low profit, high popularity
- decrease portion size or try price increase

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33
Q

average check

A

the average amount customers spent on a meal
- divide sales by the # of customers served
- helpful in detecting trends
- if lower than normal, perhaps different menu items or more promotions will help

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34
Q

popularity index

A

used to analyze and predict any items sales; chart day to day variations in demand; as well as each item’s popularity in relation to other items

servings / total servings vegetables that day

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35
Q

popularity index forecast future needs

A

if you expect to serve 300 customers next Friday, how many servings of carrots can you expect to serve?

89/204 = 44%
44% of 300 expected servings of vegetables = 129 carrots

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36
Q

benchmarking

A

compare satisfaction levels to those of other facilities which are considered best in class

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37
Q

procurement

A

first functional subsystem, function of acquiring material for production (purchase, receive, storage, inventory control)

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38
Q

profit center

A

assigned both expense and revenue responsibilities (cafeteria)

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39
Q

cost center

A

manage expenses, but do not generate profit (patient)

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40
Q

informal open market

A

when a small amount is needed quickly
buyer requests quotes on specific items for specific amounts and qualities from one or more sources of supply; contact made by phone or with vendor
place order after considering price, quality, delivery

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41
Q

formal, competitive bid buying

A

provide written specifications and quantity needs to vendors who then submit a price
bids are opened together; place order with lowest bid (price)

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42
Q

future contracts

A

purchase goods at a specific price to be shipped later

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43
Q

price vending

A

use single vendor for majority of purchases, saves time and money

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44
Q

centralized purchasing

A

personnel in one office does all purchasing for all units in that organization
cost-effective and time-saving

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45
Q

group or co-op purchasing

A

involves union of separate units (hospitals), not related to a single management for joint purchasing
economic advantage of large volume discounts

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46
Q

JIT

A

just-in-time purchasing
purchase products as needed for production and immediate consumption by customer, without having to store and record it in the inventory. receiving clerks take items immediately to area in which they will be used

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47
Q

purchase requisition

A

first document used in the purchasing process, internal form used to request items from the purchasing manager

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48
Q

purchase order

A

completed by the buyer; written record of items ordered and quantities needed

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49
Q

standing orders -

A

eliminate the need to call in daily or weekly order

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50
Q

FOB

A

free on board
products delivered with all transport charges paid

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51
Q

FOB origin

A

buyer takes ownership at seller’s location

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52
Q

technical quality

A

indicate quality by objective and impartial test results (graded food items, gauge of metals). can-cutting: open cans for comparison among brands

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53
Q

approved brand specifications

A

indicate quality by specifying a brand name

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54
Q

performance specifications

A

indicate quality by functioning characteristics of the product (how many dishes washed/min)

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55
Q

formularies

A

descriptions of approved products that an org (or a dept) would like all personnel (who need such a product) to use. volume discounts can be obtained

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56
Q

vendor performance requirements

A

compare price, quality, service
evaluate after several orders have been filled
value added services (chopped lettuce vs. heads of lettuce).

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57
Q

buyer’s code of ethics

A

can serve as legal agent for the organization
consider first the interest of your company
buy without prejudice, obtain max value for each dollar spent
denounce bribery, kickbacks
avoid collusion with vendors - decline gifts and favors that could compromise your ability to make objective purchasing decisions

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58
Q

food broker

A

does not own products; connects buyers with sellers

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59
Q

foodservice management software

A

computrition, CBORD, dietary manager, ChefMax

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60
Q

amount to order/purchase

A

based on number to be served, size portion, amount of waste
- portion size x # servings; convert to pounds (EP)
- amount to purchase = EP / % yield (amount provided by 1lb of the item

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61
Q

when determining how many servings can be obtained from an uncooked item, consider the % lost in preparation

A
  • subtract the amount that will be lost and convert to ounces
  • divide by portion size
    *lbs lost in cooking can be found by % shrinkage x raw pounds
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62
Q

EOQ

A

economic order quantity
attempts to find the quantity that minimizes both purchasing and inventory costs, determines the order size that is most economical
total annual cost of restocking an inventory product depends on the number of times it is ordered each year
- to decrease costs, place orders as seldom as possible by ordering larger quantities
- when the cost of placing an order aligns with the cost of holding the items, EOQ is obtained

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63
Q

1 lb to oz

A

16 oz

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64
Q

time series forecasting usage

A

short term forecasts; assumption that needs follow an identifiable pattern over time

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65
Q

moving average

A

uniformly weighs past observations (numbers are weighted equally)
* if you are to forecast for November, delete July and include October

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66
Q

exponential smoothing

A

uses software
- gives more recent values more weight
does NOT uniformly weigh past observations

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67
Q

causal models

A

assumption that a relationship exists between the item being forecast and other factors (selling price, number of customers)
- medium and long-term forecasts, expensive to develop

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68
Q

subjective model

A

used when relevant data are scarce or when relationships between data do not tend to persist over time - must rely on opinions

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69
Q

receiving procedures - first control

A

purchase order is first control in the receiving process

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70
Q

receiving area

A

close to delivery docks with easy access to storage

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71
Q

invoice

A

vendor’s delivery slip that accompanies the order
- suppliers’ statement of items being shipped, unit price, total expected payment
- compare invoice against purchase order first, then item against invoice
- inspect items, list on receiving report, store promptly

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72
Q

blind check receiving method

A
  • give clerk blind invoice or purchase order listing incoming merchandise but omitting quantities, weights
  • receiving clerk inserts these numbers into the order on the basis of a check of the delivery
  • forces clerk to make serious check of delivery
  • takes longer and costs more in labor
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73
Q

substitution invoice

A

use when order arrives without an invoice

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74
Q

storage room temp

A

50 - 70 F

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75
Q

storage room cartons and bags

A

carton and bags on shelves at least 6” above floor and away from walls

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76
Q

storage room humidity

A

50-60%
fresh fruits and veg require 85-90%

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77
Q

refrigerated storage - all hazardous foods

A

<41F

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78
Q

refrigerated storage - fruits and veg

A

40-45F

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79
Q

refrigerated storage - meat and dairy

A

32-40F

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80
Q

refrigerated storage - eggs

A

40-45

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81
Q

frozen food storage temp

A

0- -10F

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82
Q

storage times eggs

A

fresh eggs in shell 3-5 weeks; raw yolks, whites 2-4 days

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83
Q

storage times fresh poultry, ground meat, fresh fish, shellfish

A

1-2 days

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84
Q

storage times steaks, chops, roasts

A

3-5 days

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85
Q

security

A

theft decreases if employees know management is watching
purchaser and receiver should be different people
have employees sign in and out when taking items from storeroom

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86
Q

theft

A

is premediated burglary without force

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87
Q

robbery

A

is burglary with force

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88
Q

pilferage is

A

inventory shrinkage caused by employees stealing food

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89
Q

perpetual inventory

A

running record of balance on hand
- updated each time an item is placed in or removed from storage
- used in large operations that keep large quantities of product in stock
- generally restricted to dry and frozen storage

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90
Q

physical inventory

A

actual count of all goods on hand at end of accounting period
counted as asset on balance sheet

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91
Q

par stock method

A

bring stock up to par level each time an order it placed regardless of the amount on hand - if par is 10 and you have 8… order 2

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92
Q

fixed order quantity inventory system

A

determines the order point when you must reorder the item
(average daily use)(lead time) + safety stock

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93
Q

lead time

A

the number of days from placing order until delivery

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94
Q

safety stock

A

small back up supply to ensure against sudden increases in use

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95
Q

FIFO first in, first out (stock rotation)

A

process of rearranging merchandise so that the older containers are in front and are issued first. takes extra work but pays off by eliminating the problem of stale merchandise

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96
Q

mini-max method

A

stock is allowed to deplete to safety level before new order is placed. establish min and max amounts to have on hand.
- order goods when min is reached and only in the amount needed to reach the max level
- amount of item ordered will be the same each time it is ordered

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97
Q

ABC inventory classification system

A

small amounts of product account for major portion of inventory value
- <20% of the total # of items in stock constitute 75-80% of the total annual value of purchases = A items (vital, high value).
- 50-60% of inventory items comprise only 5-10% of the value = C items (trivial, low value)
- items between the A and C ranges are in the B class (moderate, medium value)
- tightest controls needed for A items (most expensive, often proteins)

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98
Q

actual purchase price

A

based on actual purchase price of the product; count products; add values of all products on hand

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99
Q

weighted average purchase price

A

time consuming
- based on average price paid for products over time
multiply number of units of each product in opening inventory and those purchased during the month by the purchase price
- add these prices and divide by the total number of units

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100
Q

FIFO value of inventory

A

based on last price paid multiplied by the number of units on inventory
- uses most recent prices to tends to price inventor high

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101
Q

LIFO value of inventory

A

last in, first out; uses oldest price paid for an item in inventory
- usually underestimates value of current inventory
- current purchases are largely made to meet current production demands

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102
Q

latest purchase price

A

last price paid for the product, simple and fast

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103
Q

central ingredient room

A

quality control measure; assure storage, inventory, production control; saves food costs

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104
Q

inventory technology

A

use of bar code to identify products. includes a 5 digit manufacturer ID number and a five digit product number

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105
Q

inventory technology - number system

A

the number system is a single digit which identifies the type of product

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106
Q

inventory technology - manufacturer code

A

the manufacturer code

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107
Q

inventory technology - product code

A

the product code is a unique code assigned by the manufacturer

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108
Q

inventory technology - check digit

A

the check digit is an additional digit used to verify that a bar has been scanned correctly.

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109
Q

dispersion systems

A

mixture of solids, liquids, gases

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110
Q

gas in liquid

A

whipped egg whites (foam)

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111
Q

gas in solid

A

sponge cake (suspension)

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112
Q

liquid in liquid

A

mayo (emulsion)

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113
Q

solid in liquid

A

gravy (sol)

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114
Q

liquid in solid

A

custard (gel)

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115
Q

small particles

A

sugar, salt: true solution

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116
Q

large particles

A

protein, cooked starch: colloidal dispersion

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117
Q

clumps of molecules

A

fat, uncooked starch: suspension which separates upon standing

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118
Q

to change degree of dispersion

A

apply heat or beat

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119
Q

interface

A

line that forms between two immiscible liquids (oil and water)

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120
Q

process vegetables

A
  • at a higher temp than 212F to destroy botulism
  • pressure cooker can be used to can low acid veg because it reaches a temperature higher than 212F
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121
Q

beets are sometimes pickled with

A

vinegar (acetic acid) which lowers the pH, and can now be canned in a boiling water bath

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122
Q

green vegetables overcooked or canned

A

acid causes loss of color
magnesium is removed; molecule becomes pheophytin which is brown or olive green
to prevent - cook for short time; leave lid off for first few min to allow escape of volatile acids

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123
Q

if baking soda (alkaline) is added to green veg

A

intense green color due to chlorophyllin
mushy, water-soluble vitamins lost

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124
Q

angel food cake - cream of tartar

A

acidic PH
maintains white color by preventing the Maillard browning reaction
contributes to large volume by stabilizing egg white foam
contributes to tender crumb
without cream of tartar: tough, yellow, small cake

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125
Q

enzymes

A

act as catalysts to facilitate chemical reactions
- may remain active after cells die
- all are proteins (affected by temp and pH)
- role in ripening of fruit - converts starch to sugar, softens
- blanch veg before freezing to destroy enzymes

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126
Q

non-enzymatic browning - maillard reaction

A

initial step is combo of a reducing sugar and an AA
maillard reaction mostly occurs in an alkaline environment. baking soda and solid sugar will result in deep brown colors. baking powder has an acid
browning of bread
more rapid browning - increase pH (6 or higher), increase temp

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127
Q

conduction

A

heat moves from one particle to another by contact
good conductors - copper, black cast iron, aluminum
poor conductors - glass, stainless steel

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128
Q

convection

A

heated air moved with fan
- tnrasfer of heat by the circulation of currents of hot air or liquid resulting from the change in density when heated. as the less dense, hot substance rises, it pushes aside the more dense, cooler material.

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129
Q

induction

A

use of electrical magnetic vibrations to excite the molecules of metal cooking surfaces
- burner has no open flame, burner surface does not get hot
- pan itself is the original generator of the cooking heat, transferred to food by cocnduction
- faster heat, not wasted heat, iron-based

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130
Q

radiation

A

infrared waves coming from glowing heat
microwave - causes kinetic action (friction) that cooks food.
affects only water molecules, penetrates two inches into food
mainly used to heat prepared foods

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131
Q

NOTE: steak on grill or meat braising in a steam-jacketed kettle use both

A

conduction and radiation

132
Q

engineered foods - meat analogs

A

isolated soy protein, vegetable protein, fat, carb, vitamins, minerals, flavor, color (less fat than meat, about 50% protein, not saturated fat)

133
Q

engineered foods - seafood analogs

A

soy blended with fish, retains flavor, does not change greatly when heated thus reducing weight loss and shrinkage; economical

134
Q

engineered foods - vegetable blends

A

Incaparina (maize, sorghum, cottonseed flour), CSM (corn, soy, non fat dry milk, vitamins, minerals)

135
Q

molds

A

warm 77-86F, damp, dark conditions, grow best on acid, neutral, sweet foods, used in curing cheese, making soy suace
usually does not produce harmful substances; boil to destroy

136
Q

yeasts

A

water, energy, acid medium in oxygen 77-86F, bread-making, produces bubbles of gas; destroyed by boiling

137
Q

bacteria

A

need abundant moisture, neutral foods, 68-113F
some > 113 F 0 thermophilic; aerobic or anaerobic
- destroyed by temperatures of pastaurization (145F 30 min)
- danger zone 40-140F or 41 - 135F

138
Q

FATTOM

A

ideal conditions for microorganism growth: food, acidity, temperature, time, oxygen, moisture

139
Q

enzymes

A

produce both desirable and undesirable effects
- act at body temps; inactive at boiling

140
Q

methods of food preservation

A

chilling
freezing
drying

141
Q

freezing

A

freezing foods at <0’ is least damaging to flavor and texture
preserves quality, nutritive value, chemical and physical properties
growth of microorganisms prevented by cold temps and lack of water
adding salt ot foods being frozen causes loss of flavor and increases rancidity of any item containing fat

142
Q

dehydrofreezing

A

dried to 50% of weight and volume then frozen

143
Q

thawing foods

A

in refrigerator; or submerge under running cold water at 70F or lower
- if thawed in microwave, cook immediately

144
Q

cryogenic freezing

A

very low temps (238F) using liquid nitrogen or CO2

145
Q

drying

A

low water content prevents growth of microorganisms
need appropriate water level in dehydrated foods to ensure food safety and shelf life.
microorganisms grow well at an aw of .91 - .99

146
Q

the aw that limits growth

A

is 0.70 to 0.90. the lower limit for all microorganisms is 0.60 aw

147
Q

dehydration

A

fruits 80% water removed; veg 95% water removed

148
Q

sublimation

A

frozen first, then water is evaporated without melting crystals

149
Q

canning

A

FSIS inspects canned product manufacturing
done under high pressure for short time to preserve quality
bacteria grow best at pH near neutrality
most foods have a pH of 7 or less

150
Q

botulism more readily destroyed by

A

heat in acid

151
Q

if pH is low <4.5

A

acid is high, use boiling water (strawberries, apples, pickles)

152
Q

if pH is high >4.5

A

acid is low; use pressure cooker (carrots, beets, peas)

153
Q

calcium compounds

A

are additives used as humectants; retain moisture, increase firmness, tenderness

154
Q

aseptic canning

A

food sterilized outside of can, then aseptically placed in sterile cans which are sealed in an aseptic environment

155
Q

irradiation

A

cold sterilization (temp of food does not rise much even though large amounts of energy are used)
approved by FDA for spices, beef, lamb, pork, poultry, wheat, potatoes
kills most harmful bacteria in foods other than milk

156
Q

pascalization

A

HPP high pressure processing; extends shelf life (guac)

157
Q

chemical preservatives

A

BHA, BHT - antioxidants for fatty products (preserve butter, meat)

158
Q

sugar, salt

A

make water unavailable for bacterial growth

159
Q

quality control

A

employee evals, taste panels, customer reaction
problem: lack of objective measures

160
Q

to determine the number of ounces in a scoop (disher)

A

divide the scoop number into 32

161
Q

1 qt

A

32 oz

162
Q

1 gal

A

128 oz

163
Q

1 cup

A

8 oz

164
Q

1 pint

A

16 oz = 1 lb

165
Q

Gantt progress chart

A

used to schedule and control work
concerned with TIME of production, not costs
rows on chart are tasks to be completed
horizontal bars indicate time period ot complete each task

166
Q

PERT

A

program evaluation and review technique, CPM - critical path method
- show relationships among phases of a project
- shows what activities must await completion of other tasks and which activities can be performed concurrently
- can calculate total amount of time to complete
- need sequencing requirements, estimate of time for each activity
- critical path - determines the min time for completion
- if any of this is delayed, projcect will be delayed

167
Q

conventional

A

all prep is done on premises where meals are served, foods are prepared and served on same day
advantages - more adaptable to individual preferences, menu flexibility, low distribution costs, less freezer storage needed
disadvantages - uneven stressful workday caused by peak meal period demands, productivity lower as menus differ daily, high labor costs. need all pre-prep, cooking, and serving equip, skilled and unskilled labor.

168
Q

centralized tray set up

A

trays set up close to production under common supervision
- heated/refrigerated carts; heated pellets
- insulated trays - concern is how quickly can the tray be delivered

169
Q

decentralized tray set up

A

used where distance from kitchen to patient is great
- bulk food delivered; trays set up in areas separate from production, close to customer
- duplication of equipment, employees, supervisors

170
Q

automated cart system delivery

A

built-in corridors (monorail), decision to use is made in the planning stage (blueprint) of kitchen design

171
Q

commissary - satellite

A

centralizes procurement and production; food production (kitchen) and service areas (patients) are in separate facilities
- menu items are in bulk or portioned, then frozen, chilled or hot-held; carriers are filled at the commissary and delivered to the service units
- advantages: uniform quality of products for all units, large volume purchasing, large sophisticated equipment
- need highly skilled personnel
- disadvantages - delivery and safety issues; has 9 critical control points

172
Q

ready-prepared (cook-chill, cook-freeze)

A

not produced for immediate service but for inventory and subsequent withdrawal
- foods are prepared on site, then frozen, chilled for later use; requires blast chiller or freezer, adequate
- separation between time of prep and time of service
- food may be held 1-5 days (blast chilling); up to 45 days (tumbled chilled), up to 3-4 months (cook freeze)
- bulk foods should be brought down to 37F in 90 min or less
- advantages - offsets critical shortage of high-skilled employees; production schedule more liberal, decreased job stress related to production deadlines, labor costs lower
- disadvantages - cost of large cold storage, freezers, and space needed; need all prep-prep, cooking and serving equipment

173
Q

ready-prepared (cook-chill, cook-freeze) - rethermalization

A
  • microwaves
  • convection oven: food heated in bulk; reaches temp more rapidly
  • integral heat system (converts electric energy to heat through carbon resistors fused to bottom of dishes)
  • immersion technique: heat pouches of food in boiling water or steamers
174
Q

assembly-serve (total convenience)

A

purchase completely prepared individual portions; finish by thawing, heating on premises. no on-site food production. kitchen-less kitchen. reheat, assemble.
advantages - only has 4 critical control points
- curtails lbaor time by separating manufacture from distribution; no skilled cooks or pre-prep employees needed; equipment and space requirements are minimal
disadvantage - limited menu items, quality, acceptability

175
Q

display cooking

A

restaurant design where food is displayed and prepared in full view of the diner

176
Q

traditional cafeteria

A

serves 3-4/min

177
Q

scramble, hollow square, free-flow

A

separate counters for hot foods, salads
- serves a greater number of people
- used with “repeat” customers (employee or school cafeteria)
- if the scramble system is too slow, add food stations

178
Q

food bank electronic

A

precooked, frozen meal, color-coded for microwave

179
Q

to determine seat turnover

A

divide customers per meal by number of seats. if you have 150 customers and 100 seats (150/100), seats turnover 1.5 times during the meal period

180
Q

buffet, smorgasbord

A

watch contamination, use sneeze guards, eye appeal is important

181
Q

table service - American

A

waiter takes order and food is portioned onto plates in kitchen

182
Q

table service - French

A

portions brought to table on platter; waiter completes preparation at table (carving, making sauce, flaming)
* most expensive

183
Q

table service - Russian

A

prepared and portioned in kitchen; brought to table on serving platters, waiter serves individual portions to each guest

184
Q

table service - family style

A

guests serve themselves from platters or bowls

185
Q

table service - banquet

A

preset menu and service for a given number of people

186
Q

hold frozen

A

0 - -10

187
Q

transport hot

A

165-170

188
Q

reheat food

A

to 165 for 15 seconds within 2 hours

189
Q

leftovers cooled in what two stage process

A

cook quickly from 135-70 within 2 hours
cool from 70-40 within an additional 4 hours

190
Q

hold cold food

A

40 F or less

191
Q

USDA’s FSIS

A

food safety and inspection service
- meat and poultry division
wholesome meat and poultry act
eggs products inspections act

192
Q

wholesome meat and poultry act

A

inspects all meat and poultry at time of slaughter and of processed products during production used in interstate, intrastate, and foreign commerce

193
Q

eggs products inspections act

A

inspects processing plants; requires pasteurization of liquid eggs to be frozen or dried

194
Q

US department of commerce
NMFS

A

national marine fisheries service
- inspects and certifies fishing vessels, seafood processing plants, retail facilities for federal sanitation standards. US grade A: met sanitation and quality standards
grades for shellfish are based on size

195
Q

DHHS - PHS

A

public health service
- concerned with infectious and contagious diseases transmitted through shellfish, milk, vending machines and restaurants
contaminated shellfish transmit heptatitis
milk ordinance code - requires pasteurization of milk

196
Q

CDC pulsenet system

A

early warning system for outbreaks of foodborne disease, national network of labs that fingerprint bacteria

197
Q

CDC FoodNet

A

trends of foodborne diseases over time, developed interventions

198
Q

FDA - center for food safety and applied nutrition (CFSAN)

A

food, drug, cosmetic act - law that covers all interstate (domestic and imported) food EXCEPT meat, fish, poultry, eggs
- inspect food processing factories, raw materials, labeling, inspection of egg substitutes and imitation eggs, monitors interstate shipping of shellfish
- prohibits adulteration - lowering of quality by mixing or substituting substsances
- prohibits misbranding - use of deceitful or unfair labeling
- additives

199
Q

GRAS

A

generally recognized as safe due to long term use but has not been tested

200
Q

food additive amendment

A

producer of additive must prove safety

201
Q

delaney clause

A

anything causing cancer in animals or humans must be removed from market

202
Q

standard of identity

A

defines what a product must be to be called by a certain name (mayo)

203
Q

standard of quality

A

specifies minimum quality below which foods must not fall (fruit)

204
Q

standard of fill

A

containers - protects against deception through use of containers that appear to hold more than they do (canned goods)

205
Q

imitation

A

often nutritionally inferior, may cost less, taste the same
FDA controls

206
Q

substitute

A

nutritionally equal or superior in some ways and inferior in others
FDA controls

207
Q

EPA

A

environmental protection agency
- establish and monitor water quality standards; determines safety and tolerance levels for pesticides

208
Q

food intoxications

A

illness caused by toxin in food prior to consumption
- staphylococcus aureus
- clostridium botulinum
- clostridium perfringens
- baccilus cereus

209
Q

staphylococcus aureus

A

found in humans - nose, hand, intestines, cuts, sores
enters through handling or contact with contaminated surface
grows best at 70-97F; resists drying, freezing; not destroyed by cooking
reheated foods, high in protein, meat, poultry, eggs, milk products, stuffing
1-7 hours after ingestion: nausea, vomiting, pain, diarrhea, NO FEVER
- wash hands, chill food quickly, cool food in shallow pans

210
Q

clostridium botulinum

A

anaerobic - rare and more deadly; unusually resistant to heat
found in soil, water, plants, intestinal tract
4-36 hours - weakness, double vision, fatigue, diarrhea, affects central nervous system, inability to swallow, may be fatal
- spoils low acid foods, improperly canned foods, vacuum-packed, and tightly wrapped foods, smoked and salted fish, cooked root veg held at warm temps
- honey is a source - do not give to infants

211
Q

clostridium perfringens

A

anaerobic - intestinal tract human and animals, surfaces of meat and poultry
- 8-18 hours - N/V/D, abdominal pain
improperly cooked and reheated foods, cafeteria bug - meat, soups, gravies, stews, casserole
to prevent - cool foods in shallow pans, keep cold food below 40F, keep hot food above 140F, reheat leftovers properly, wash hands

212
Q

bacillus cereus

A

forms spores, found in soil, dush, grains, rice, flour, cereal - aerobic
- emetic (N/V); diarrheal (D/C)
30 - 6 hrs emetic, 6-15 hours diarrheal; lasts up to 24 hours
emetic - rice products, fried rice, starchy foods, food mixtures
diarrhea - meats, milk, veg, fish

213
Q

food borne infections

A

activity of bacteria carried by food into GI tract

214
Q

salmonella

A

6-48 hrs - fever, nausea, vomiting, chills, headache; lasts 2-3 days
GI tract of humans and animals, water, soil; spread by food handlers
low acid foods at room temp, destroyed by pastaurization
raw and undercooked meat and poultry, eggs, raw dairy, seafood, melons

215
Q

streptococcus

A

intestinal contents of humans animals; caused by poor hygiene; grows at 50-113F; destroyed by cooking
milk, eggs, potato salad, food held at room temp for hours
- onset 2-60 days; fever/diarrhea

216
Q

listeria monocytogenes

A

symptoms in 2-30 days
- human, animal intestinal tract, unwashed veg, fruits, soil, water
grows between 34-113F on neutral or slightly alkaline; resists freezing, drying, heat
- hot dogs, lunch/deli meats, cold cuts, coleslaw, raw milk, soft cheese
- may harm fetus
- can cause flu like symptoms

217
Q

campylobacter jejuni

A

one of the most common causes of the stomach flu
- intestinal tract of cattle, sheep, poultry, pigs
- abdominal pain, bloody diarrhea, 3-5 days; lasts 2-10 days
- raw or undercooked meat or poultry, raw milk, raw veg
- prevent cross-contamination between raw and cooked foods

218
Q

vibrio parahaemolyticus, vibrio vulnificus

A

from raw or undercooked seafood (shellfish, oysters)
- fever vomiting, cramps, diarrhea, 16 hours after ingestion, lasts 48 hours
- yields a norovirus

219
Q

shigella

A

human intestinal tract, water polluted by feces, bare hands and flies
cold mixed salads (chicken, tuna, potato), raw veg, watermelon
- 12-50 hours after ingestion, bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, 4-7 days

220
Q

escherichia coli

A

human, animal intestinal tract; bloody diarrhea, severe cramping
- slow onset; 3-8 days after ingestion, lasts 5-10 days
- rare or raw ground beef, uncooked fruits and veg, raw milk, unpasteurized apple juice
- can survive freezing, high acidity, can grow at fridge temps

221
Q

norovirus

A

illness caused by poor personal hygiene among infected food handlers
does not reproduce in humans, but remains active until food is eaten
found in human feces, transmitted through contaminated water, human contact, veg fertilized by manure, ice cubes, ready to eat food
- N/D/V in 24-48 hrs, lasts 1-2 days

222
Q

most critical elements of food safety

A

hand washing and control of proper time and temp

223
Q

standard operating procedures

A

SOPs - written step by step instructions for routine tasks. documentation is a prerequisite for the quality control model of HACCP

224
Q

HACCP definition

A

preventive approach to quality control, identifying potential dangers for corrective action, identifies food hazards and high hazard jobs

225
Q

CCP

A

critical control points in food service where a loss of control would result in an unacceptable safety risk

226
Q

ccp for food service

A

commissary - 9
ready prepared - 8
conventional - 5
assembly serve - 4

227
Q

HACCP seven principles

A

conduct hazard analysis
determine CCP
establish critical limits
procedures for monitoring
correct actions
procedures for verification
record keeping

(HACCP CPR)

228
Q

food safety modernization act

A

FSMA - FDA focus more on preventing food safety problems

229
Q

food recalls

A

made by manufacturer. monitor notifications by FDA and USDA. remove item from inventory and store in secure and appropriate location away from food, utensils, equipment, linens

230
Q

food recalls - class I

A

involves a health hazard situation in which there is a reasonable probability that eating the food will cause health problems or death

231
Q

food recalls - class II

A

involves a potential health hazard situation in which there is a remote probability of adverse health consequences from eating the food

232
Q

food recalls - class III

A

involves a situation in which eating the food will not cause adverse health consequences

233
Q

bioterrorism

A

the intentional use of biological agents or germs to cause illness.

234
Q

ALERT

A

identifies measures to minimize risk of food being subjected to tempering
- assure
- look
- employees
- report
- threat

235
Q

PPE

A

personal protective equipment: rubber gloves, protective glasses

236
Q

HCS

A

hazard communication standard - requires plan to communicate chemical hazards to employees. MSDS - material safety data sheet - must be available on all hazardous materials

237
Q

OSHA blood borne pathogens standard

A

requires notice to employees of all potentially infectious materials

238
Q

three E’s of safety

A

engineering - built in safety features of building and equipment
education - policies, on the job training, keep records of accidents and injuries
enforcement - follow-up, periodic inspection using a checklist

239
Q

integrated pest management

A

denys pest access, food, water, a nesting place. use a licensed pest control operator. install mesh screens over ventilation pipes. inspection by state/county/city/town health inspectors

240
Q

OSHA

A

occupational safety and health act (law)
min safety standards; record keeping of accidents and illnesses
inspection of facilities looking for safety hazards (wet floor), fire extinguishers, handrails on stairs, lighted passageways, first aid supplies

241
Q

class A fire extinguisher

A

ordinary combustible materials, wood, paper, cloth
triangle

242
Q

class B fire extinguisher

A

flammable liquids, gases, greases
square/rectangle

243
Q

class C fire extinguisher

A

live electrical fires
circle

244
Q

class K fire extinguisher

A

Involve cooking oils, fats, & greases typically found in commercial kitchens

commercial kitchens that use appliances and oils operating at much higher temps than previous oils and appliances

hexagon

245
Q

fire extinguishers

A

multi-purpose dry chemical (ammonium sulfate, mono ammonium phosphate, mica, talc) can be used on A, B, C, classes of fires

246
Q

most common chemicals used in sanitizing surfaces

A

chlorine solution
iodine
quaternary ammonia

247
Q

most state and local codes require immersion in chemical solutions for at least

A

60 seconds using water above 75F

248
Q

facility layout planning for design

A
  • prepare a prospectus - planning guide
  • organize planning team
  • feasibility study
  • analyze menu
249
Q

ergonomics, environmental design

A

human engineering
studies activities so they are done safely and efficiently
comfortable seating, noise control, mobile equipment, close to storage areas
easy entrance and exit, place work areas to facilitate smooth flow patterns

250
Q

equipment is based on the

A

menu

251
Q

space required determined by

A

market form of foods purchased (raw, prepared, partially prepared)

252
Q

walls

A

glazed tiles, 5’8” high, washable, impervious to moisture

253
Q

ceilings

A

acoustically treated, lighter in color than walls; 14-18’ high

254
Q

floors

A

resilient, durable, non-slippery

255
Q

floors - concrete

A

light traffic, absorbs grease, use in storerooms, receiving areas

256
Q

floors - terrazzo

A

cement and crushed marble; noisy dining room

257
Q

floors - quarry tile

A

unglazed red clay tiles - kitchen and heavy traffic

258
Q

floors - asphalt

A

light traffic, dining room

259
Q

ventilation

A

temp 68F, fan system - eliminates cooking odors, moisture

260
Q

lighting

A

intensity measured in foot candles - how bright the light is one foot away from the source

261
Q

dry storage lighting

A

at least 10

262
Q

handwashing, warewashing, self service food areas

A

min of 20

263
Q

general lighting in food prep and display areas

A

at least 50

264
Q

localized detail work areas, reading recipes

A

70-100

265
Q

flow chart

A

show steps the work must take, their sequence, the relation of working units to each other

266
Q

templates

A

models of equipment cut to scale used in layouts

267
Q

cafeteria - chairs and tables

A

18” between chairs; tables 4-5’ apart

268
Q

cafeteria - serving width

A

14’ - 4’ patron lane, 1’ tray slide, 2’ counter width, 41/2’ workers, 2 1/2’ backbar

269
Q

cafeteria - employee dining

A

12 sq ‘ per person

270
Q

kitchen aisle space - lane with one person

A

36-42”

271
Q

kitchen aisle space - lane with > one person or where mobile equipment passes through

A

48-52”

272
Q

kitchen aisle space - main traffic lane

A

60”

273
Q

kitchen - floor area

A

20-30 sq feet per bed

274
Q

optimum counter height kitchen

A

heavy work 36”; light work 37-41”

275
Q

clearance of heavy equipment from wall

A

12-24”

276
Q

work area layout - straight line

A
  • Simplest, most preferred, & best flow plan with regards to efficiency
  • Materials move in a continuous, linear fashion from one process to the next
  • Reduces backtracking, saves time in preparation, & eliminates confusion regarding the movement of items in and out of the kitchen
277
Q

work area layout - back to back parallel

A

Equipment is arranged on workspaces in two straight parallel lines; Quite efficient

278
Q

work area layout - L shape

A
  • If there is limited space available to accommodate a straight-line or back-to-back parallel layout, the L-shape layout is a suitable, efficient option
  • Allows for easy access to multiple groups of equipment, provides a convenient work surface, & can be adjusted to fit the needs of table-service restaurants
279
Q

work area layout - U shape

A
  • Provides sufficient work surface area but can be inefficient in terms of adding extra steps since it requires walking in & out
280
Q

electrical

A

voltage, watts, type of current

281
Q

gas

A

BTU - british thermal unit

282
Q

steam

A

PSI - pounds per sq inch

283
Q

national sanitation foundation international

A

NSFI
voluntary inspection of equipment
equipment that is safe

284
Q

underwriter’s lab

A

UL
voluntary inspection of electrical equipment

285
Q

stainless steel

A

durable, wears well
the lower the gauge the stronger the metal
10-14 gauge galvanized steel or 12-16 noncorrosive metals are most often used for equipment
- most saucepans are 18-20 gauge because heavier stainless steel does not conduct heat as well

286
Q

aluminum

A

strong, lightweight, mobile equipment, storage cabinets

287
Q

finish (luster) of metals

A
  • numbered 1-7; higher numbers, higher polish, finish, luster
  • # 4 grind - standard polish, one or both sides, table tops, counters
  • A lower number, such as #1, indicates a highly rough surface, while a higher number, like #7, suggests an almost mirror-like reflective surface
  • Highly reflective metal surfaces have the potential to create glare from lighting sources & highly rough surfaces can harbor bacteria & be tough to clean
  • When it comes to work surfaces, #4 is preferable because it minimizes glare & maintains appropriate surface smoothness
288
Q

dishwashing three compartment sink - wash

A

110-120 F

289
Q

dishwashing three compartment sink - rinse

A

warm water

290
Q

dishwashing three compartment sink - sanitize

A

170F for at least 30 seconds or use chemical solution for 1 min in lukewarm water (75F)

291
Q

dishwashing three compartment sink - drying

A

let pots and pans air dry
washed utensils should be air-dried and stored covered on a mobile cart

292
Q

mechanical dish washer - pre-rinse, pre-wash

A

110-140F
- liquefies fat, removes food before hot water coagulates protein

293
Q

mechanical dish washer - wash

A

140-160F
lower temp leads to greasy dishes

294
Q

mechanical dish washer - rinse

A

170-180F
sanitizes; booster heater
drying agent will prevent water spots

295
Q

mechanical dish washer - air-dry

A

45 seconds

296
Q

low chemical dishmachine

A

save energy - no booster heater; water temp at 140F
increase use of detergents, rinse aids, water; require longer drying time; bleach used to sanitize may stain silver

297
Q

meals per hour - counter style

A

up to 50

298
Q

meals per hour - door style, single tank

A

50-250

299
Q

meals per hour - single or double tank conveyor

A

250-1500

300
Q

meals per hour - flite-type conveyor

A

1500+

301
Q

hard water

A

contains a high proportion of minerals or salts. encourages formation of soap scum; more difficult for surfactants (foaming agents) in soap to form lather. need to use more detergent

302
Q

ovens - deck

A

units stacked to save space; when production is high and space is limited

303
Q

ovens - convection

A

fan for circulation; even heat distribution; more quantity; lower temp (decrease 25-35 degrees); takes less time (10-15% less)

304
Q

ovens - rotary, reel, revolving tray

A

food is in motion while inside the oven; large volume baking; now also used for meat cookery

305
Q

ovens - microwave

A

on-demand serving, saves time, reheat prepared foods

306
Q

ovens - tilting skillet

A

very versatile; serves as oven, frypan, braising pan, kettle, steamer, food warmer
stews, soups, fried chicken, grilled cheese, scrambled eggs

307
Q

steam cooking

A

more energy efficient than electric or gas
reaches at least 212 degrees
measured in PSI
temp rises as pressure rises
PSI of 15 = temp 250 F

308
Q

large batch compartment steamers in PSI

A

5-8 psi

309
Q

high pressure steamers

A

15 psi, cooks small batches quickly
speed facilitates batch cooking - vegetables

310
Q

no pressure convection steamers

A

compact, can handle large quantities; steam enters at 212 (0 psi)

311
Q

steam jacketed kettle

A

two sections of stainless steel with air space between for circulation of steam
food does not touch steam; must be near a source of water and a drain
uses both conduction and radiation heating; very energy efficiency
- 5-8 PSI

312
Q

kettle sizes veg

A

5-20 gal

313
Q

kettle sizes - entree

A

up to 40 gallons

314
Q

kettle sizes - high liquid

A

> 40 gal

315
Q

infrared tubes

A

keep food warm, less loss of moisture over conventional heating units

316
Q

mixers

A

planetary action, arm moves in circle while rotating beater

317
Q

deep fat fryers

A

stainless steel
- recovery time - how quickly it returns to proper temp after a batch of food has been cooked (batch cooking = cook small batches quickly, french fries)
- fry under pressure to decrease cooking time

318
Q

conduct energy audits

A

choose Energy star (EPA and Dept of Energy) and Watersense (EPA) water- conserving appliances

319
Q

food waste management

A

reduce, reuse, recycle
develop integrated waste management systems to include source of reduction, recycling, and waste combustion

320
Q

during power outage - fridge/freezer

A

refrigerator should keep food safely cold for about 4 hours, full freezer for 48 hours if door is closed

321
Q

during power outage - inventory

A

keep a 7 day inventory of shelf-stable items for the number of meals anticipated
96 hours hospital, 72 hours residential care

322
Q

in a flood

A

food in report pouches would be safe

323
Q

decision making

A
  1. analyze the problem
  2. identify possible solutions
  3. compare alternatives
  4. choose one
324
Q

education training

A
  1. assess what they know now
  2. assess level of skill
  3. assess language skills
325
Q

community programs

A
  1. assess the situation/needs
  2. plan
  3. implement
  4. evaluate
326
Q

evaluation

A
  1. determine the standard
  2. compare action to standard
  3. adjust as needed
327
Q

management

A
  1. participative style is the emerging trend
  2. plan, organize, staff/direct, control/evaluate
  3. make employees feel responsible, accountable and important

RDN Exam (14 decks)

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