EatRightPrep Questions Flashcards
Astringency
Astringency is a taste sensation that is most often associated with the tannins in foods. It should not be confused with sour taste like in lemons and grapefruit. Astringency has a puckering and “dry” sensation in the mouth and is found in tea, coffee, wine, chocolates, and certain fruits (most notably underripe fruit).
educational objectives vs educational goals
Educational objectives specify the means to achieve an outcome, whereas educational goals do not specify how an outcome will be reached
example: Given a list of foods, participant will identify those highest in MUFA
Q. What percentage of total energy from fat should be provided through an elemental (hydrolyzed) formula to prevent essential fatty acid deficiency (EFAD)?
Enteral formulas should provide the patient with at least 3%-4% of total energy as fat in order to decrease the chances of developing EFAD.
Sepsis
is a life-threatening chain reaction triggered when the body’s response to infection-fighting chemicals is out of balance
Ascites
Ascites is the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity. It may be caused by portal hypertension.
Q. Which of the following indicates a breastfeeding infant has a good latch?
Among the signs that a breastfeeding infant has a good latch are that the infant’s cheeks are rounded, swallowing is audible, there are no clicking or smacking sounds, and the infant’s chin is touching the breast.
Q. What is the recommended parts per million of available chlorine for a lukewarm, 1-minute chlorine bath used to sanitize dishes and utensils?
It is recommended that a minimum of 50 ppm available chlorine be used in a lukewarm chlorine bath to sanitize dishes and utensils.
Q. Which of the following is a person with opioid addiction likely to experience?
Opioids delay gastric emptying, leading to constipation.
Q. Women with gestational diabetes typically require less carbohydrates at which meal, compared to the others?
Many women with gestational diabetes are more insulin resistant in the early morning and can thus tolerate less carbohydrate at breakfast.
Q. Which of the following processes occurs in response to an increase in plasma glucose concentrations?
With an increase in plasma glucose, glycogen synthesis occurs. Gluconeogenesis is stimulated by glucagon, growth hormone, epinephrine, and cortisol; insulin increases; and glycogenolysis takes place when there is a decrease in glucose levels.
Q. Which of the following actions would likely be the result of systems thinking?
Systems thinking is the management approach to considering the entire organization when making decisions or allocating resources. Rescheduling kitchen staff to prepare food to meet customer expectations changes the kitchen and staff/resource entirely. Making a change to the produce delivery does not change the kitchen.
Q. Among the following foods, which would be reintroduced last after bowel resection?
Fluids and soft foods are reintroduced to the diet first following bowel resection. Coffee has proven to be effective in stimulating postsurgical bowel movements. It is recommended that eating any fresh fruit except bananas be delayed until 4-6 weeks postsurgery.
Q. Which of the following should be the frontline test when diagnosing food allergy?
For diagnosing a true food allergy, the gold standard is the double-blind, placebo-controlled food challenge. According to the National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases, basophil histamine release/activation, lymphocyte stimulation, facial thermography, gastric juice analysis, endoscopic allergen provocation, hair analysis, applied kinesiology, provocation neutralization, allergen-specific IgG, cytotoxicity assays, electrodermal test (Vega), and mediator release assay (LEAP diet) all lack the requisite evidence to be recommended for use in diagnosing food allergy.
Q. Which acts as an emulsifier in food preparation?
Egg yolks are high in phospholipids, which contain both lipophilic fatty acid groups and hydrophilic head groups. These allow aqueous and fatty substances to become stable in an emulsion.
Q. Which laboratory values can be abnormally low when evaluating nutritional status in patients with liver disease?
Albumin and prealbumin may be moderately or abnormally low in patients with liver disease, even in the presence of good nutrition. These proteins decrease in production in a diseased liver.
Q. Which substance is necessary for production of bile?
Cholesterol is of one of many components of bile; it is the primary sterol in bile.
Q. Which of the following is the best option for a vegan menu?
Among those listed, quinoa mixed with tamari is the best option for a vegan diet. Many nondairy creamers contain a small percentage of sodium caseinate, which is derived from milk; honey is derived from animals; and buffalo sauce often contains butter.
TCS
TCS refers to time/temperature control for safety. TCS foods are safe at 41°F or below and 135°F and above.
Q. Which of the following is the term for “a general or modified diet prescribed and documented in a client’s medical record”?
A diet order is a general or modified diet prescribed and documented in a client medical record by a credentialed provider as part of a medical treatment plan
Q. People with cystic fibrosis are most likely to become deficient in
Both zinc and fat-soluble vitamins are lost in the stool of individuals with cystic fibrosis due to pancreatic insufficiency.
Q. Which vitamin deficiency is likely to develop in a patient with liver disease?
Vitamin D deficiency is frequently reported in liver disease patients and is thought to result from impaired synthesis and absorption.
Q. Which of the following lists the tasks, duties, and responsibilities of a job, the job’s working condition, and the tools, materials, and equipment used to perform it?
A job description details the tasks, duties, and responsibilities of a job, as well as the working conditions and tools and equipment to be used on the job.
Q. Which non-essential compound is used to transport non-esterified long-chain fatty acids into the mitochondria for beta oxidation?
Carnitine, found in most body tissues, is needed for the transport of fatty acids. This is especially true for long-chain fatty acids, which need carnitine across the inner mitrochondrial membrane for oxidation.
Q. Stools that are clay-colored indicate a disturbance in the production or secretion of which of the following?
Clay color in stool may indicate biliary obstruction of the flow of bile to the intestine. This obstruction may be caused by a tumor or gallstone in the bile duct or pancreas. The change in stool color as related to these conditions is often a gradual process.
Q. Intake of _____ should be carefully monitored in patients with kidney disease because phosphorous is more easily absorbed from this source.
Dietary phosphorus is found in organic and inorganic sources. Organic sources are animal and vegetarian; inorganic sources are food preservatives. A concern for patients with chronic kidney disease is that the body could absorb as much as 100% of inorganic phosphorus via processed foods. Because absorption rate is variable among different sources, whether a phosphorus source is organic or inorganic and whether it is animal or vegetarian, is noteworthy for this population. Emphasize intake of plant-based proteins and foods containing no inorganic phosphorus additives in these patients.
Q. What is the recommended test to screen for gestational diabetes in a client who has a history of roux-en-Y gastric bypass surgery and is experiencing dumping syndrome?
It is recommended to check fasting and 2-hour postprandial blood glucose levels for 1 week during 24–28 weeks gestation. A 1-hour glucose tolerance test (GTT) or 3-hour GTT could trigger dumping syndrome, as a high glucose load causes a hyperosmolar environment in the small bowel and the GTT can also result in hypoglycemia in patients who are post gastric bypass surgery. Checking Hgb A1c levels is not recommended for diagnosing gestational diabetes since it is not as reliable as oral glucose tolerance testing.
Q. What should be avoided when purchasing bivalve mollusks?
Living bivalve mollusks have tightly closed shells. Open shells indicate that they are dead and should not be consumed. Shucked and canned mollusks are safe to eat.
Q. Which of the following budget types requires justification for all expenses at each new budgetary period?
In zero-based budgeting, all expenses must be justified for each new period. In this budgeting type, the process begins from a “zero base,” with every function within an organization analyzed for needs and costs. The budget is then developed based on what is needed for the upcoming period, regardless of whether the budget represents an increase or decrease compared to the previous one.
Q. Promptly removing rotten apples from produce storage helps to prevent the formation of what toxin on other apples?
Apples are particularly vulnerable to patulin, a toxic chemical that produces a mold that infects produce. Promptly removing rotten apples helps to protect the other apples in produce storage.
Q. Where in the body does leptin relay the status of fat stores?
Leptin is a satiety factor that represents a major signal that relays the status of fat stores to the hypothalamus and plays a significant role in energy homeostasis
Q. What is the recommended way to serve fruit on the IDDSI Level 5 diet?
According to the International Dysphagia Diet Standardisation Initiative, fruits served on Level 5 Orange Minced & Moist should be served mashed with excess thin juice drained and skin and pips removed.
Q. An employee who goes out of their way to succeed in one area or activity to make up for deficiencies in another area or activity is exhibiting what type of behavior?
Compensation is a defense mechanism wherein a person tries to make up for deficiencies by overachieving in other areas or activities.
Piperine
is chemical compound found in black peppers.
Q. Which transporter distributes fructose across the intestinal apical membrane?
Glut-5 is primarily located in the apical membrane of the jejunum and is the main transporter of fructose from the lumen to the enterocytes. Fructose is passively transported by glut-5 across the intestinal apical membrane and then glut-2 transports fructose from the cytosol to the blood.
Q. Which of the following correctly reflects what is required on a Nutrition Facts label?
Nutrition Facts labels include both the actual amount of a nutrient as well as its % daily value. Vitamin D, calcium, iron and potassium must appear on the label and all others are declared voluntarily.
Q. At what age should peanut-containing foods be introduced to an infant with egg allergy and severe eczema?
To reduce risk of peanut allergy, it is recommended that infants with severe eczema, egg allergy, or both be introduced to age-appropriate, peanut-containing foods as early as age 4-6 months. Infants should be introduced to other solid foods first to determine developmental readiness.
Q. Which of following are defined by standards of identity?
The Standards of Identity define what a given food product is, its name, and the ingredients which must or may be used, and which ones must be declared on the label.
Q. What type of standards must be met to attain LEED certification?
LEED stands for Leadership in Environmental and Energy Design certification, a green building rating system. There are four levels of LEED certification: certified, silver, gold, and platinum. LEED is intended to promote design and construction practices that minimize the negative environmental impacts of buildings and improve the interior of buildings for their occupants.
Q. When a person has phenylketonuria, which amino acid becomes essential?
Phenylalanine is converted to tyrosine by phenylalanine hydrolase, a missing enzyme in individuals with PKU; therefore, tyrosine is an essential amino acid for these individuals.
Q. Which of the following is a calibrated device used to measure height?
A stadiometer is used to measure human height.
Q. Employment background checks typically include which of the following?
Employment background checks may include records related to criminal, driving, education, and credit history, including bankruptcy
Q. How does one typically become a union shop steward?
A shop steward—also known as a union steward or union representative—is a volunteer position held by an employee who serves as a labor official representing and defending nonmanagement employees’ interests. The person serving in this role is typically selected by democratic election, though a higher union body may appoint the individual.
Q. Which of the following may develop from taking antiretroviral therapy?
Antiretroviral therapy (ARV) is a treatment for HIV/AIDS and includes a host of long-term and short-term side effects. Type 2 diabetes is a potential side effect with ARV.
Q. What is the protein requirement for medically stable patients on peritoneal dialysis for stage 5D chronic kidney disease (CKD)?
Medically stable adults with stage 5D CKD receiving maintenance peritoneal dialysis have recommended estimated protein needs of 1.0 g to 1.2 g protein/kg body weight per day to maintain a stable nutritional status.
Q. Which milk alternative typically contains the most protein per 8-oz serving?
Hemp milk generally contains 5 g protein per 8 oz as compared to almond milk, coconut milk, and rice milk, which contain 1 g protein per 8 oz.
Q. Which of the following is an example of a violation of “beneficence” according to the Code of Ethics?
Beneficence represents the concept of professionalism. Within this category, the Code of Ethics requires that individuals “demonstrate respect, constructive dialogue, civility and professionalism in all communications, including social media.” Any suspicions of theft in the workplace should be addressed confidentially. In the Code of Ethics, state licensure and respecting intellectual property rights are related to autonomy, and practicing within professional limits is related to non-maleficence.
Q. A foodservice operation’s Net Profit is $41,137, Cost of Goods Sold is $145,350, Average Inventory Value is $7,330, and Total Meals Served Per Day is 200. What is the inventory turnover rate?
The inventory turnover rate is determined by dividing the cost of goods sold by the average inventory value. $145,350/$7,330 = 19.83.
Q. Which of the following glucose-lowering medications would require patient education about treatment of hypoglycemia?
Among the options, glimepiride (Amaryl) is the only secretagogue, which means the mechanism of action is stimulating the pancreas to make insulin, thereby causing the possibility of low blood glucose.
Q. What percentage of a food product’s ingredients must be organically produced to allow the claim “Made with Organic Ingredients”?
When packaged products indicate they are “made with organic [specific ingredient or food group],” this means they contain at least 70% organically produced ingredients. If there is less than 70% organic ingredients in a product, the manufacturer can list them on the ingredient panel and can list the organic ingredient percentage on the information panel, but “organic” cannot be claimed on the principal display panel.
Q. “DMAIC” is associated with which of the following quality improvement programs?
DMAIC is a tenet of Six Sigma. The DMAIC approach represents managers doing the following:
Defining the project goals
Measuring the current performance of the process
Analyzing and determining causes of defects
Improving the process by eliminating defects
Controlling and standardizing future process performance
Q. The most influential perception factor in a person’s preference for a particular food is
Taste, or gustatory perception, is the most influential factor in food preferences, more so than mouthfeel (texture), smell (olfactory), or visual.
Q. Which of the following is true with regard to recommendations for introducing first foods to a healthy infant?
The first solid foods introduced should comprise a single ingredient and be fed in conjunction with human milk or formula, which should be gradually reduced to 28 oz to 32 oz per day. The American Academy of Pediatrics Committee on Nutrition recommends that pureed meats or infant cereals be introduced first, as they are good sources of iron and zinc, which are the most likely deficient nutrients in the diets of US infants.
Q. Which of the following is a disadvantage to using concrete for foodservice flooring?
The advantage of using concrete for foodservice flooring is that it is inexpensive. However, the fact that it can become slippery when wet represents a disadvantage. Other disadvantages are that concrete is a porous material and it is not recommended for use in food preparation areas
Q. Which of the following is a characteristic symptom of food protein-induced enterocolitis syndrome (FPIES)?
FPIES is characterized by prolonged vomiting 1 to 4 hours after ingestion of a food but without any IgE-mediated skin or respiratory symptoms.
Q. Why is it critical to use a valid and reliable malnutrition screening tool?
A malnutrition screening tool that is valid and reliable increases the likelihood of positively identifying possible malnutrition, thereby reducing referrals for individuals who do not have malnutrition. Screening is intended to identify risk and not evaluate and diagnose; as such, screening takes place before the Nutrition Care Process.
Q. One advantage of using a crossover design over a parallel design is
Crossover design includes a washout period and does not have to be a shorter study duration. The advantage to crossover design is that it uses the same subjects who serve as the control, thus receiving the same treatment, resulting in a reduction in variability. This reduction in variability allows for a smaller sample size.
Q. Which type of federal grant is used to fund state programs for housing, health, and nutrition-related social service programs?
Block grants, such as TANF, are given by the federal government to states so that they can implement the programs, including for housing, health, and nutrition-related social service programs, that meet the unique needs of that state.
Q. Which conceptual model suggests that an individual’s perception of why a medical condition developed and how it should be treated is influenced by cultural beliefs?
The explanatory model of illness suggests that individuals’ beliefs about why a condition started, how long it will last, and what treatments are appropriate is affected by cultural beliefs.
The Health Belief Model focuses on individuals’ perceptions of the threat posed by a health problem, the benefits of avoiding the threat, and factors influencing the decision to act. The Stages of Change Model focuses on individuals’ motivation and readiness to change a problem behavior. The Common Sense Model focuses on individuals’ ability to control and regulate impulses, regardless of emotion
Q. Which of the following body mass index (BMI)-for-age percentiles is considered class I obesity in children?
Beginning at age 2 and through adolescence, BMI at or above the 95th percentile to less than 120% of the 95th percentile of BMI-for-age is categorized as class I obesity.
Overweight: 85th to less than 95th percentile
Class 2 obesity: BMI at or above 120% to less than 140% of the 95th percentile, or BMI at or above 35 kg/m2
Class 3 obesity: BMI at or above 140% of the 95th percentile, or BMI at or above 40kg/m2
Q. Which of the following is an example of a food that has been preserved by lowering water activity by adding a solute?
Solutes such as sugar added to jams and jellies and salt added to cured meats inhibit microbial growth by lowering water activity. Canning does not lower water activity; freezing forms ice crystals, which removes water from the solution in the foods that are frozen. The lower water activity of sun-dried tomatoes is due to the removal of water, not the addition of a solute. While the vapor pressure is decreased due to the higher levels of sugar and or salt in dehydrated foods, salt and sugar are not added to the product as a solute.
Q. Home health agencies and long-term care hospitals are categorized as which of the following?
Transitions of Care settings include home health agencies, inpatient rehabilitation facilities, long-term care hospitals, and skilled nursing facilities.
Q. What type of power is used when placing an employee on a performance improvement plan?
Placing an employee on a performance improvement plan, or PIP, is a form of punitive power. PIPs are typically implemented when an employee is not meeting specific job goals or demonstrates behaviors of concern to management. The PIP gives the employee the opportunity to address the deficiency and succeed.
Q. Which of the following conditions may be affected by the chromium and nickel content of stainless steel cookware?
Stainless steel cookware contains nickel and chromium. Nickel and, to a lesser extent, chromium can induce contact allergic dermatitis. Stainless steel grade, cooking time, and cookware usage may play a role in leaching during food preparation.
Q. Which would be added to a cola beverage as a natural colorant?
Amber-hued colas get their color from natural caramel.
Q. Which of the following is an example of focus strategy?
Focus strategy uses a cost leadership or differentiation strategy to target a specific, limited-size market niche. This approach is exemplified in a hospital’s plan to market home meal replacements and delivery for its hospital staff.
Q. Heat applied to a food will denature which of the food’s components?
Denaturation of proteins occurs when foods are subjected to heat, agitation, or ultraviolet light. Denaturation is the relaxing of a protein’s tertiary structure to the secondary structure. Heat can degrade vitamins, fats, and carbohydrates.
Q. What organization creates national standards for foodservice equipment?
NSF is accredited by the American National Standards Institute (ANSI). NSF has developed more than 80 voluntary American National Standards under the scope of public health, safety, environment, and sustainability assessment. NSF/ANSI standards are developed through a public process that ensures balanced input from industry representatives, public health/regulatory officials, and users/consumer representatives. The CDC investigates foodborne illnesses. The FDA issues the Model Food Code. OSHA investigates workplace accidents.
Q. What is the minimum recommended frequency for measuring height, weight, and waist circumference as part of obesity screening in adults?
It is recommended that weight, height, and waist circumference be measured in all adults as part of obesity screening at least annually.
Q. Under which category within nutrition-focused physical findings would lanugo be documented?
Lanugo is fine, pale hair. Lanugo is present in undernourished patients; an example of a patient who may present with lanugo hair formation is one with protein-energy malnutrition related to anorexia nervosa. According to the Nutrition Care Process, lanugo is documented in the Hair category of Nutrition-Focused Physical Findings.
Q. The Emergency Food Assistance Program and the Disaster Feeding Program are examples of food distribution programs. Which of the following statements best describes the similarities of the two programs?
Both of these programs serve children, adolescents, and other age groups and provide commodity foods that serve meals. The Emergency Food Assistance Program does not distribute to individual households.
