NUR 360 - Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

serousal layer

A

outer layer of uterus

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2
Q

myometrium

A

middle layer made of smooth muscle - responsible for contracting during labor

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3
Q

endometrium

A

inner mucus layer

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4
Q

fundus

A

top of uterus where contractions start

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5
Q

isthmus

A

lower uterine part just above cervix

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6
Q

where is the site for c-section?

A

isthmus

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7
Q

what does it mean for the cervix to “efface”?

A

thins and shortens

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8
Q

what hormones do the ovaries produce?

A

estrogen
progesterone
testosterone

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9
Q

what hormones are the ovaries sensitive to?

A

FSH + LH

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10
Q

what is the role of estrogen in the cycle?

A

thickening of endometrial mucosa

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11
Q

when is estrogen the highest?

A

follicular phase

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12
Q

what 4 supplies does estrogen supply to the uterus?

A

glycogen, amino acids, electrolytes, and h2o

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13
Q

what hormone does estrogen inhibit?

A

FSH

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14
Q

what hormones does estrogen stimulate?

A

LH

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15
Q

what is the role of progesterone in the cycle?

A

vaginal epithelium grows and cervical mucous becomes thick

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16
Q

what is the effect of progesterone on the breasts?

A

glandular tissues increases in size and complexity
prep for lactation

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17
Q

what does progesterone do during ovulation and secretory phase?

A

increase body temp

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18
Q

what hormone does a fertilized egg produce?

A

hCG

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19
Q

how long is the corpus luteum producing progesterone?

A

until week 10 of pregnancy

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20
Q

what is the role of progesterone during pregnancy?

A

maintain lining of uterus until placenta is mature

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21
Q

what hormone supresses uterine contractions?

A

progesterone

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22
Q

what hormone supresses the maternal immunologic response to reject pregnancy?

A

progesterone

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23
Q

what makes cervical mucus?

A

bartholin gland

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24
Q

normal cervical mucus pH

A

4-5

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25
Q

ovulation mucus pH

A

7.5

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26
Q

how long is the ova viable?

A

6-24 hours

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27
Q

when is the sperm most healthy?

A

first 24 hours

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28
Q

what do fallopian tube enzymes do?

A

remove protective coating from sperm

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29
Q

what is the acromosomal reaction?

A

when sperm comes in contact with ovum

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30
Q

how do sperm get to the ovum?

A

sperm enzymes penetrate layers of the ovum

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31
Q

what is the endometrium called during pregnancy?

A

decidua

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32
Q

how is the decidua maintained?

A

estrogen, progesterone, and hCG

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33
Q

what can increase the chance of having twins?

A

increased maternal age, infertility treatment, first 3mo of marriage, more babies one has,

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34
Q

what can decrease the chance of having twins?

A

winter/spring in norhtern hemisphere and malnutrition

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35
Q

mono chorionic-diamniotic

A
  • most common
  • one chorion, two amniotic sacs
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36
Q

dichorionic-diamniotic

A
  • 25% chance
  • two chorions, two amnionic sacs
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37
Q

monochorionic-monoamniotic

A
  • FATAL
  • one chorion, one amniotic sac
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38
Q

when does implantation spotting occur?

A

7-10 days after fetilization

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39
Q

amnion

A

innermost embryonic membrane

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40
Q

chorion

A

outermost embryonic membrane

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41
Q

chorionic villi

A

finger like projections that delivery o2 and nutrients to fetus - used for prenatal testing

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42
Q

what is hCG doing in early pregnancy?

A

doubles every 48h until 10 weeks

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43
Q

what is hCG effect on hormones?

A
  • stimulates estrogen and progesterone
  • prevents ovulation and menstruation during pregnancy
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44
Q

immunologic capabilites of hCG

A

stops body from rejecting pregnancy

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45
Q

role of hCG in male fetuses

A

stimulates testosterone and develops genitals

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46
Q

what are the 8 roles of amniotic fluid?

A
  1. cushion
  2. control embryo temp.
  3. support symmetrical growth
  4. prevent embryo from sticking to amnion
  5. free movement
  6. prevent crushing of umbilical cord
  7. wedge during labor
  8. tells us if fetus is healthy and maturing
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47
Q

oligohydraminos

A

too little amnionic fluid

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48
Q

polyhydraminos

A

too much amniotic fluid

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49
Q

what is the umbilical cord protected by?

A

whartons jelly

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50
Q

how are blood vessels organized in the umbilical cord?

A

2 arteries and 1 vein spiral in cord

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51
Q

are there nerves in the umbilical cord?

A

no

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52
Q

what is a nuchal cord?

A

umbilical cord around neck

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53
Q

when does the placenta develope?

A

14 weeks but could start working as early as 11 weeks

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54
Q

what are the cotyledons?

A

15-20 subdivisions of the placenta that have their own vascular system

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55
Q

when does the placenta start producing hormones?

A

produces estrogen + progesterone at 11-12weeks

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56
Q

what viruses cross the placenta easily?

A

HIV, cytomegalovirus, rubella, polio

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57
Q

its harder for bacteria to cross the placenta but which one can?

A

treponema pallidum (syphillus)

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58
Q

what is the endocrine function of the placenta?

A

provide glycogen, cholesterol, and fatty acids

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59
Q

what is hPL?

A

human placental lactogen hormone that stimulates breast growth

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60
Q

what does hPL regulate?

A

moms glucose, fat, and protein

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61
Q

goodells sign

A

softening of cervix

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62
Q

chadwicks sign

A

bluish color of cervix

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63
Q

hegars sign

A

softening of isthmus

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64
Q

ballottement

A

fetal movement

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65
Q

what is a qualitiative pregnancy test?

A

urine test to detect if hCG present

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66
Q

what is a quantitative pregnancy test?

A

maternal serum test detects how much hCG and 48h doubling

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67
Q

gravida

A

of pregnancies

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68
Q

nulligravida

A

never been pregnant

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69
Q

primigravida

A

first pregnancy

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70
Q

multigravida

A

2+ pregnancies

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71
Q

para

A

of pregnancies carried to 20 weeks

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72
Q

what is the edge of viability?

A

22-25 weeks

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73
Q

term

A

delivered 37+ weeks

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74
Q

preterm

A

delivered 20-36 weeks

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75
Q

1 trimester

A

0-13 weeks

76
Q

2 trimester

A

14-26 weeks

77
Q

3rd trimester

A

27-40 weeks

78
Q

intrapartum

A

active labor

79
Q

naegeles rule

A

LMP - 3 months + 7 days + year if needed = due date

80
Q

non invasive tests

A
  • nuchal translucency
  • maternal serum
  • quad screen
81
Q

invasive tests

A
  • CVS
  • amniocentesis
82
Q

purpose of nuchal translucency and maternal serum tests

A

assess risk of chromosomal abnormalities and neural tube defects

83
Q

what is the first trimester alternative to amniocentesis?

A

CVS test

84
Q

what can the CVS test not determine?

A

spina bifida or analcephaly

85
Q

what does the quad screen screen for?

A
  • hCG production
  • alpha-fetoprotein
  • estriol
  • inhibin A
86
Q

what does decreased AFP mean on a quad screening?

A

downsyndrome

87
Q

what does increased AFP mean on a quad screening?

A

neural tube defects

88
Q

what does increased hCG+inhibin A mean on a quad screening?

A

downsyndrome

89
Q

what does decreased estriol mean on a quad screening?

A

downsyndrome

90
Q

when can a transvaginal ultrasound be performed?

A

1st trimester

91
Q

when can an abdominal ultrasound be performed?

A

2nd + 3rd trimester

92
Q

how often do you visit the provider during the first and second trimester?

A

every 4 weeks

93
Q

when is the anatomy scan?

A

20 weeks

94
Q

how often do you visit the provider in the 3rd trimester?

A

every 2 weeks until 36 weeks then every 1 week

95
Q

can an HIV mom breastfeed?

A

yes

96
Q

what causes fatigue?

A

increased metabolic needs of mom + fetus

97
Q

what can cause acute pain?

A

stretching of round ligaments

98
Q

what can cause constipation?

A

increase of progesterone can cause sluggish bowels

99
Q

risks of sex during pregnancy

A
  • rupturing of membranes
  • bleeding
  • preterm labor
100
Q

how much should calories increase during the 2nd trimester?

A

340 cals

101
Q

how much should calories increase during the 3rd trimester?

A

462 cals

102
Q

how come pregnancy women are more prone to dehydration?

A

increased basal metabolic rate

103
Q

effects of dehydration

A

preterm labor

104
Q

how much liquid to consume a day?

A

8-10 glasses

105
Q

what vitamin is NOT stored in the liver?

A

vit C

106
Q

what are the B vitamins?

A

thiamine, riboflavin, niacin

107
Q

what are the effects of folic acid deficiency

A

neural tube defects

108
Q

how much weight should a mom gain during pregnancy if she is at a normal weight?

A

25-35lbs

109
Q

how much weight should an underweight mom gain?

A

28-40lbs

110
Q

how much weight should an overweight mom gain?

A

15-25lbs

111
Q

how much weight should an obese mom gain?

A

11-20lbs

112
Q

how much weight should you gain in the first trimester?

A

2.2-4.4lbs

113
Q

how much weight should you gain in the 2nd and 3rd trimester?

A

1lb per week

114
Q

if you have maternal PKU, what foods should you avoid?

A

high protein and aspartame

115
Q

pica

A

eating non-nutritional things due to anemia

116
Q

dysuria

A

pain when urinating

117
Q

couvade

A

dad/partner mimics pregancy symptoms

118
Q

how much does the uterus weigh during pregnancy

A

50-1000g

119
Q

when does quickening start?

A

20 weeks

120
Q

when does urinary frequency start?

A

1st and 3rd trimester

121
Q

when does fundus reach umbilicus?

A

20 weeks

122
Q

how much should the fundus grow?

A

1cm per week until 36 weeks

123
Q

what creates the mucous plug?

A

endocervical glands

124
Q

how does the cervical os change after birth?

A

changes from dimple to slit

125
Q

when do you start producing colostrum?

A

20 weeks

126
Q

how does estrogen change the respiratory tract?

A

estrogen induced edema causes stuffiness

127
Q

how does tidal volume change during pregnancy?

A

increases up to 40%

128
Q

how does blood volume change during pregnancy?

A

increases up to 45%

129
Q

how does pulse change during pregnancy?

A

increases by 10-15 bpm

130
Q

how does blood pressure change?

A

BP decreases slightly- lowest during 2nd trimester

131
Q

how does cardiac output change?

A

up 30-50%

132
Q

what position compresses vena cava?

A

laying on back

133
Q

why does RBC increase?

A

for increased oxygen carrying capacity

134
Q

what causes pseudoanemia?

A

increase in plasma volume

135
Q

what increases the risk for thrombosis?

A

clotting

136
Q

why are pregnant ppl at increased risk for gallstones?

A

slow emptying of gallbladder causes increased levels of cholesterol in bile

137
Q

how does glomerular filtration rate change?

A

increases 50%

138
Q

what is the proteinuria level for preeclampsia patients?

A

> 300mg/24hrs

139
Q

where is spider nevi?

A

face, neck, chest, arms

139
Q

how long does hair shedding last?

A

1-4mo PP

140
Q

what causes waddling gait?

A

relaxation of pelvic joints

141
Q

diastasis recti

A

ab muscles seperate in 3rd trimester

142
Q

can diastasis recti be prevented?

A

yes, with exercise

143
Q

what causes carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

median nerve compression

144
Q

what system causes the BMR to increase?

A

endocrine system causes it to increase by 20-25%

145
Q

what hormone stimulates colostrum?

A

prolactin

146
Q

labor dystocia is more common in what age group?

A

teens

147
Q

what are the 3 types of anemia?

A
  • folic acid
  • sickle cell
  • iron deficiency
148
Q

what IM injection is given to anemic patients?

A

imferon

149
Q

crack can cause what placental disease?

A

abruptio placentae- placental detaches from uterine wall

150
Q

symptoms of neonatal abstinence syndrome

A
  • high pitched cry
  • increased moro (falling) reflex
  • nasal flaring
151
Q

what disease can cause an increased risk of PP hemorrage?

A

HIV/AIDS

152
Q

what do you treat HIV with?

A

antiretrovirals

153
Q

if an HIV patient has a high viral load, when should a c/s be done?

A

38 weeks

154
Q

what does TORCH stand for?

A

Toxoplasmosis
Other
Rubella
Cytomegalovirus
Herpes

155
Q

how can you get toxoplasmosis?

A

cat litter + raw meat + raw goats milk

156
Q

how do you diagnos toxoplasmosis?

A

test igG/igM, test amniotic fluid at delivery, ultrasound

157
Q

how do you treat the mom for toxoplasmosis?

A
  • spiramycin
  • sulfa drug + pyrime drug
  • folinic acid
158
Q

fetal risk of toxoplasmosis

A
  • blindness
  • retinochoroditis (teens)
  • microcephaly
  • coma
  • convulsions
  • cognitive defects
159
Q

what does 1:18 immunity against rubella mean?

A

immune

160
Q

what does 1:8 immunity against rubella mean?

A

at risk

161
Q

fetal risks of rubella

A
  • congenital heart disease
  • cerebral palsy
  • deafness
162
Q

where is cytomegalovirus found?

A

ALL body fluids

163
Q

how does cytomegalovirus affect adults, kids, and fetuses?

A

not harmful in adults/kids but fatal in fetus

164
Q

when is cytomegalovirus the greatest risk to fetus?

A

1st trimester

165
Q

fetal risks pf cytomegalovirus

A
  • microcephaly
  • hydrocephaly
  • small for gest. age
  • intellectual disability
166
Q

how is herpes transmitted to baby?

A

birth canal

167
Q

if the primary infection of herpes was close to the birth site then what is the rate of infection?

A

30-50%

168
Q

what is the maternal treatment for herpes?

A

acyclovir started at 36 weeks

169
Q

what is the herpes treatment for a neonate?

A

acyclovir started at birth

170
Q

fetal risk of herpes

A
  • fever/ hypothermia
  • jaundice
  • seizures
  • poor feeding
171
Q

early onset fetal risks of GBS

A

pneumonia, spesis, apnea

172
Q

late onset fetal risks of GBS

A

meningitis, pneumonia

173
Q

long term fetal risks of GBS

A

neuro complications

174
Q

two common reasons for 1st trimester spontaneous abortion

A
  • chromosomal abnormalities
  • uterine/cervical issues
175
Q

threatened cervix

A

cramping, bleeding, backache, but cervix is closed

176
Q

imminent/inevitable cervix

A

dilated cervix

176
Q

incomplete cervix

A

some products of conception retained - usually placenta

177
Q

complete cervix

A

all products of conception passed

178
Q

missed cervix

A

fetus dies but is not passed

179
Q

if you do not get a dead fetus out within 6 weeks, what disease can occur?

A

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation

180
Q

recurrent

A

consecutive losses in 3 or more pregnancies

181
Q

ectopic pregnancy

A

implantation in fallopian tube

182
Q

treatments for ectopic pregnancy

A
  • surgical removal
  • methotrexate (IM or PO)
  • rhogam if Rh negative
183
Q

symptoms of ectopic pregnancy

A

severe one sided pain

184
Q
A