Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

mdcat > NUMS exam 2 > Flashcards

NUMS exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Normal gestation period in humans is about _________ days

A

270-280

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

During the menstrual cycle, after the female gamete is released from the ovary in ovulation, the remains of the follicle secrets:

A

progesterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

In the male reproductive system, the hormone involved in the regulation of the rate of spermatogenesis is called:

A

FSH

  • The hormone involved in the regulation of the rate of spermatogenesis in the male reproductive system is Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). It stimulates the development and maturation of sperm cells in the testes.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

cervix

A

lower, narrow part of the uterus (between the uterus and vagina)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

suture

A

immovable junction between 2 bones, such as the skull

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

smooth muscle

A

long and spindle with one nucleus per cell
- lack striations
- also called involuntary muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

living characteristics of viruses

A
  1. ability to reproduce (only in living host cells)
  2. ability to mutate their genetic material
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A group of organisms with similar morphology and physiology. which can breed together to produce fertile offspring is called:

A

species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

If oxygen is available, the complete breakdown of glucose produces _____ ATP molecules in prokaryotes

A

38

2 from glycolysis, 2 from Krebs, and 34 from electron transport chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

where does respiration occur in prokaryotes and do they have glycolysis, Krebs cycle, and ETC?

A

entire process occurs in cytoplasm because no mitochondria in prokaryotes

and yes, they have all 3 of those processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

products of light dependent reactions of photosynthesis

A

ATP, oxygen, reduced NADP (NADPH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In the process of photosynthesis water acts as an

A

electron donor & reducing agent

  • electron donor: water splits in the light dependent reactions to create protons, electrons, and oxygen
  • reducing agent: provides H+ ions to NADP+ to become NADPH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

End product of Calvin cycle Is:

A

Glyceraldehyde -3-phosphate (G3P), ADP, and NADP+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

collagen molecules contain _________

A

amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

hydrolysis is breaking down polymers into monomers with the addition of

A

water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

heat of vaporization vs heat capacity

A

heat of vaporization is how related to phase change - amount of energy it takes to convert one gram of liquid into gas without changing temperature

heat capacity is related to how much heat the liquid can absorb before temperature changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how does water’s high heat capacity help mammals

A

works as a cooling system

  • used by warm blooded animals to more evenly disperse heat in their bodies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which molecule does not contribute to the formation of biological membranes?

A

biological membrane - think cell membrane

nucleoproteins: nucleoprotein of negative-strand RNA virus forms a major component of the ribonucleoprotein complex that is responsible for viral transcription and replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following molecules would yield glucose and fructose on hydrolysis: starch, maltose, sucrose, lactose?

A

sucrose because it’s a disaccharide made of glucose and fructose molecules both

starch: polysaccharide made of many glucose units; it yields glucose upon hydrolysis.

maltose: disaccharide made of two glucose molecules; it yields glucose upon hydrolysis.

lactose: disaccharide made of glucose and galactose; it yields these two sugars upon hydrolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

telomere

A

terminal ends of chromosomes

  • protect end of chromosome from deterioration or from fusion with neighboring chromosomes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

kinetochores

A

protein structures that form on the centromere of each chromosome (region where 2 sister chromatids are held together)

function: crucial during cell division, attach chromosomes to spindle fibers, which pull chromosomes apart to opposite sides of the cell, making sure each new cell gets the correct number of chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

nucleolar organizers

A

segments of chromosomes that contain the genes for ribosomal RNA, and are responsible for forming the nucleolus

  • contain genes that code for ribosomal RNA (rRNA), key component of ribosomes (cell’s protein factories)

function: site where ribosomal RNA is synthesized and combined with proteins to form ribosomes

so, help form the nucleolus, which produces ribosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

satellites (chromosomes)

A

it actually looks like a satellite attached to the end of a chromosome!!

small segments of DNA attached to the end of some chromosomes by a thin stalk called secondary constriction

function: while satellites themselves don’t have a specific function, their presence is often associated with nucleolar organizer regions, helping to identify chromosomes that are involved in forming the nucleolus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

synaptic cleft

A

The gap between neurons at a synapse

  • where neurotransmitters travel across to carry the signal from one neuron to the next
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

synaptic knob, synaptic delay, and synaptic vesicle

A

synaptic knob: the rounded end of a neuron where it connects to another cell
- where neurotransmitters are released

synaptic delay: slight time lag that occurs when a signal is transmitted across the synaptic cleft
- delay caused by time it takes for neurotransmitters to be released

synaptic vesicle: tiny sacs found inside the synaptic knob that store neurotransmitters and release when the neuron is activated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

function of thalamus, amygdala, & hippocampus

A

Thalamus: Sensory relay station.

Hippocampus: Memory and learning.

Amygdala: Emotions, especially fear and pleasure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

function of the hypothalamus

A

regulates body temp, hunger, thirst, sleep, and hormones

controls pituitary gland which influences growth and metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

function of cerebrum (frontal lobe, parietal lobe, temporal lobe, occipital lobe) & Cerebellum

A

Cerebrum: Thinking, emotions, voluntary movements

  • frontal: planning, decision making, problem solving
  • parietal: touch, temp, pain, spatial orientation
  • temporal: hearing, memory, understanding language
  • occipital: vision

**Cerebellum: Balance, coordination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

function of brain stem (midbrain, pons, medulla)

A

**Brainstem: Vital functions like breathing and heartbeat.

  • midbrain: vision, hearing, motor control
  • pons: relays messages between different parts of the brain and helps regulate breathing
  • medulla: vital functions like heart rate, blood pressure, breathing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

axon

A

long extension of nerve cell (the body part thats wrapped in myelin sheath)

  • transmits electrical signals from neuron’s cell body to other cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what are Schwann cells

A

they produce myelin which forms the myelin sheath
- also provide support and protection to neurons
- also assist in the repair of damaged cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

steroid hormones + how to identify them

A

steroid hormone: derived from cholesterol

identified by name because end in either -one or -ol

and also the sex hormones are all steroid hormones (testosterone, estrogen, progesterone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

meaning of alkaline

A

basic, pH above 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

how to tell if an enzyme is alkaline or not

A

enzymes that work in the stomach like pepsin work under acidic conditions or like sucrase which breaks down sucrose into glucose and fructose

enzymes in the small intestine (like pancreatic lipase) work under alkaline conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

minimum temperature for enzymes

A

when inactive enzymes get reactivated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

function of these enzymes: amylase, erypsin, lactase, carboxypeptidase

A

amylase: breaks down starch into simpler sugars like maltose

erypsin: breaks down proteins into amino acids

lactase: breaks down lactose (the sugar in milk) into glucose and galactose

carboxypeptidase: also involved in protein digestion, breaking down peptides into amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

carl linnaeus

A

developed system of naming, ranking, and classifying organisms, known as taxonomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

hardy-weinberg principle

A

relates to genetics and describes how allele frequencies in a population remain constant from generation to generation in the absence of evolutionary influences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Jean-Baptiste Lamarck

A

proposed an earlier theory of evolution, suggesting that organisms could pass on traits acquired during their lifetime to their offspring (inheritance of acquired characteristics), but his ideas were later replaced by Darwin’s theory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Magnesium is an important nutrient in plants for the formation of

A

chlorophylls

  • the green pigment in plant that are crucial for photosynthesis
  • magnesium is a central atom in the chlorophyll molecule
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which of the following parts of the respiratory system has no cartilage?

(how to tell without knowing)

A

bronchioles

  • larger, more central airways (like trachea and bronchi) have more cartilage to keep them open, smaller and more distal parts (like bronchioles) typically have less structural support
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The horizontal distance travelled by wave during one complete cycle Is called

A

wavelength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Loudness of the sound is directly related to

A

intensity of the sound

measured in decibels (dB)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

chief cells, oxyntic cells (parietal cells), mucus cells, & endocrine cells

A

chief cells: secrete pepsinogen, inactive form of enzyme pepsin

oxyntic cells (parietal cells): secrete hydrochloric acid (HCl) and intrinsic factor, not enzymes

mucus cells: secrete mucus that protects the stomach lining from the acidic environment

endocrine cells: secrete hormones like gastrin, which regulates function of other gastric cells but do not directly secrete enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

the relation between radian and degree is

A

1 radian = 57.3º

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Golgi complex (or Golgi apparatus)

A

organelle involved in modifying, packaging, and sorting proteins and lipids that are synthesized in the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

centrioles

A

made of microtubules and are involved in cilia, flagella and cell division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

vacuole

A
  • found in plant cells
  • storage and maintaining turgor pressure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

secretory cell vs non secretory cell

A

secretory cell: specialized to produce and release substances, such as enzymes, hormones, mucus, or other proteins, either into the bloodstream, into a duct, or directly into the external environment
- have more rough endoplasmic reticulum (to synthesize proteins), Golgi complex (to modify, sort, and package the proteins), and vesicles

non secretory cell: have various functions but do not specialize in the production and release of large amounts of substances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

which structure disappears during cell division

A

the nucleus

nucleolus and nuclear membrane always disappear during mitosis & meiosis

  • specifically in the beginning of mitosis (prophase), nuclear envelope breaks down, nucleus disappears, & chromosomes condense to allow contents of the cell to release into the cytoplasm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

ATP synthase + location

A

ATP synthase: key enzyme involved in the production of ATP (adenosine triphosphate), the energy currency of the cell

  • embedded in the inner membrane of the mitochondria, where it plays a crucial role in the process of oxidative phosphorylation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

chromatin

A

form in which DNA exists when the cell is not dividing

  • loosely coiled DNA around histone proteins (loosely coiled to allow for transcription - DNA into RNA)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what does the nucleolus make

A

ribosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what is the permeability of the cell wall?

A

permeable

  • cell wall is rigid and provides support but is generally permeable - allows free passage of water, ions, and other small molecules
  • however cell wall DOES NOT control what enters and leaves the cell, which is the role of the cell membrane
  • semi-permeable & differentially permeable describe the cell membrane or the plasma membrane
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

role of glycoproteins, lipids, carrier proteins, and carbohydrates in plasma membrane

A

lipids: controls fluidity of the membrane
- phospholipids that have kinks in them prevent it from solidifying and staying fluid
- cholesterol dispersed within phospholipid bilayer that helps stabilize membrane, keeping it fluid

carrier proteins: involved in transporting substances across the membrane but do not control fluidity

glycoprotein & carbohydrates: involved in cell recognition and signaling

55
Q

what is the electrical potential difference across the membrane of a resting neuron

A

-70 mv

(millivolts because its relatively small)

56
Q

functions of the large intestine (+ how different from functions of the small intestine)

A

large intestine: absorption of electrolytes and water, and production of vitamins (there are certain bacteria in the large intestine that synthesize vitamins like vitamin K and B that are then absorbed)

small intestine: primary site of digestion of food, enzymes from pancreas & bile break down food into simpler components (sugars, amino acids, fatty acids) to be absorbed

the large intestine does not absorb amino acids bc that is a nutrient and is done by the small intestine

57
Q

heartbeat is normally regulated by the…

A

sinoatrial (SA) node

  • known as the natural pacemaker of the heart, located in the right atrium & generates electrical impulses that initiate the heartbeat and regulate heart rate by causing atria to contract and pump blood into the ventricles
58
Q

AV node, AV bundle (bundle of His), Purkinje fibers

A

AV node: secondary pacemaker, relays electrical signals from SA node to the ventricles, but follows lead of the SA node

Purkinje Fibers: distribute electrical impulses from the AV node through the ventricles, causing them to contract, but they do not regulate the heartbeat

AV Bundle (Bundle of His): transmits the electrical signals from the AV node to the Purkinje fibers in the ventricles

59
Q

difference b/w covalent solids, ionic solids, molecular solids, & metallic solids

A

covalent solids: strongly bonded together, forming very hard and rigid 3D structure, what makes the solid really strong
- ex. diamond (strong bonded carbon atoms)

ionic solids: formed by the attraction between positively and negatively charged ions
- ex. in table salt (NaCl), sodium ions (Na⁺) and chloride ions (Cl⁻) are held together by ionic bonds

molecular solids: made up of molecules held together by weaker forces, such as van der Waals forces or hydrogen bonds
- ex. solid carbon dioxide (dry ice), where CO₂ molecules are held together by weak forces

metallic solids: made of metal atoms where electrons are free to move around, have electrical conductivity and malleability properties
- ex. gold, copper, zinc

60
Q

pH of human blood is _____

A

7.35 to 7.45

  • blood is normally slightly basic, with a normal pH range of about 7.35 to 7.45. usually body maintains the pH of blood close to 7.40
61
Q

Lenz’s law

A

induced current works to oppose changes in the magnetic field

  • based on the law of conservation of energy
  • ex. magnetic braking systems used in amusement park rides - as metal moves through magnetic field, electric current induced that generates own magnetic field and opposes motion of metal
62
Q

law of conservation of momentum

A

momentum: measure of how much motion something has, calculated by multiplying object’s mass by velocity

states that total momentum of a closed system remains constant unless acted upon by external forces

  • so if no outside force is acting on a group of objects, total momentum of group stays the same, even if objects within the group collide or push against each other
63
Q

fleming’s right hand rule

A

used to determine the direction of the induced current when a conductor moves in a magnetic field

thumb: direction of motion of conductor (or force acting on it)

index finger: points in direction of magnetic field

middle finger: direction of induced current

think CFM - cant fleming move?? - starts from middle finger and then to thumb

C - current (induced)
F - Field (magnetic)
M - motion (or force acting on it)

64
Q

transformer

A

device used to change the voltage of an electrical signal

  • ex. power adaptors that reduce high voltage from wall into smaller voltage for phone

how it works: has 2 sets of wire coils called primary and secondary coil. when electricity flows through primary coil, creates magnetic field that passes through secondary coil, inducing voltage in it

  • work on principle of mutual induction
65
Q

transformer works on the principle of

A

mutual induction

66
Q

full wave rectification & half wave rectification

A

full wave rectification: converts alternating current (AC) into direct current (DC) using both half cycles of the alternating current
- uses combination of diodes or other components
- produces more stable and smoother current

half wave rectification: converts AC into DC using only one half of the AC
- less efficient than full wave
- only uses either positive or negative half of AC signal, blocking other half

alternating current: electric current that changes direction, like a wave pattern
- ex. electricity that comes from wall outlets is AC

direct current: electric current that flows in only one direction, flow is steady and doesnt reverse direction
- ex. power from batteries (like remote or flashlight) is DC

67
Q

mutual induction & self induction

A

Mutual Induction: involves two wires, one wire’s changing current affects the other wire.
- 2 wires close to each other. electricity flows through first wire and changes, creating magnetic field. magnetic field causes (voltage) to appear in the second wire.

Self-Induction: involves just one wire, its own changing current affects itself.
- current in a wire changes, creating magnetic field around wire. magnetic field can push back against change, creating voltage in the same area that opposes the change

68
Q

how many diodes are used in full wave rectification?

A

4

full wave rectification: allows for conversion of both positive and negative halves of AC waveform into DC, resulting in smoother DC output

69
Q

diode

A

small electrical component that allows electric current to flow in only one direction
- blocks current in reverse direction

used to convert AC into DC (in rectifiers)

70
Q

rectifier

A

device that converts alternating current (AC) into direct current (DC)

  • typically uses diodes to allow current to flow in only one direction, turning the back-and-forth flow of AC into a one-way flow of DC
  • ex. phone chargers convert the AC from the wall outlet into DC that phone battery needs
71
Q

capacitor

A

component that stores and releases electrical energy

  • can quickly charge up with electricity and release when needed
  • ex. used in camera flashes to store energy and release it quickly when you take a picture
72
Q

inductor

A

component that resists change in current

  • works by storing energy in a magnetic field when electricity flows through it and resists any sudden change in the current flow
  • ex. used in power supplies to smooth out current, preventing spikes and drop s
73
Q

transistor

A

component that can amplify signals or act as a switch

  • works by controlling flow of electricity
  • can also be used to turn signals on and off or increase their strength
  • ex. used in amplifiers to make sound louder, or in computers as tiny switches that process information
74
Q

rectification

A

process of converting AC into DC

75
Q

resolution

A

clarity of detail of an image or display

76
Q

acceleration, power, energy

A

acceleration: time rate of change of velocity

power: rate at which work is done or energy is transferred over time

energy: ability to do work or cause change

77
Q

in projectile motion, range of projectile will be maximum at an angle of (under ideal conditions)

A

45º

range = horizontal distance
- at this angle, equal balance between horizontal and vertical components of velocity, optimizing horizontal distance before hitting the ground

78
Q

Newton’s third law of motion

A

for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction

79
Q

law of conservation of energy

A

energy cannot be created or destroyed, only transferred from one form to another

80
Q

collisions and explosions are an application of which law

A

the law of conservation of momentum

  • during explosion, total momentum of system (before and after) remains constant. even though force exerted on fragments, total momentum of all fragments together will be the same as momentum of material before it exploded
  • however, kinetic energy is obviously not conserved
81
Q

1 hp (horse power) is equal to ______ watts

A

746 watts

82
Q

product of force and velocity is

A

power

83
Q

gravitational potential energy

A

work done to move an object from a certain point in a gravitational field to a position of zero potential energy without accelerating the object

  • basically energy due to an object’s height above the ground
84
Q

absolute potential energy

A

potential energy relative to a reference point, often taken as zero at infinity

85
Q

how many degrees is 1 radian

A

57.3º

86
Q

terminal velocity, escape velocity, critical velocity

A

terminal velocity: constant speed that a freely falling object eventually reaches when resistance of medium (like air) prevents further acceleration
- ex. speed skydiver reaches when they stop accelerating and fall at constant rate

escape velocity: minimum velocity needed for an object to break free from gravitational attraction of a planet or celestial body without further propulsion
ex. speed needed for a spacecraft to leave Earth’s gravitational influence

critical velocity: sometimes used to refer to the minimum speed needed to achieve a specific condition, like reaching orbit
- ex. minimum required speed to put a satellite into orbit

Average Velocity:
Definition: The total displacement divided by the total time taken. It’s not specifically related to achieving orbit.

87
Q

when an object experiences circular motion, the direction of centripetal acceleration is

A

towards center

88
Q

how does the solubility of alkaline earth metals change as you go down the group

A

it increases

alkaline earth metals: group 2 elements: Be, Mg, Ca, Sr, Ba

because size increases as you go down and the more the size increases, the less tightly packed the electrons are and more easily they break apart

89
Q

geometric isomerism occurs in what types of compounds

A

alkenes

geometric isomerism: cis/trans one exhibited in double bonds (bc cis trans bonds are on opposite or same side of double bonds)

  • geometric isomerism occurs where bond rotation is restricted which happens in compounds containing double bonds
90
Q

benzene can be formed from phenol in which reaction?

A

reduction with zinc

91
Q

pure phenol’s physical properties

A

white, crystalline, deliquescent (tendency to absorb moisture from the air) solid
- smells of disinfectant

92
Q

cannizarro/cinnazzaro’s reaction

A

typically involves formaldehyde

  • formaldehyde reacts with itself in the presence of a strong base to form carboxylic acid and an alcohol
  • involves an aldehyde lacking hydrogen atom in the alpha position (alpha hydrogen)
93
Q

sodium nitroprusside test

A

used to identify ketones and some aldehydes

how it works: sodium nitroprusside reacts with ketones in the presence of a base, producing a color change. positive result = red/pink/purple color

94
Q

Benedict’s solution test

A

test to detect presence of sugars (like glucose)

  • changes color from blue to orange/red
95
Q

fehling’s solution test

A

used to identify sugars and aldehydes

  • turns from blue to red precipitate when heated with sugars or aldehydes
96
Q

tollens’ test

A

used to identify aldehydes

  • forms a silver mirror on the test tube’s surface when reacting with aldehydes
97
Q

why are compounds water soluble?

A

because they have hydrogen bonding

  • hydrogen bonding occurs with oxygen, nitrogen, fluorine
98
Q

which variable mentioned in ideal gas law is assumed to be constant in other gas laws?

A

number of moles (n)

99
Q

which compounds tend to have higher rates of evaporation? (i.e. evaporate more)

A

ketones

  • because they have weaker intermolecular forces, they don’t form hydrogen bonds with themselves
  • their boiling points are also low compared to other molecules

acetone is the simplest ketone

  • carboxylic acids, alcohols, and hydrocarbons have much stronger IMF’s and are less likely to evaporate*
100
Q

specific heat of water

A

4.186 joule/g∘C

101
Q

whats the maximum number of electrons that can be placed in each sub shell?

s, p, d, f

A

s: 1 orbitals, max 2 electrons

p: 3 orbitals, max 6 electrons

d: 5 orbitals, max 10 electrons

f: 7 orbitals, max 14 electrons

102
Q

mass of electron compared to proton

A

electrons are 1836 times less mass than proton

103
Q

4 things that the rate of a reaction depends on

A
  • temperature
  • concentration
  • pressure (in case of gaseous reactants)
  • rate constant
104
Q

how many joules is 1 Calorie

A

1 Calorie = 4.184 J

105
Q

muscle contraction (+ which event does not occur during this time)?

A

doesnt occur: A band shortens

during contraction, muscle shortens so I-bands (region of sarcomere that contains thin filaments aka actin) shorten and come together and so do Z-lines (boundaries of each sarcomere)

  • A-band contains thick filaments aka myosin which only the thin filaments slide past, it doesnt shorten itself
106
Q

which type of cartilage is most abundant in the body?

A

hyaline cartilage

  • glossy, greyish-white tissue with a uniform appearance
  • found at the end of bones in joints, in the nose, trachea, and on the ribs
  • provides support and reduces friction in joints
107
Q

fibrocartilage & elastic cartilage (hyaline cartilage is on a different card)

A

fibrocartilage: dense and tough because it contains a lot of collagen fibers
- provides strong support and absorbs shock
- found in intervertebral discs and pubic symphysis

elastic cartilage: flexible with lots of elastic fibers
- stretch and can return back to original shape
- found in external era, epiglottis, Eustachian tubes

108
Q

why is it said that plasma membrane is asymmetrical

A

the two surfaces and halves are not identical

  • different functions: outside does cell recognition, inside does signal pathways
  • different lipid and protein distributions
109
Q

polysomes + what are they controlled by

A

polysome: cluster of ribosomes that simultaneously translate a single mRNA strand for protein synthesis

regulated by Mg2+ ions

110
Q

pacinian & meissner’s corpuscles, olfactory receptors, nociceptors

A

paccinian’s corpuscles: detect deep pressure and vibrations, found in deeper layers of skin and tissues like joints and tendons

meissner’s corpuscles: touch receptors, located in superficial layers or skin, particularly fingertips and lips

olfactory receptors: receptors for smell

nociceptors: pain receptors

111
Q

function of trachea, larynx, pharynx, esophagus

A

larynx: voice box, produces sound and protects trachea during swallowing to prevent food or liquid from entering

trachea: windpipe, carries air from larynx to bronchi and lungs. main airway for breathing

pharynx: muscular tube that is passageway for both air and food, IN BOTH RESPIRATORY AND DIGESTIVE SYSTEM

esophagus: transports food and liquids from mouth to stomach

112
Q

list of common covalent compounds

A
  • made of nonmetals = likely covalent

AlCl3
Water (H₂O)
Carbon dioxide (CO₂)
Methane (CH₄)
Ammonia (NH₃)
Oxygen (O₂)
Nitrogen (N₂)
Chlorine (Cl₂)
Hydrogen chloride (HCl)
Sulfur dioxide (SO₂)
Carbon tetrachloride (CCl₄)
Silicon dioxide (SiO₂)
Dinitrogen pentoxide (N₂O₅)
Phosphorus trichloride (PCl₃)
Sulfur hexafluoride (SF₆)
Nitric acid (HNO₃)

113
Q

ionization energy trend

A

increases towards fluorine, just like electronegativity

114
Q

what forces influence the boiling point of a compound?

A

inter-molecular hydrogen bonding

not intra because intra is within the same molecule

they dont wanna let go of each other and break apart, if they let go of themselves it would just become a different compound

115
Q

solubility of a compound in water is almost always explained by

A

water/molecule being polar

116
Q

graphene, graphite, mercury, and diamond

A

graphene: single layer of carbon atoms arranged in hexagonal lattice. known for being extremely light but incredibly strong

graphite: layers of graphene stacked together, but not as strong because layers can easily slide over each other. is soft and used in pencils

mercury: heavy, liquid metal at room temp

diamond: one of the hardest materials and is very strong, but not light. dense and heavy.

117
Q

finding proton number through the funny notation thing

A

the bottom number is the number of protons, the top number if the total amount of protons and neutrons combined

118
Q

one mole of any two substances always contain the same number of ______________

A

molecules

because of avogadros number (approximately 6.022×10^23 molecules)

119
Q

steps in order for finding the empirical formula of a chemical compound

A

Percentage composition of each element: first determine the percentage composition (by mass) of each element in the compound

Finding number of gram atoms of each element: Convert percentage composition to number of gram atoms (or moles) of each element by dividing the percentage by the atomic mass of the element

Atomic ratio of each element: Determine the simplest atomic ratio of the elements by dividing the number of gram atoms of each element by the smallest number obtained in the previous step.

Multiplication of atomic ratio with whole number: If the atomic ratios are not whole numbers, multiply them by the smallest whole number that will convert all ratios to whole numbers. This gives you the empirical formula.

120
Q

how to use n+l rule (madelung rule) to calculate which orbital has the maximum energy?

A

add up the n and l values and whichever number is the highest is the orbital with more energy

l numbers:
s → 0
p → 1
d → 2
f → 3

if 2 n+l values are the same, the one with the higher n value has the higher energy

121
Q

unsaturated, saturated, supersaturated

A

unsaturated: can still dissolve more solute, has not reached equilibrium yet

saturated: contains max amount of dissolved solute, dissolved solute is in equilibrium with undissolved solute

supersaturated: contains more dissolved solute than it would normally hold at any given temp, state is unstable and excess solute can precipitate out

122
Q

bond energy difference in exothermic and endothermic reactions

A

exothermic: new bonds are formed, energy is released

endothermic: energy is absorbed, bonds are broken

BARF
broken = absorbed
formed = released

123
Q

standard hydrogen electrode (SHE)

A

used as a reference electrode in electrochemistry

assigned a potential of 0 V (volts) under standard conditions (1 M concentration, 1 atm pressure, and 25ºC)

  • provides standard reference point against which electrode potentials of other half-reactions can be measured
124
Q

noun, adjective, verb, adverb

A

Noun: Person, place, thing, or idea
- teacher, school, book, happiness

Adjective: Describes or modifies a noun or pronoun
- red apply, blue key, large house, happy child

Verb: Expresses action, occurrence, or state of being
- run, write, am, is, are, happen, occur

Adverb: Modifies a verb, adjective, or adverb, indicating manner, time, place, or degree.
- he runs quickly, draw back

125
Q

prudent meaning

A

acting with or showing care and thought for the future

126
Q

quaint meaning

A

attractively unusual or old-fashioned

127
Q

lucrative meaning

A

producing a great deal of profit

128
Q

judicious meaning

A

having or showing good judgement or sense

129
Q

ominous meaning

A

giving the impression that something bad or unpleasant is going to happen

130
Q

analogue meaning

A

something that is similar or comparable to something else either in general or in some specific detail

131
Q

a full description of car accidents _______ reported.

A

was

“full description” is singular so cant use were or have been

and since this is past tense, are would not work either

132
Q

inter vs intra molecular forces

A

inter is within other molecules and intra is within the same molecule

133
Q

how does phenol form benzene?

A

through reduction with zinc

134
Q
A

mdcat (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions