NS: Psychoses and related disorders Flashcards
Antipsychotic drugs can treat what aspects of Schizophrenia?
They can relieve positive psychotic symptoms such as thought disorder, hallucinations and delusions, and prevent relapse.
They are usually less effective on negative symptoms such as apathy and social withdrawal.
The first-generation antipsychotic drugs act predominatly via what mechanism?
By blocking dopamine D2 receptors in the brain.
1st gen antipsychotic drugs are not selective for any of the four dopamine pathways in the brain and so can cause a range of side-effects, particularly extrapyramidal symptoms and elevated prolactin.
Why do 1st generation antipychotic drugs cause a range of side-effects?
1st gen antipsychotic drugs are not selective for any of the four dopamine pathways in the brain and so can cause a range of side-effects, particularly extrapyramidal symptoms and elevated prolactin.
What are the different groups of 1st generation antipychotic drugs?
- Phenothiazine derivatives
- Butyrophenones
- Thioxanthenes
- Diphenylbutylpiperidines
- Substituted benzamides
The 1st generation antipsychotics the phenothiazine derivatives can be divide into 3 main groups nbased on their side effect profiles. Which are in Group 1?
Group 1: chlorpromazine, levomepromazine and promazine are generally characterised by pronounced sedative effects and moderate antimuscarinic and extrapyramidal side-effects.
Group 2: pericyazine, generally characterised by moderate sedative effects, but fewer extrapyramidal side-effects than groups 1 or 3.
Group 3: fluphenazine decanoate, perphenazine, prochlorperazine and trifluoperazine, generally characterised by fewer sedative and antimuscarinic effects, but more pronounced extrapyramidal side-effects than groups 1 and 2.
What are the group 2 phenothiazine derivative generation 1 antipsychotics?
Group 1: chlorpromazine, levomepromazine and promazine are generally characterised by pronounced sedative effects and moderate antimuscarinic and extrapyramidal side-effects.
Group 2: pericyazine, generally characterised by moderate sedative effects, but fewer extrapyramidal side-effects than groups 1 or 3.
Group 3: fluphenazine decanoate, perphenazine, prochlorperazine and trifluoperazine, generally characterised by fewer sedative and antimuscarinic effects, but more pronounced extrapyramidal side-effects than groups 1 and 2.
What recommendations are there regardinf the use of antipsychotics in the elderly? (3)
- Antipsychotic drugs should not be used in elderly patients to treat mild to moderate psychotic symptoms.
- Initial doses of antipsychotic drugs in elderly patients should be reduced (to half the adult dose or less), taking into account factors such as the patient’s weight, co-morbidity, and concomitant medication.
- Treatment should be reviewed regularly.
Extrapyramidal symptoms occur most frequently with what antipsychotics?
1st generation.
What are extrapyramidal symptoms? (4)
- Parkinsoniam symptoms (including tremor).
- Dystonia and dyskinesia (abnormal face and body movements).
- Akathisia (restlessness)
- Tardive dyskinesia (rhythmic, involuntary movements of tongue, face and jaw)
Why is tardive dyskinesia the most serious manifestation of extrapyramidal symptoms?
It may be irreversible on withdrawing therapy and treatment is usually ineffective.
In children, tardive dyskinesia is more likely to occur when the antipsychotic drug is withdrawn.
Most antipyschotic drugs, both 1st and 2nd generation, increase prolactin concentration why?
Because dopamine inhibits prolactin release.
Why does aripiprazole cause reduced prolactin production while most antipsychotic drugs cause increased prolactin production?
Most antipsychotics increase prolactin concentration to some extent because they inhibit dopamine and dopamine usually inhibits prolactin release.
Aripiprazole reduces prolactin because it is a dopamine-receptor partial agonist.
Which antipsychotics are most likely to cause symptomatic hyperprolactinaemia? (3)
Risperidone
Amisulpride
1st Gen in general
What are the clinical symptoms of hyperprolactinaemia? (5)
Sexual dysfunction Reduced bone mineral density Menstrual disturbances Breast enlargement Galactorrhoea.
What is one of the main causes of non-adherence to antipsychotic medication?
Sexual dysfunction.
Antipsychotic-induced sexual dysfunction is caused by more than one mechanism:
Reduced dopamine transmission and hyperprolactinaemia decrease libido.
Antimuscarininc effects can cause disorders of arousal.
Alpha1-adrenocepter antagonists are associated with erection and ejaculation problems in men.
Risperidone and haloperidol commonly cause sexual dysfunction.