Malignancy: Cytotoxics Flashcards

1
Q

Oral mucositis/ a sore mouth is a common complication of cancer chemotherapy; it is most ofen associated with what 3 agents/classes?

A

Fluorouracil
Methotrexate
The Anthracyclines like doxorubicin (also cardio with these)

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2
Q

To prevent oral mucositis with fluorouracil what can be helpful?

A

Good oral hygiene (rinsing the mouth frequently and effective brushing of the teeth with a soft brush 2–3 times daily) is probably beneficial. For fluorouracil, sucking ice chips during short infusions of the drug is also helpful.

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3
Q

Once a sore mouth has developed, treatment is much less effective. What are the options?

A

Saline mouthwashes should be used but there is no good evidence to support the use of antiseptic or anti-inflammatory mouthwashes. In general, mucositis is self-limiting but with poor oral hygiene it can be a focus for blood-borne infection.

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4
Q

Patients most at risk of tumour lysis syndrome are those with what malignancies?

A
  1. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma (especially if high grade and bulky disease).
  2. Burkitt’s lymphoma
  3. Acute lymphoblastic leukamia
  4. Acute myeloid leukamia.

Sometimes those with solid tumours. Basically the more blood related ones in general.

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5
Q

What can be predisposing factors to developing tumour lysis syndrome other than the type of malignancy present? (3)

A
  1. Pre-existing hyperuricaemia
  2. Dehydration
  3. Renal impairment
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6
Q

The features of tumour lysis syndrome include what? (6)

A
  1. HYPERkalaemia
  2. HYPERuricaemia
  3. HYPERphosphataemia
  4. HYPOcalcaemia
  5. Renal damage
  6. Arrhythmias
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7
Q

Hyperuricaemia, which may be present in high-grade lymphoma and leukaemia, can be worsened by chemotherapy and is associated with acute renal failure.

What (common) xanthine oxidase inhibitor should be started 24 hours before treating such tumours?

A

Allopurinol

Patient should also remain adequately hydrated.

Febuxostat is also a xanthine oxidase inhibitor which can be used but it is seen less commonly and is started TWO days before.

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8
Q

The dose of what drugs may need to be reduced to 1/4 of their original dose if allopurinol needs to be given concomitantly?

A

The dose of mercaptopurine or azathioprine should be reduced if allopurinol needs to be given concomitantly.

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9
Q

Hyperuricaemia, which may be present in high-grade lymphoma and leukaemia, can be markedly worsened by chemotherapy and is associated with acute renal failure. If allopurinol is not used what are the two alternatives?

A

Febuxostat: 2 days before cytotoxic therapy.

Febuxostat is another xanthine oxidase inhibitor.

Rasburicase, a recombinant urate oxidase, is licensed for hyperuricaemia in patients with haematological malignancy. It rapidly reduces plasma-uric acid concentration and may be of particular value in preventing complications following treatment of leukaemias or bulky lymphomas.

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10
Q

All cyctotoxic drugs except for which TWO can cause bone-marrow suppression?

A

All cytotoxic drugs except vincristine sulfate and bleomycin cause bone-marrow suppression.

Note: Ciclosporin is an immunosuppresant (not cytotoxic) which does not cause bone marrow suppression).

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11
Q

Bone-marrow suppression typically occurs 7 to 10 days after the administration of a cytotoxic drug, but this can be delayed for what drugs? (3)

A

Carmustine
Lomustine
Melphalan

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12
Q

Peripheral blood counts must be checked before each treatment with a cytotoxic drug which can cause bone-marrow suppression and doeses reduced or therapy delayed if the bone-marrow has not recovered.

Fever in a neutropenic patient requires immediate broad-spectrum antibacterial therapy. What is neutropenia defined as?

A

Neutropenia is defined as a neutrophil count of less than 1.06x10^9/litre.

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13
Q

In selected patients, the duration and severity of neutropenia can be reduced by the use of what?

A

Recombinant human granulocyte-colony stimulating factors.

Filgrastim etc.

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14
Q

Regimens that do not contain an alkylating drug (e.g. cyclophosphamide, carmustine, platinum-based drugs, decarbazine) or procarbazine may have less effect on fertility.

Those that DO contain an alkylating agent or procarbazine can have what effect on male fertility?

A

May cause permanent male sterility.

There has been no increase in fetal abnormalities or abortion rate recorded in patients who remain fertile after cytotoxic chemotherapy.

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15
Q

Drugs used in cytotoxic therapy can be divided according to their emetogenic potential. What are the mildy emetogenic treatments? (5)

A
  1. Fluorouracil
  2. Etoposide
  3. Methotrexate (less than 100mg/m^2)
  4. Vinca alkaloids
  5. Abdominal radiotherapy
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16
Q

Drugs used in cytotoxic therapy can be divided according to their emetogenic potential. What are moderately emetogenic treatments? (5)

A
  1. Taxanes (paclitaxel)
  2. Doxorubicin
  3. Cyclophosphamide (intermediate and low doses)
  4. Mitoxantrone
  5. Methotrexate (100-1200mg/m^2)
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17
Q

Drugs used in cytotoxic therapy can be divided according to their emetogenic potential. What are the highly emetogenic treatments? (3)

A
  1. Cisplatin
  2. Dacarbazine
  3. Cyclophosphamide (high doses)
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18
Q

For patients at a low risk of emesis, pretreatment with what may be used? (2)

A

Dexamethasone or lorazepam.

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19
Q

Acute symptoms: For patients at a high risk of emesis, what type of drug is given dexamethaone and aprepitant? (what type of drug is aprepitant?)

A

For patients at high risk of emesis, a 5HT3-receptor antagonist, usually given by mouth in combination with dexamethasone and the neurokinin receptor antagonist aprepitant is effective.

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20
Q

For delayed symptoms associated with moderately emetogenic chemotherapy, a combination of what can be used?

A

For delayed symptoms associated with moderately emetogenic chemotherapy, a combination of dexamethasone and 5HT3-receptor antagonist is effective; for highly emetogenic chemotherapy, a combination of dexamethasone and aprepitant is effective. Rolapitant and metoclopramide hydrochloride are also licensed for delayed chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting.

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21
Q

For delayed symptoms associated with highly emetogenic chemotherapy, a combination of what is effective?

A

For delayed symptoms associated with moderately emetogenic chemotherapy, a combination of dexamethasone and 5HT3-receptor antagonist is effective; for highly emetogenic chemotherapy, a combination of dexamethasone and aprepitant is effective. Rolapitant and metoclopramide hydrochloride are also licensed for delayed chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting.

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22
Q

What are the anthracycline side effects?

A

The anthracycline drugs are associated with dose-related, cumulative, and potentially life-threatening cardiotoxic side effects.

They can also cause tissue necrosis if extravasation occurs.

23
Q

What effect does folinic acid have on the antibacterial activity of the anti-folate agents such as trimethoprim?

A

It does not counteract the antibacterial activity.

24
Q

Why are folinic acid and fluorouracil given together in metastatic colorectal cancer?

A

When folinic acid and fluorouracil are used together in metastatic colorectal cancer the response-rate improves compared to that with fluorouracil alone.

25
Q

Haemorrhagic cystitis is a common manifestation of urothelial toxicity which occurs with what?

A

The oxazaphosphorines, cyclosphamide and ifosfamide - caused by the metabolite acrolein.

26
Q

How is haemorrhagic cystitis prevented?

A

Mesna reacts specifically with the acrolein metabolite in the urinary tract, preventing toxicity.

27
Q

Many cytotoxic antibiotics act as radiomimetics and simultaneous use of radiotherapy should be avoided because it may markedly increase toxicity. What are examples of anthracycline antibiotics?

A

Daunorubicin.
Doxorubicin.
Epirubicin.
Idarubicin.

Mitoxantrone is an anthracycline derivative.

28
Q

What are the vinca alkaloids?

A

Vinblastine
Vincristine
Vindesine

Vinorelbine is a semi-synthetic vinca alkaloid.

29
Q

What is the mechanism of action of cyclophosphamide?

A

Alkylating agent which causes cross-linking in DNA.

Cause Haemorrhagic cystisis, myelouppression, transitional cell carcinoma.

30
Q

What are the side effects of cyclophosphamide?

A
  1. Haemorrhagic cystitis (treated with mesna)
  2. Myelosuppression
  3. Transitional cell carcinoma.
31
Q

How does bleomycin work?

A

Degrades preformed DNA and can cause lung fibrosis.

32
Q

What side effects does bleomycin have?

A

Lung fibrosis

33
Q

How does Doxorubicin work?

A

Doxorubicin stabilizes DNA-topoisomerase II complex which inhibits DNA and RNA synthesis.

It can cause cardiomyopathy.

34
Q

What are the distinguishing side effects of doxorubicin?

A

Cardiomyopathy

35
Q

How does methotrexate work?

A

Methotrexate inhibits dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis.

Can cause myelosuppression, mucositis, liver fibrosis and lung fibrosis.

36
Q

What are the side effects of methotrexate?

A

Myelosuppression
Liver fibrosis
Lung fibrosis
Mucositis

37
Q

How does 5-FU work?

A

5-FU is a pyrimidine analogue inducing cell cycle arrest and apoptosis by blocking thymidylate synthase (works during S phase).

Can cause:
Myelosuppression, mucositis, dermatitis.

38
Q

What are the side effects of 5-FU?

A

Myelosuppression.
Mucositis.
Dermatitis.

39
Q

How does 6-mercaptopurine work?

A

Purine analogue that is activated by HGPRTase, decreasing purine synthesis.

Can cause myelosuppression.

40
Q

What side effects are associated with 6-mercaptopurine?

A

Myelosuppression.

41
Q

How does cytarabine work?

A

Pyrimidine antagonist, interferes with DNA synthesis specifically at the S-phase of the cell cycle and inhibits DNA polymerase.

Causes myelosuppression, ataxia (Ataxia is a term for a group of disorders that affect co-ordination, balance and speech)

42
Q

What side effects are cytarabine associated with?

A

Myelosuppression, ataxia.

43
Q

How do vincristine and vinblastine work?

A

They inhibit the formulation of microtubules

44
Q

What side effects are associated with vincristine?

A

Peripheral neuropathy which is reversible and paralytic ileus.

45
Q

What side effects are associated with vinblastine?

A

Myelosupression.

46
Q

How does docetaxel work?

A

It prevents microtubule depolymerisation and disassembly, decreasing free tubulin.

Can cause neutropenia.

47
Q

What can docetaxel cause?

A

Neutropenia.

48
Q

How does cisplatin work?

A

Causes cross-linking in DNA.

Can also cause ototoxicty, peripheral neuropathy and hypomagnesaemia.

49
Q

What electrolyte imbalance can cisplatin cause?

A

Hypomagnesaemia and also ototoxicty, peripheral neuropathy.

50
Q

How does hydroxyurea (hydroxycarbamide) work?

A

Inhibits ribonucleotide reductase, decreasing DNA synthesis - it can cause myelosuppression.

51
Q

What side effect can hydroxyurea cause?

A

Myelosuppression.

52
Q

What antiepileptic drugs can cause increased MTX levels? (2)

A

Phenytoin and valproate.

53
Q

What antibiotic can cause increased MTX hepatotoxic efffects? why?

A

Trimethoprim is also an antifolate agent.

54
Q

What asthma drug is known to increase MTX levels?

A

Theophylline.