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CFD Paramedic Course > NREMT Quizes II > Flashcards

NREMT Quizes II Flashcards

1
Q

What is Dahl’s sign?

A

Discoloration/thickening of elbows & skin above knees DT chronic tripod position (COPD)

*think: strippers on their KNEES for DAHLers

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2
Q

What’s the Leopold maneuver?

A

Palpate belly to understand imminent birth

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3
Q

What’s pulmonary shunting?

A

Lung cycles non oxygenated blood around bad alveoli to good ones to pick up O2

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4
Q

What’s McMurray’s sign?

A

Systematically rotate knee to locate where a meniscus/cartilage tears are at

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5
Q

What is joffroy’s sign. What disease does it indicate

A

Forehead skin cant wrinkle DT underlying edema (grave’s disease)

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6
Q

What’s it called when a hyperthyroid pt has bulging eyes?

A

exophthalmos

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7
Q

What’s whipples triad?

A

SS indicate hypoglycemia DT insulin a (tumor on pancreas makes excess insulin)

  • low BGL <55
  • hypoglycemia SS
  • resolution of SS following administration glucose
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8
Q

What’s waddell’s triad

A

Injury pattern in kids hit by car: broken femur, abdominal/ chest injuries

*think: kids WADDLE like ducklings across the street (cars)

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9
Q

What is tic delaru?

A

Aka trigeminal neuralgia = facial nerve disease = severe stabbing face pain

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10
Q

Pt complains of sharp stabbing pn on one side of the face that occurs in episodes lasting weeks to months. What’s wrong?

A

Tic Delaru (trigeminal neuralgia)

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11
Q

What is the corpus luteum and what hormones does it make?

A

Ovarian follicle that pops out an ovary. Continues to produce progesterone to support pregnancy

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12
Q

Antidote for a beta blocker OD?

A

Glucagon 1-15mg infusion per hour.

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13
Q

How does glucagon reverse effects of a beta blocker OD?

A

It has inotropic & chronotropic effects that bypass Beta 1 receptors

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14
Q

Where on the cardiac conduction system does an impulse have the greatest velocity?

A

Purkinje fibers (fastest at the end)

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15
Q

A person with chronic HTN is at risk for developing what type of stroke?

A

Hemorrhagic

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16
Q

Pt has the “worst headache” of their life. What type of stroke is this?

A

Hemorrhagic

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17
Q

Pt has a thunderclap headache. What type of stroke is this?

A

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

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18
Q

Any middle aged person who wakes up w/ a seizure (new onset), what is the likely issue?

A

A brain tumor

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19
Q

What is the dopamine dosage for cardiac vs vasoconstrictive?

A

Cardiac = 5-10mcg/kg/min

Vasoconstrictive = 10-20 mcg/kg/min

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20
Q

What is the antidote for a cocaine OD?

A

Benzodiazepines

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21
Q

What is hepatojugular reflux and what does it mean?

A

JVD when you press on the liver = heart failure (R side) or heart issue (pericarditis, tamponade)

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22
Q

What is portal hypertension and what is it caused by? What will it eventually cause

A

HTN of vessels connecting liver to GI DT chronic alcoholism or Hep C. Will eventually cause esophageal varices

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23
Q

What is anosmia

A

Loss of sense of smell

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24
Q

What is Barrett’s esophagus?

A

Damage to lower esophagus DT GERD (chronic exposure to stomach acid). Can lead to cancer

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25
Q

Pt has AMS, resp depression, burning in throat, & hypoxia following a house fire. What’s wrong?

A

Cyanide poisoning

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26
Q

Trace the arteries from the heart going downwards (ex. Aorta to…)

A

Aorta to L & R common iliac artery bifurcates to External iliac and femoral artery. Femoral artery turns into popliteal artery (knee).

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27
Q

What vertebrae controls the diaphragm?

A

C3-C5

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28
Q

Which vertebra is at the nipple line?

A

T4

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29
Q

Which vertebra is at the umbilicus

A

T10

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30
Q

What skin condition is connected with AIDS?

A

Kaposi sarcoma

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31
Q

What are the layers of a blood vessel from inner to outermost? Which layer constricts?

A

Tunica intima, tunica media, tunica Adventitia

Tunica media has the smooth muscle to constrict

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32
Q

What is glycogen and where is it stored?

A

Glycogen = larger units of glucose. Stored in muscles and liver

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33
Q

What is MAT

A

Multifocal atrial tachycardia = faster version of WAP >100bpm. Common in pts w/ terminal pulmonary diseases (ex. End stage emphysema)

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34
Q

What is a “pyrogenic reaction”

A

Pt gets a fever w/ chills DT an infusion of contaminated solution (ex. Dialysis pts getting infused w/ contaminated water)

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35
Q

___ = to continuously measure and adjust a drug dosage vs physiological effect

A

Titrate

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36
Q

Tendons vs Ligaments

A

Tendons = muscle to bone

Ligaments = bone/cartilage to bone/cartilage

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37
Q

Where are the “atlas & axis” in the body?

A

Atlas = C1

Axis = C2

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38
Q

What is the dens?

A

Projection from C2 that goes up into C1, allowing the head to swivel. AKA odontoid process

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39
Q

Child has poor feeding, nuchal rigidity, fever, w/ rash & inconsolable cry. What’s wrong?

A

Meningitis

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40
Q

What is “subluxation”

A

An incomplete dislocation

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41
Q

What is a comminuted fracture

A

Bone broken in two or more places

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42
Q

What chemoreceptors are located in the medulla? What do they do?

A

Regulate CO2 & pH levels of CSF

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43
Q

How many units of crystalloids make up for 1 unit of blood loss?

A

3 L fluids = 1 L of blood

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44
Q

How do alkaline and acidic burns differ

A

Acidic burns don’t burn as deep DT the eschars (dead scabbing tissue)

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45
Q

What organelle in a cell makes the energy?

A

Mitochondria

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46
Q

The cell membrane is also known as the _____

A

Phospholipid bilayer

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47
Q

What is the brain of the cell called?

A

The nucleolus (stores DNA)

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48
Q

Cilia vs flagella

A

Cilia moves shit across cell

Flagella moves the CELL

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49
Q

What is a cellular lysosome?

A

It’s the organelle in cell that cleans bad parts & destroys invaders

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50
Q

What’s the dosage of mag sulfate for Eclampsia?

A

4-5g IV followed by 1-2g/hr

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51
Q

Pt has cyanotic head, upper extremeties & upper torso following massive compression to chest. What’s wrong?

A

Traumatic Asphyxia

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52
Q

What’s pulsus paradoxus?

A

SBP falls > 10 mm HG w/ inspiration DT AMI, cardiogenic shock, cardiac tamponade, constrictive pericarditis.

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53
Q

Pt has SS anxiety, impending doom, extremity weakness, AMS & shock SS. He has unequal BP readings in both arms. What’s wrong?

A

Thoracic dissecting aneurysm

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54
Q

Pt has JVD, narrowing pulse pressure, tracheal deviation, & unilateral hyperresonance on thorax. What is wrong?

A

Tension pneumothorax

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55
Q

What dysrhythmia shows a Prolonged PRI with every QRS wave?

A

1st degree heart block

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56
Q

What dysrhythmia shows a constant PRI for every QRS with several intermittent dropped beats (P wave but no QRS)

A

2nd degree type II heart block (Mobitz II)

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57
Q

What dysrhythmia shows a Progressively increasing PRI before dropping a beat (P wave but now QRS)

A

Second degree Heart block type I

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58
Q

What SS of pericardial tamponade

A

Becks triad (Muffled heart tones, narrowing pulse pressure, JVD) WITH pulsus paradoxus

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59
Q

What’s the difference between vtach vs idioventricular rhythms

A

They look similar, except idioventricular rhythms are 20-40bpm. Vtach is >100 but usually 110-250bpm

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60
Q

What happens when a pt misses dialysis appointments

A

Hyperkalemia & muscle weakness w/ fluid retention

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61
Q

Peritoneal vs hemodialysis

A

Peritoneal = inject fluid into abdominal cavity and suck it out

Hemodialysis = blood filtered through machine and returned

62
Q

Which has the most dangerous infection risk: laceration, avulsion, puncture, road rash

A

Puncture. It pushes anaerobic pathogens deep into the tissues

63
Q

What blood loss % and mL is Class I, II, III, IV shock

A 
I = <750ml (<15%)
II = 750-1500 (15-30%)
III = 1500 - 2000 (30-40%)
IV = >2000 (>40%)
64
Q

Trauma pt has HR 110. What class of shock is he in?

A

Class II (100-120 HR)

65
Q

Trauma pt has HR 135

A

Class III (120+ HR)

66
Q

Pt lost 500 mL blood w/ normal BP & slightly elevated HR. What class of shock is he in?

A

Class I = <750mL blood, normal HR & BP

67
Q

At what class of shock (I, II, III , IV) does a pt’s cap refill start to get delayed?

A

Class II maybe, class III definitely

68
Q

Pt has 18respirations following a trauma. What class of shock is she in?

A

Class I (14-20)

69
Q

At what class of shock does a pt’s SBP drop (decompensated)

70
Q

What class of shock does a pt become anxious AND confused? What about lethargic?

A

Class III = confused

Class IV = lethargic

71
Q

Trauma pt has cool pink skin. What class of shock are they in?

72
Q

Trauma pt has cool moist skin. What class of shock are they in?

73
Q

Trauma pt has cold pale moist skin. What class of shock are they in?

74
Q

Trauma pt has 20-24 resp, what class of shock are they in?

75
Q

At what class of shock do a pt’s respirations become extremely rapid?

A

Starting at class III

76
Q

At what class of shock would you begin infusing blood along w/ the normal saline?

A

Blood starts at class III

77
Q

At class of shock does pulse pressure start to narrow? When does it get very narrow?

A

Class II = narrow

Class IV = very narrow

78
Q

What are the PHASES (not classes… i know stupid) of shock

A

Compensated, decompensated, irreversible

79
Q

At what class of shock does urine output get diminished

80
Q

What does your skin look like in decompensated shock

A

Ashen, mottled, cyanotic

81
Q

Pt has cool moist clammy skin during compensated or decompensated shock

A

Compensated shock

82
Q

Pt’s pulse is weak rapid and thready. Is this compensated or decompensated shock

A

Compensated shock

83
Q

Pt has impending sense of doom. Is this compensated or decompensated shock

A

Compensated shock

84
Q

What happens to your mental status when you progress from compensated to decompensated shock

A

Compensated = agitation, anxiety, restless

Decompensated = altered/lethargic

85
Q

What’s Cushing’s triad/reflex

A

Bradycardia, ataxic respirations, HTN

86
Q

How does Cheyenne stokes lead to hypoxia?

A

It causes a lack in minute volume

87
Q

What percentage of blood loss minimum = narrowing pulse pressure

A

When 12-25% (25%)

88
Q

Pt has lost about 500mL blood what class shock

A

Class I (<750)

89
Q

Pt lost about 1200 mL blood. What class of shock is he in?

A

Class II (750-1500)

90
Q

Pt lost 1500mL of blood. What class of shock is he in?

91
Q

Pt has lost 2500mL of blood. What class of shock is he in?

A

Class IV (>2000mL)

92
Q

What are the three layers of the meninges from outer most to inner most

A

Dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater

93
Q

__ = Cell decreases in size

94
Q

___ = reversible adaptation where one cell type replaced by another

A

Metaplasia

95
Q

___ = cell increases in size

A

Hypertrophy

96
Q

___ = cell changes size, shape, and organization

97
Q

___ = cell increases in NUMBER

A

Hyperplasia

98
Q

Surfactant. Where does it come from, what does it do?

A

Surfactant made by Type II alveoli. Decreases surface tension to keep alveoli open

99
Q

What is atelectasis

A

Collapse of alveoli

100
Q

What causes a U wave on an ECG?

A

U wave comes after T wave = HYPOkalemia/calcaemia/magnesaemia/ thermia

LVH, ICP, phenothiazines, digoxin,

101
Q

How phases in an action potential?

A

Five (0,1,2,3,4)

102
Q

What happens during stage 0 of action potential?

A

Depolarization = Na influx w/ Ca

103
Q

What happens during phase I of an action potential

A

Channels close and cells start to repolarize

104
Q

What happens during phase 2 of an action potential

A

Plateau phase, Ca prolongs contraction

105
Q

What happens during phase 3 of action potential

A

Final phase of repolarization

106
Q

What happens during phase 4 of action potential

A

Resting phase

107
Q

What constitutes as a low dose of dopamine? What does it do?

A

Low = 1-5 mcg/kg/min = increase urine output & renal perfusion

108
Q

What constitutes a medium dose of dopamine? What does that do?

A

Medium = 5-15 mcg/kg/min IV = increase kidney perfusion & Beta 1 actions

109
Q

What’s a high dose of dopamine? What does that do?

A

High = 20-50mcg/kg/min = vasocontriction & BP

110
Q

What’s the Parkland Burn formula?

A

Total fluid requirement in first 24 hours of a burn

4ml x TBSA x weight (kg) = x

50% of X = first 8 hours

50% of X = next 16 hours

111
Q

What drip set do you need for a dopamine infusion? How do you mix it for what concentration?

A

Always 60gtts set (60gtts = 1mL)

Mix 800mg in 500 mL NS = 1600 mcg/mL concentration

112
Q

What’s the required concentration of dopamine? How do you calculate appropriate drip rate for pt?

A

Always use 1600mcg/mL

2 methods: clock method & Dale’s way

113
Q

What is the drip rate formula?

A

X = (desired dose x drip set) / drug concentration

114
Q

Using the drip rate formula, calculate drip rate for 10mcg/kg/min of dopamine in a 100kg pt

A

X = (10mcg x 100kg x 60 drop/mL) / 1600 mcg/mL

X = 60000/1600

X = 37.5 Gtt/min

115
Q

What’s the bolus dose of lidocaine

A

1-1.5mg IVP

Repeat PRN at 0.5 - 0.75 mg/kg IV/IO over 5-10min until max of 3 mg

116
Q

What is the IV infusion dose of lidocaine? What is the infusion concentration

A

1-4mg using a 60 gtts set

Concentration = 4mg/mL

117
Q

What’s the infusion concentration of lidocaine? How do you mix lidocaine to get that concentration?

A

Concentration = 4mg/1mL

Mix 2g in 500mL NS = 4mg per mL

118
Q

What is lidocaine used for?

A

Antiarrhythmic used as alternative to Amiodarone for VF/pulseless VT

119
Q

Your medical kit only has 1000 mL bag of NS & you need to mix lidocaine. How much to inject to get 4mg/mL concentration?

A

2g in 500 ml, so 4g in 1000mL

120
Q

What’s the lidocaine clock formula?

A

1mg = 15drops/min

2mg = 30 drops/min

3mg = 45 drops/min

4mg= 60drops/min

121
Q

What is inderal

A

Aka propranolol = beta blocker

122
Q

Antidote to mag sulfate

A

Calcium gluconate

123
Q

Antidote to beta blocker OD

124
Q

Medicine for HACE

A

Dexamethasone (steroid for inflammation)

125
Q

Hyper vs hypotonic solution

A

Hypertonic = thicker/more concentrated than other fluid

Hypotonic = thinner, less concentrated than other fluid

126
Q

Colloid vs Crystalloid solutions

A

Colloid = has molecules (proteins) too big to pass through capillaries. They stay in the blood vessels. Good for reducing edema

Crystalloid = dissolved crystals (ex. Salt) in water. Can cross cell membranes

127
Q

Osmolarity vs osmolality

A

Osmolarity = number particles of solute per liter of solution

Osmolality = number particles of solute per kilogram of solvent

128
Q

What’s the main intracellular and extracellular cation?

A

Main Intracellular = K (potassium)

Main extracellular = Na (sodium)

129
Q

What are ascites?

A

Fluid build up in belly DT liver cirrhosis. Pressure of portal veins so high, they seep out

130
Q

A virus is an ___ ____ parasite

A

Obligate intracellular parasite

131
Q

Define oliguria

A

Peeing <500 mL per day

132
Q

Histamines are released by which cell?

A

Mast cells & basophils

133
Q

Which antibody is associated with memory?

IgM, IgD, IgE, IgG

134
Q

Which antibody is made first:

IgM, igD, IgE, IgG

135
Q

Which heart arrhythmia is associated with 600bpm in the upper heart chambers?

136
Q

External vs internal respiration?

A

External = alveoli & lungs (aka pulmonary respiration)

Internal = in capillaries of the tissues (aka cellular respiration)

137
Q

What’s the fick’s principle?

A

Fick’s principle = all the reasons why someone is SOB

  • Environment O2 % & torr
  • Ventilation
  • Pulmonary respiration
  • Transport (heart, blood, vessels)
  • Cellular respiration
138
Q

How do organophosphates affect the body?

A

They disable acetylcholinerase = excess acetylcholine accumulate in synapse = parasympathetic over stimulation

139
Q

Which is more positive: inside or outside cell during resting potential

A

Inside = less positive

140
Q

Sprain vs strain

A

Sprain = injured ligament

Strain = injured muscle

141
Q

What’s spondylosis?

A

Degenerative disk disorder of vertebra

142
Q

Which spinal condition fucks with tidal volume?

143
Q

What is the most commonly fractured bone in the body?

A

The clavicle

144
Q

Which vertebra is AKA the vertebral prominence?

145
Q

What’s the fancy medical word for strep throat?

A

Streptococcal pharyngitis

146
Q

Which can be SVT: atrial tach, sinus tach, Junctional tach, or all?

A

All of them

147
Q

Normal QT interval is what fraction of the previous R-R interval

148
Q

What is zankers Diverticulum

A

Outpouching of connection between lower throat and upper esophagus = dysphagia

149
Q

Pt has regurgitation, weight loss, bad breath, choking and states tasting a previously eaten meal. What’s wrong?

A

Zankers Diverticulum

150
Q

What is the ligament of treitz located?

A

Attached to the small intestine

151
Q

What organ initiates the fight or flight response

A

The autonomic NS

CFD Paramedic Course (12 decks)

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