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CFD Paramedic Course > Dale's Review Concepts I > Flashcards

Dale's Review Concepts I Flashcards

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1
Q

What is Cor Pulmonale

A

R side enlargement/hypertrophy progress to failure DT pulmonary HTN, COPD, massive PE

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2
Q

Pt w/ Hx COPD has R side strain, peripheral edema JVD, hepatojugular reflux, & several day onset dyspnea. What’s the problem?

A

Cor Pulmonale

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3
Q

How to diagnose Cor Pulmonale

A

S1QT3

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4
Q

R vs L side failure

A

1 Cause of R side failure = LSF. # 2 cause = PE/COPD

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5
Q

What hormones do the kidneys secrete. What do they do?

A
  • Erythropoietin = make RBCs
  • Calcitrol = Converted from Vit D = small intestine absorb Ca ++, phosphate for bone growth
  • Renin = RAAS for higher BP
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6
Q

What hormones does the Anterior Pituitary Gland produce

A
  • ACTH = steroids
  • FSH
  • GH
  • LH
  • Prolactin = milk
  • TSH
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7
Q

What hormones does the Posterior Pituitary Gland create

A
  • ADH

- Oxytocin

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8
Q

What 3 hormones are involved in the RASS system?

A
  • Renin
  • Angiotensin II
  • Aldosterone
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9
Q

Explain the RASS system process

A
  • Low BP = Renin Release
  • Renin turns angiotensinogen (in liver) to angiotensin I
  • ACE turns angiotensin I to Angiotenin II (in lungs)
  • Angiotensin II = vasoconstriction, Fluid retention, Norepi, Aldosterone, ADH release
  • Result = BP/Volume
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10
Q

Endocrine vs Nervous System

A
  • Endocrine = slow acting, long lasting

- Nervous = Fast acting, long lasting

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11
Q

What hormones does the Thyroid Gland make? What do they do?

A

T3, T4, & Calcitonin (lowers blood Ca++)

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12
Q

What body parts does the parathyroid gland regulate? What hormone does it release?

A
  • Affects bones, intestines, kidneys

- Parathyroid hormone = increase blood Ca++ lvls

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13
Q

What two cycles make up the menstrual cycle?

A

Ovarian & Uterine

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14
Q

Name the 2 phases of the ovarian cycle and what happens during them?

A
  • Follicular phase = FSH & LH helps follicle rupture

- Luteal phase = rupture follicle becomes corpus luteum and releases hormones to facilitate pregnancy

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15
Q

Explain the Uterine cycle and its two phases

A
  • Proliferative phase = endometrium thickens & perfusion is increased
  • Secretion phase = less hormone production & uterine lining shed
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16
Q

What separates the three stages of labor

A
  • Stage 1 = onset of labor to full cervix dilation
  • Stage 2 = crowning to full fetus delivery
  • Stage 3 = placenta delivery
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17
Q

What happens to the uterus before labor starts

A

Up to 1 wk prior to labor…

  • Lightening = Fetus moves from upper ab to lower pelvis
  • Bloody show = mucus plug @ cervix + blood expelled
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18
Q

A&P: Caudal

A

Going towards tail/feet

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19
Q

A&P: cephalic

A

Going towards head

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20
Q

Anatomical plane cuts body in top & bottom half

A

Transverse Plane

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21
Q

Anatomical Plane cuts body between front & back halves

A

Frontal / Coronal plane

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22
Q

Anatomical plane cuts body into L and R halves

A

Sagittal (Lateral) plane

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23
Q

Name of Valves separating Atria from Ventricles. Name of the L & R one?

A

The Atrioventricular valves

  • L = Bicuspid/Mitral valve
  • R = Tricuspid Valve
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24
Q

Name of valves separating the ventricles & the lungs/aorta

A

The Semilunar valves (aortic & pulmonary valve)

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25
Q

Differentiate the Heart Sounds (in order from first to last)

A
  • S4 (Bla) = Increased Atrial pressure/stiff ventricles
  • S1 (Lub) = AV valves close
  • S2 (Dub) = semilunar valves close @ end of systole
  • S3 (Da) - older adults heart failure/CHF
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26
Q

What’s a Bruit

A

Whooshing sound auscultated over vessel = turbulence = plaque build up

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27
Q

What are the 2 main coronary arteries?

A

R & L coronary artery

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28
Q

What does the L coronary artery bifurcate into?

A
  • Circumflex (lateral wall L Ventricle)

- L Anterior Descending (Septum & anterior wall LV)

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29
Q

What does the R coronary artery bifurcate into?

A
  • Marginal

- posterior descending artery

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30
Q

Name the reciprocal leads of the following: II, III, aVF

A

I, aVL

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31
Q

What are the reciprocal leads? I, aVL, V5, V6

A

II, III, aVF

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32
Q

What are the reciprocal leads of V1, V2

A

V7, V8, V9

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33
Q

Which ECG correlate w/ the inferior wall of the L ventricle

A

II, III, aVF

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34
Q

Which ECG leads correlate w/ the septum of the heart

A

V1 & V2

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35
Q

Which ECG leads correlate to the anterior wall of L ventricle

A

V3, V4

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36
Q

Which ECG leads correlate w/ High lateral wall of L ventricle

A

I, aVL

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37
Q

Which ECG leads correlate w/ the low lateral wall of L ventricle

A

V5, V6

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38
Q

Chronic Bronchitis: what it is, SS, Cause

A

Chronic smoking = excess Goblet cells = excess mucous

  • SS = Sputum all month 3 months/ year x2 years, overweight, bluish, smoker (blue bloater), R side failure SS
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39
Q

Emphysema: what is it, SS

A

AKA pink puffer

  • smoking fucks terminal bronchioles = alveoli bunch together
  • SS = barrel chest, forward retraction, sniffing/tripod, puffed lips, overdeveloped chest
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40
Q

What is cholecystitis

A

Gallbladder infection

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41
Q

Pt has pn in RUQ and can’t inhale deeply if you press it. What sign is this?

A

Murphy’s sign

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42
Q

What is Charcot triad and what is it for?

A

Fever, RUQ pn, jaundice = common bile duct inflammation/block

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43
Q

What are the 5 F’s for cholecystitis?

A

Fat, fair, female, Fertile, 40-50s

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44
Q

Pt has pn at Murphy’s point that gets worse 2-3 hours post meal, Fever, jaundice, Nausea. What’s wrong? What Rx?

A

Cholecystitis

Rx = N/pn meds, Fluids for vomiting/dehydration

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45
Q

Pt has LLQ pn w/ infection SS (Fever, NVD, Weak). What is wrong & what Rx?

A

Diverticulitis.

Rx = supportive. Rule out sepsis.

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46
Q

What are the risk factors for diverticulitis?

A

Old (60+), no fiber/hydration, pn meds (they slow gastric motility)

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47
Q

What is diverticulitis?

A

Like aneurysm of colon. Pockets form in digestive membrane. bacteria trapped in pouches = inflammation/infection

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48
Q

At what age do people usually get appendicitis? How can you prevent it?

A

Early 20s. Best prevention = high fiber diet

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49
Q

What are the 3 stages of appendicitis?

A

Early, ripe, & rupture stage

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50
Q

Pt has periumbilical pn, NV, low grade fever. What’s wrong?

A

Early stage of appendicitis

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51
Q

Pt has RLQ pn (McBurney’s point) w/ weakness and fever. What might be wrong?

A

Ripe stage of Appendicitis. Imminent burst.

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52
Q

Pt was having RLQ pn but now has generalized somatic pn w/ fever. He does have RLQ pn when you touch his LLQ or when he coughs. What’s wrong?

A

Rupture stage of appendicitis.

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53
Q

RLQ pn when palpating LLQ. What sign?

A

Rovsing’s sign

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54
Q

RLQ pn when coughing. What sign?

A

Dunphy’s sign

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55
Q

Where do most bowel obstructions occur?

A

Duodenum of the small intestine

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56
Q

Pt has cramping/intermittent pn w/ NV & poop vomit (feculent). She is hypotensive. What’s wrong and what Rx?

A

Bowel obstruction (most likely small bowel)

Rx = Supportive w/ sepsis assessment

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57
Q

Why can pt’s w/ bowel obstructions be hypotensive?

A

They’re hypovolemic DT 3rd spacing. Fluids move into colon as it gets more inflamed/swollen

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58
Q

Pt has NV, ab distention, absent bowel sounds W/ hyperresonance. What’s wrong?

A

Bowel obstruction (most likely in large intestines)

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59
Q

What is sepsis?

A

Body’s overreaction to infection/virus = shock. Usually bacterial.

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60
Q

How does sepsis progress to shock?

A

Immune system gets overwhelmed & fails = Toxins circulate in body = systemic vasodilation & acidosis

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61
Q

You think pt is septic. What are the SS?

A 
Fever/chills
AMS
SBP 100 or less
Tachycardia
Resp 22+
ETCO2 < 25mmHG
Temp really cold or really hot

“he’s septic, drive FASTTER”

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62
Q

Pt has Fever, pn, AMS, tachy w/ vitals: Resp 24, ETCO2 22, BP 95/62. What’s wrong, what Rx?

A

He’s septic.

Rx = look for source. IV w/ Fluids @ 30ml/kg, monitor

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63
Q

How does a tension pneumo create narrowing pulse pressure

A

Pushes lungs against heart = heart twists = inferior vena cava kinks = no preload = narrowing pulse pressure

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64
Q

Classic SS of tension pneumo?

A

JVD, narrowing pulse pressure, tracheal deviation, unequal breath sounds/chest rise

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65
Q

Where can you need decompress?

A
  • 2-3rd intercostal or 5-6th intercostal

- ABOVE the rib

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66
Q

Flail chest = ___ or more ribs broken in ___ or more places

A

2, 2

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67
Q

Which way does a flail chest move during inspiration?

A

It goes inwards, while rest of ribs expand out/up

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68
Q

Flail Chest Rx spectrum?

A
  • Pt self splint w/ hand
  • 2nd choice = bulky dressing
  • CPAP until resp failure
  • finally, Intubate & bag
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69
Q

How can a pulmonary contusion be deadly? Finish the progression: “trauma to chest = …”

A

Trauma to chest = Blood/fluid buildup + WBC activation = edema = surfactant washed away = atelectasis = hypoxia = more mucus = whole section of alveoli becomes useless = pulmonary shunting = more hypoxia & dysrhythmia

70
Q

What MOI’s could possibly = Myocardial contusion

A
  • Blunt trauma to chest

- Massive deceleration force (i.e. Frontal crash)

71
Q

Explain the pathophysiology of anaphylaxis. Finish the progression: “Body exposed to allergen = Mast cells…

A

Body exposed to allergen = mast cells release histamine = vasodilation & increased cap permeability = shock & hypoxia

72
Q

Pt has hypotension, urticaria, flushing, swelling, wheeze/bronchospasm. What’s wrong & what Rx?

A

Anaphylaxis.

Rx = O2, Epi (for low BP), Benadryl (for itching), Albuterol/Ipratropium (for bronchospasm), ETCO2 (look for shark fins)

73
Q

Concentration, Dosage, route & frequency of EPI for anaphylactic pt

A
  • IM = 1:1000. IV = 1:10,000
  • 30+ kg = 0.3mg
  • 15-30kg = 0.15mg
  • give every 5-15 min
74
Q

What’s ludwig’s Angina?

A

Cellulitis of cheek/neck (usually DT tooth infection) = large abscess/mass under jaw = airway compromise risk

75
Q

Pt has SOB, dysphagia, neck pn/swelling, drooling, fever w/ massive lump under jaw. What’s wrong & what Rx?

A

Ludwig’s Angina

Rx = aggressive airway mgmt, steroids, rapid transport

76
Q

What kind of ppl are susceptible to spontaneous pneumo thoraces

A

Tall skinny males, asthmatics, smokers, COPDers

77
Q

Sudden onset SOB w/ sharp pn after a bunch of coughing. What’s wrong?

A

Probable spontaneous Pneumothorax.

Rx = monitor VS & transport w/ O2

78
Q

How many lobes in the R vs L lung? Which Main bronchus do ET tubes accidentally slip into?

A

think “L = less”

L = 2 lobes
R = 3 Lobes
  • R main stem bronchus is more vertical, so ET tubes usually going into this one.
79
Q

What is Pleurisy? How to assess it?

A

Pleural space dries inside and visceral + parietal pleura rub against each other. Very painful!

Assess = auscultate area for “leather rubbing” sound

80
Q

Define tidal volume. What is the average number?

A

Tidal volume = amount air moved in a single breath

Average = 500 ml (150 lost to dead space)

81
Q

What’s “Inspiratory reserve volume”

A

Extra air you can inhale after normal breath

82
Q

Define Expiratory volume

A

Max air you can exhale

83
Q

Define Residual volume

A

Air left in lungs after max exhale

84
Q

What’s vital capacity

A

Amount air moved w/ max inhale & exhale

85
Q

Anatomical vs physiological dead space

A

Anatomical = parts of lungs where there’s no diffusion (ex. Bronchus & trachea)

Physiological = parts w/ damaged alveoli

86
Q

What’s minute volume? What’s the formula for it?

A

Minute volume = amount air breathed in/out in 1 min

Minute vol. = resp rate x tidal volume

87
Q

Which is best way to determine if pt has good ventilations?

  • Tidal volume
  • Expiratory volume
  • vital capacity
  • Residual volume
  • Minute volume
A

Minute Volume! (how much air being moved in/out lungs every minute)

88
Q

Name the airway structures from largest to smallest. “Trachea…”

A

Trachea = main stem bronchus, R/L bronchus, Bronchioles, Alveoli

89
Q

Did you know there are 2 types of alveoli? How are they different?

A

Type I = normal ones for gas exchange

Type II = Makes surfactant = reduce surface tension = help keeps alveoli from collapsing

90
Q

What can wash away/destroy the surfactant in your alveoli, causing atelectasis (collapse)?

A

Trauma, Water/aspiration, smoking, infection

91
Q

TIA vs stroke is like ___ vs heart attacks

A

Angina

92
Q

TIAs aren’t acutely serious, but they are an ominous sign of what?

A

Vascular problem in brain. 33% chance CVA will happen in future

93
Q

Your pt has hx HTN and calls 911 today. 99% chance the issue is __ , __ , or ___.

A

CVA, MI, Aneurysm

94
Q

TIA symptoms all resolve within how many hours?

A

24

95
Q

Which type of stroke is more common? Ischemic or hemorrhagic

A

87% are ischemic

13% hemorrhagic

96
Q

Pt wakes up from sleep/nap w/ headache & neural deficits (ex. Facial droop, hemiparesis, slurred speech). What TYPE of stroke is it most likely?

A

Ischemic stroke

97
Q

Pt states they are having the “worst headache of their life”. What TYPE of stroke is most likely?

A

Hemorrhagic

98
Q

Pt tells you they have a headache that feels like “thunder clapping” inside their head. What TYPE of stroke most likely?

A

Subarachnoid

99
Q

Pt gets knocked out, regains consciousness, then CRASHES after. Epidural or subdural CVA?

A

Epidural

100
Q

Pt gets knocked out, regains consciousness, then gradually deteriorates. Epidural or Subdural CVA?

A

Subdural

101
Q

Which artery is mainly responsible to epidural bleeds?

A

Middle meningeal artery

102
Q

You notice your pt has A-fib, and that they AREN’T taking their medications. What are they highly at risk of having?

A

An ischemic stroke. A-fib = main cause of clots that go to the brain. The pt will most likely be on blood thinners.

103
Q

What are SS of ICP

A

Cushings reflex: ataxic/Cheyenne stokes respirations, Bradycardia, HTN

104
Q

Fucked respirations, blown pupils, flaccid paralysis following a head trauma. What level ICP does the pt have (mild, mod, severe)

A

Severe

105
Q

Central neurogenic hyperventilation, decerebrate posturing, heavy cushings reflex. What level of ICP does pt have (mild, moderate, severe)

A

Moderate.

Severe = flaccid w/ blown pupils

106
Q

Pt has Bradycardia, HTN, Cheyenne stokes respirations and vomiting w/out nausea. What level of ICP do they have?

A

Mild. More severe when they start to posture

107
Q

Localized & intense pn is described as…

  • Somatic/parietal or Visceral pn?
A

Somatic/parietal.

*somatic pn = so DRAmatic pn”

108
Q

Poorly localized & diffused pn = which?

  • Somatic/parietal vs Visceral pn
A

Visceral.

*ViscerALL = all over pn”

109
Q

What’s the cut off time for clot buster drugs in a CVA?

A

3-4.5 hours

110
Q

You suspect pt has a CVA. What Rx?

A

“CVA is like a B(rain) STEMI”

  • BGL
  • Semifowlers (30 degrees)
  • Temp (maintain it)
  • ETCO2 (hyperventilate till 30-35)
  • Monitor (12-lead)
  • IV (20g or bigger @ R AC = ideal)
111
Q

Pt had Hx upper resp infection. Today she has CC: CP that lessens when leaning forward. SS: fever, non sensical ST elevation, friction rub auscultated at L sternum. What’s wrong?

A

Pericarditis

112
Q

If you think someone has pericarditis, what ECG signs?

A

Non sensical ST elevation across all leads w/ J wave (small hump @ end of QRS)

113
Q

Occipital lobe of brain deals with what function…

A

Visual stuff

114
Q

Parietal lobe of brain = what function

A

Touch/texture/tactile memories

Parietal = top part… TOP = TOUCH

115
Q

Temporal lobe of brain = what function

A

hearing, smell, language

  • Temporal = ear location… ears HEAR LANGUAGE.*
116
Q

Front lobe brain = what function

A

Personality / voluntary muscle control

117
Q

the limbic system is inside your brain. What does it do?

A

Basic emotions & reflexes

to play LIMBO, you need emotion and good reflexes

118
Q

Thalamus vs Hypothalamus

A

Thalamus = message relay center

Hypothalamus = temp control & hormone control

*Hypo-thalamus.. HIPPO. HIPPOs cool off (temperature) and are aggressive (hormones)

119
Q

What are the parts of the brain stem and what do they do?

A
  • Midbrain = LOC & sleep
  • Pons = resp
  • Medulla oblongata = Vitals
  • Cerebellum = coordinated movements
120
Q

What’s a hangman’s fracture?

A

Head snaps sideways at C1 & C2 (aka the Dens) + quick spinal cord tear

121
Q

What is Don Juan Syndrome?

A

Don Juan fucked a man’s wife and jumped from a balcony

  • pattern of Fractures from a vertical fall = food, hip, T12-L1&L2, Forearm & wrist
122
Q

What’s Claudication

A

Cramping feeling in low legs DT ischemia & low Potassium lvls

123
Q

Pt feels tightness & weakness/fatigue in calf w/ pn that gets worse when walking/exercising. Goes away w/ rest. What’s wrong? And why is this bad?

A

It’s called “Claudication”. Indicates peripheral artery disease or a clot

124
Q

Pt has epigastric pn/ CP after bout of forceful vomiting/ dry heaving. What’s wrong?

A

Possible Mallory-Weiss syndrome or Boerhaave Syndrome

125
Q

What’s the difference between a Mallory-weiss vs Boerhaave syndrome?

A
  • Visualize:Boerhaave = BOARS. Boars have tusks that completely penetrate*
  • Both are tears in the esophagus, but a Boerhaave “completely penetrates” & goes through; results in blood in pneumomediastinum
126
Q

Abruptio placenta vs placenta previa

A
  • both are most common 3rd trimester bleeds.
  • Previa = placenta over cervix = painless w/ bright red blood
  • Abruptio = placenta rips from uterus = painful w/ almost no blood
127
Q

how often should you APGAR a baby?

A

At 1, 5, 10min post birth

128
Q

What does APGAR stand for?

A

Appearance, pulse, grimace, activity, respirations

129
Q

If you need to bulb suction a newborn, which to suction first? Mouth or nose?

A

Mouth first

130
Q

Pt has dull low ab pn that became stabby, has spotting, shoulder pn & a positive pregnancy result. What’s wrong?

A

Ectopic pregnancy

131
Q

What are risk factors for an ectopic pregnancy?

A

Anything that scars/inflames pelvis : PID, IUD, previous ectopic, surgery

132
Q

Young girl of child bearing years has ab pn. What must you assume?

A

Ectopic pregnancy

133
Q

Gallbladder is a hollow or solid organ

A

Hollow organ. Contains bile made from liver

134
Q

People with gallbladder problems almost always have __ problems, because….

A

They almost always have PANCREAS problems, because both secrete into duodenum via the same duct

135
Q

Pancreas is a solid or hollow organ

A

Solid organ

136
Q

Exocrine vs Endocrine functions of the pancreas

A

Exocrine = digestive enzymes

Endocrine = Alpha/beta/delta cells make glucagon/insulin/somatostatin (respectively)

137
Q

The liver is a solid or hollow organ?

A

Solid organ

138
Q

What does the liver do?

A
  • Maintain BGL
  • Detox of blood
  • make plasma protein & clot factors
139
Q

Kidneys are solid or hollow organs?

A

Solid organs

140
Q

What hormones do the kidneys secrete?

A

Renin, Erythropoietin, Cholesterol.

141
Q

What are the functions of the kidneys?

A
  • BP maintenance
  • Blood/waste filter
  • electrolyte water balance (pH)
  • makes new glucose
142
Q

What are the three parts of the kidneys?

A
  1. Renal cortex = outer layer
  2. Renal medulla = middle layer
  3. Renal pelvis = collects urine
143
Q

Normal pH of body is…? What lvl is acidic? Alkalinic?

A

7.35 - 7.45

  • <7.35 = acidic
  • > 7.45 = alkalinic (basic)
144
Q

When the body gets out of pH balance, it goes through respiratory & metabolic compensation. How are these different?

A

Respiratory = faster but incomplete (breathing faster)

Metabolic = slower but more effective (bicarbonate)

145
Q

What happens when you HYPOventilate (resp. Acidosis)?

A

Hypotension
Headache
Flushed skin
Dysrhythmias

146
Q

What happens when you HYPERventilate (resp alkalosis)?

A

Blurry vision, NV, tingling/numb lips face fingers, light headed, dizzy, toes/finders curl in

147
Q

Why do people get tingly w/ curling fingers/toes when they hyperventilate?

A

Higher resp = alkalosis

Kidneys compensate = retain H+ = H & Ca++ from blood go into cells = hypocalcemia = muscle contractions

148
Q

What happens to body (SS) when its in Metabolic acidosis?

A

*think: “When HYPpies (hypotension), do ACID (acidosis), to feel WARM (flushed skin) RHYTHMs (Dysrhythmias) instead of HEADACHES and Depression (CNS depression)”

Hypotension
Warm flushed skin
Dysrhythmias
Headaches
CNS depression
149
Q

What happens to the body during metabolic alkalosis?

A

Confusion, muscle tremors/cramps, bradypnea, hypotension

150
Q

What’s #1 cause Gastric Ulcers?

A

H pylori Bacteria

151
Q

Peptic Ulcer Disease

A

When protective mucus lining of stomach is eroded & stomach acid eats the tissue

152
Q

What’s gastritis?

A

Stomach inflamed. No erosion of lining yet… later progresses to peptic ulcer disease (erosion state)

153
Q

What causes erosion of the stomach lining?

A

chronic NSAIDS, spicy food, smoking, alcohol, high stress

154
Q

Pt has epigastric pain that gets better post meal, but returns 2-3 hours later. What’s wrong? What Rx?

Other SS: Dyspepsia (burp, bloat, fat food intolerance)

A

Gastritis

Rx = Orthostatic / sepsis assessment, Fluids PRN

155
Q

Pt has sudden onset SOB w/ Chest pn, JVD & cyanosis. What’s wrong?

A

Pulmonary embolism

156
Q

What is Virchow’s triad?

A

Factors to causing clotting/embolisms in a person:

  • Venous stasis (blood not moving)
  • Vein damage
  • Activation of blood clotting process
157
Q

What types of ppl are susceptible to getting a pulmonary embolism?

A

Women on birth control/smoking, post surgery, anything causing long periods of immobility (ex. Plane ride, nursing home, hospital stays)

158
Q

Pt has sudden onset CP w/ SOB & JVD. Pt is purple/cyanotic from nipple line up. What’s wrong?

A

Saddle embolus = Super big clot at the main pulmonary artery bifurcation.

159
Q

What is a lefort fracture. How can it be serious?

A

Unstable face Fx. #1 concern = airway mgmt

160
Q

What are the different types of Le Fort Fx.

A 
I = Just maxilla
II = pyramid shape (maxilla & nose)
III = all mid facial bones up to upper orbit
161
Q

Pt suffered blunt trauma to face and now has severe pn, numb upper lip, & problems seeing. What’s wrong?

A

Le Fort Fx

162
Q

Pt has shuffle gait, foul discharge, fetal position, fever, alot of pn during her period. What’s wrong?

A

PID

163
Q

What group of ppl mostly get PIDs

A

Sexually active girls <25

164
Q

What are the consequences of PID

A

MODS, sepsis, abscesses, infertility, ectopic pregnancy risk

165
Q

What are some risk factors of PID?

A
  • many sex partners
  • douching
  • STDs
  • IUD
  • Abortion
166
Q

Which STD can spread to the anus or throat?

A

Gonorrhea

167
Q

How are gonorrhea SS different from males & females

A

Males = pus discharge + dysuria

Females = mild inflammation progresses to PID

168
Q

Pt has lesions on their gonads & face w/ rash, patchy hair loss, swollen lymph glands. What’s wrong?

A

Syphilis

169
Q

Which STD, if left untreated can spread to your heart, eyes, ears, brain, & make lesions on bones /tissues?

A

Syphilis

170
Q

Which STD is the leading cause of preventable blindness?

A

Chlamydia

CFD Paramedic Course (12 decks)

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