Nitrogen Metabolism, AA metab, Urea cycle, AA dx, Heme metab and Integration of Metabolism Flashcards

1
Q

Net accumulation of proteins as in growth and pregnancy

A

Positive nitrogen balance

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2
Q

Net breakdown of proteins as in surgery, advanced cancer, kwashiorkor or marasmus, starvation

A

Negative nitrogen balance

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3
Q

Average protein turnover per day

A

300 to 400 g per day

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4
Q

Amount of protein degraded and resynthesized from AA

A

Protein turnover

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5
Q

Sum of all free amino acids in cells and ECF

A

Amino acid pool

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6
Q

First phase of amino acid catabolism:

Removal of alpha amino group, forming ammonia and alpha keto acid

A

Deamination

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7
Q

First phase of amino acid catabolism:

Removal of amino group for AA yields these 2 products

A

Alpha keto acid

Ammonia

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8
Q

First phase of amino acid catabolism:

Ammonia may be excreted as free ammonia in urine and stool, but majority is converted to _____

A

Urea

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9
Q

Second phase of AA catabolism

Carbon skeletons of alpha keto acids are converted to common intermediates of what 2 energy-producing metabolic pathways

A

Glycolysis

TCA

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10
Q

Term that denotes excretion of nitrogen among telostean fish, which excrete highly toxic ammonia

A

Ammonotelic

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11
Q

Term that denotes manner of excretion of excess nitrogen among birds, which excrete uric acid as semisolid guano

A

Uricotelic

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12
Q

Term that denotes manner of excretion of excess nitrogen among land animals including humans, who excrete non-toxic, water-soluble urea

A

Ureotelic

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13
Q

Amino acids transfer their amino group to a-kg resulting in the formation glutamate

A

Transamination

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14
Q

During transamination, amino acids transfer their amino group to a-kg resulting in the formation of _____

A

Glutamate

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15
Q

Enzyme for transamination

A

Aminot transferase

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16
Q

Co enzyme of aminotransferase

A

Pyridoxal phosphate

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17
Q

Alanine + a-kg —> _____ + ______

A

Glutamate, pyruvate

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18
Q

Aspartate + a-kg —> ____ + _____

A

Glutamate, OAA

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19
Q

2 major step in the first phase of AA catabolism

A

Transamination

Oxidative deamination

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20
Q

AA catabolism

In the liver and kidney, glutamate is oxidatively deaminated to release free ammonia

A

Oxidative deamination

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21
Q

2 organs involved in oxidative deamination

A

Liver

Kidney

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22
Q

Enzyme for oxidative deamination

A

Glutamate dehydrogenase

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23
Q

AA catabolism

In the liver and kidney, _______ is oxidatively deaminated to release free ammonia

A

Glutamate

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24
Q

AA catabolism

In the liver and kidney, glutamate is oxidatively deaminated to release _____

A

Free ammonia

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25
Q

2 AA that are used for transport of ammonia from peripheral tissues

A

Glutamine

Alanine

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26
Q

TRANSPORT OF AMMONIA FROM PERIPHERAL TISSUES

In muscle, pyruvate is transaminated to _____

A

Alanine

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27
Q

Alanine is transported to the liver where it is converted back to ______

A

Pyruvate

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28
Q

In most tissues, glutamate combines with ammonia to form ____ via the enzyme ______

A

Glutamine

Glutamine synthetase

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29
Q

Glutamine is transported in the blood and may be deaminated to release ammonia in two organs:

A

Liver

Kidneys

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30
Q

Liver releases ammonia in response to _____

A

High protein intake

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31
Q

Kidneys release ammonia in response to ______

A

Metabolic acidosis

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32
Q

Pathway for the conversion of the body’s nitrogenous waste to urea

A

Urea cycle

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33
Q

Organ site of urea cycle

A

Liver

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34
Q

Subcellular site of urea cycle

A

Mitochondria and cytosol

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35
Q

3 substrates for urea cycle

A

CO2, ammonia, aspartate

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36
Q

Product of urea cycle

A

Urea

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37
Q

Rate-limiting step for urea cycle

A

NH3 + CO2 —> carbamoyl phosphate

Enzyme: carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I

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38
Q

Allosteric activator for the rate-limiting step of urea cycle

A

N-acetylglutamate

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39
Q

Identify enzyme for this step in the urea cycle

CO2 + NH3 —> carbamoyl phosphate

A

Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I

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40
Q

Identify enzyme for this step in the urea cycle

Carbamoyl phosphate + L-ornithine —> citrulline

A

Ornithine transcarbamoylase

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41
Q

Identify enzyme for this step in the urea cycle

Citrulline + aspartate —> argininosuccinate

A

Argininosuccinate synthetase

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42
Q

Identify enzyme for this step in the urea cycle

Argininosuccinate —> fumarate

A

Argininosuccinate lyase

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43
Q

Identify enzyme for this step in the urea cycle

L-arginine —> urea + L-ornithine

A

Arginase

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44
Q

Identify products in this step of urea cycle

Carbamoyl phosphate + L ornithine —>

A

Citrulline

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45
Q

Identify products in this step of urea cycle

Citrulline + aspartate —>

A

Argininosuccinate

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46
Q

Identify products in this step of urea cycle

Argininosuccinate —>

A

Fumarate + L-arginine

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47
Q

Identify products in this step of urea cycle

L-arginine + H20 —>

A

Urea, L-ornithine

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48
Q

2 reactions in urea cycle that require ATP

A

CO2 + NH3 —> carbamoyl phosphate (2 ATPs)

Citrulline + L-aspartate —> argininosuccinate (1 ATP)

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49
Q

How many ATPs are required to form 1 mol of urea?

A

3 (but 4 high energy bonds)

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50
Q

T/F

In urea cycle, there is no net loss or gain of ornithine, citrulline, argininosuccinate, or arginine

A

T

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51
Q

_______ functions solely as enzyme activator and regulates urea synthesis

A

N-acetylglutamate

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52
Q

2 fates of urea:

A

Blood—>kidney —> urine

Intestines—> urease converting bacteria convert them back to CO2 and NH3

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53
Q

Tremors, slurring of speech, vomiting, blurring if vision
Cerebral edema
Somnolence, coma, death

A

Hyperammonemia

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54
Q

Most common enzyme deficiency in urea cycle

A

Onithine transcarbomylase

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55
Q

Most severe enzyme deficiency in urea cycle

A

Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase 1 deficiency

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56
Q

Rx for hereditary hyperammonemia

A

Phenylbutyrate

It gets converted to phenylacetate, binds to glutamine, and then excreted as phenylglutamine

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57
Q

Dse of adults with compromised liver function

Due to cirrhosis, portal blood is shunted directly to systemic curculation

A

Acquired hyperammonemia

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58
Q

In the second phase of AA catabolism, ketogenic AA may be converted to _____, while glucogenic AA are converted to ____

A

Acetyl CoA or acetoacetyl CoA

Pyruvate or intermediates of TCA

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59
Q

Purely ketogenic AA

A

Lysine

Leucine

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60
Q

Glucogenic and ketogenic AA

A
Phenylalanine
Tyrosine
Isoleucine
Tryptophan
(Threonine in some textbooks)
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61
Q

Identify amino acid with these specialized products

Creatibe, polyamines, nitric oxide

A

Arginine

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62
Q

Identify amino acid with these specialized products

Coenzyme A, taurine, glutathione

A

Cysteine

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63
Q

Identify amino acid with these specialized products

GABA, glutathione

A

Glutamate

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64
Q

Identify amino acid with these specialized products

Heme, purines, creatine, glutathione, conjugated to bile acids, drugs, and other metabolites

A

Glycine

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65
Q

Identify amino acid with these specialized products

Histamine

A

Histidine

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66
Q

Identify amino acid with these specialized products

Carnitine

A

Lysine

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67
Q

Identify amino acid with these specialized products

S-adenosylmethionine, creatine, polyamines

A

Methionine

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68
Q

Identify amino acid with these specialized products

Sphingosine, purines, thymine

A

Serine

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69
Q

Identify amino acid with these specialized products

Serotonin, niacin, melatonin

A

Tryptophan

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70
Q

Identify amino acid with these specialized products

Catecholamines

A

Tyrosine

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71
Q

Identify amino acid with these specialized products

Thyroid hormones

A

Tyrosine

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72
Q

Identify amino acid with these specialized products

Melanin

A

Tyrosine

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73
Q

Identify amino acid with these specialized products

Serotonin

A

Tryptophan

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74
Q

Identify amino acid with these specialized products

Niacin

A

Tryptophan

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75
Q

Identify amino acid with these specialized products

Melatonin

A

Typtophan

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76
Q

Identify amino acid with these specialized products

Sphingosine

A

Serine

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77
Q

Identify amino acid with these specialized products

Thymine

A

Serine

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78
Q

Identify amino acid with these specialized products

SAM

A

Methionine

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79
Q

Catecholamine synthesis

Tyrosine—>

A

3,4 dihydroxyphenylalanine (DOPA)

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80
Q

Catecholamine synthesis
Identify enzyme and co factor
Tyrosine—>DOPA

A

Tyrosine hydroxylase

Tetrahydrobiopterin (THB)

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81
Q

Catecholamine synthesis
Identify enzyme and cofactor
3,4 DOPA—> Dopamine

A

DOPA decarboxylase

Vitamin B6

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82
Q

Catecholamine synthesis
Identify enzyme and cofactor
Dopamine—> Norepinephrine

A

Dopamine beta hydroxylase

Vitamin C/copper

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83
Q

Catecholamine synthesis
Identify enzyme and cofactor
Norepinephrine—>epinephrine

A

Phenylethanolamine N methyltransferase

SAM—>SAH

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84
Q

Catecholamine synthesis
Identify product
Dopamine —>

A

Norepinephrine

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85
Q

Catecholamine synthesis
Identify product
Norepinephrine—>

A

Epinephrine

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86
Q

Catecholamine degradation

Catecholamines are inactivated by these 2 enzymes

A
Monoamine oxidase (MAO)
Catechol-O-methyltransferase(COMT)
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87
Q

Catecholamine degradation

Norepinephrine and epinephrine are degraded to _______

A

VMA (Vanillylmandelic acid (VMA)

Increased in pheochromocytoma

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88
Q

Catecholamine degradation

Dopamine is degrade into ______

A

Homovanillic acid (HVA)

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89
Q

Amino acid disorders

Enzyme deficiency in PKU

A

Phenylalanine hydroxylase

Or tetrahydrobiopterin

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90
Q

Amino acid disorders

Tyrosine becomes essential and phenylalanine accumulates

A

PKU

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91
Q
Amino acid disorder
Severe mental retardation
Failure to walk or talk
Seizures
Fair skin
Eczema
Musty body odor
A

PKU

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92
Q

Amino acid disorders

Accumulation of this phenylketone in PKU gives the characteristic odor to urine

A

Phenylpyruvate

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93
Q

Amino acid disorders

Dietary control for PKU aims to decrease _____ and increase ____

A

Phenylalanine

Tyrosine

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94
Q

Amino acid disorders

Congenital deficiency of this enzyme leads to alkaptonuria

A

Homogentisate oxidase

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95
Q

Amino acid disorders

In alkaptonuria, there is acumulation of this substance

A

Homogentisic acid

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96
Q

Amino acid disorder
Dark urine on standing
Dark connective tissue (ochronosis)
Benign dse but may have debilitating arthalgia

A

Alkaptonuria

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97
Q

Amino acid disorders

Tx for alkaptonuria

A

Reduce phenylalanine and tyrosine in diet

Vit C for older children and adults

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98
Q

Dietary mgt for PKU

A

Low protein low carb

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99
Q

Identify disorder
Defective melanin synthesis from tyrosine, which may be from
Defective tyrosine transporters or
Absence of copper-requiring enzyme tyrosine

A

Albinism

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100
Q

Enzyme deficiency in albinism

A

Tyrosinase

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101
Q

Absence of pigment from hair, eyes, skin

Increased risk for skin cancer

A

Albinism

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102
Q

Defect in methionine degradation keading to high plasma and urinary levels of homocysteine and methionine and low levels of cysteine

A

Homocystinuria

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103
Q

Homocystinuria leads to increased plama and urinary levels of _____ and ______ and low levels of ______

A

Homocysteine, methionine

Cysteine

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104
Q

Either of these 2 enzymes deficiency leads to homocysteinuria

A

Methionine synthase

Cystathionine B Synthase

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105
Q

Coenzyme of methionine synthase

A

Methylcobalamin

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106
Q

Coenzyme of cytathionine B synthase

A

Pyridoxal phosphate

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107
Q

Most common deficiency in homocysteinuria

A

Cystathionine B synthase

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108
Q
Ectopia lentis (downward displacement)
Faulty bone development and osteoporosis
Mental retardation
Tendency to form thrombi
Myocardial infarction
Stroke in children and young adults
A

Homocystinuria

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109
Q

Vitamin supplementation for homocystinuria

A

Vitamin B6, B12, folate

110
Q

Diet in px with homocystinuria:
Low in _____
High in _______

A

Low in eggs, fish, meat

High in plat based protein : soya, nuts

111
Q

Cystine kidney stones —> staghorn calculi
Inherited defect of renal tubular amino acid transporter for Cystine, Ornithine, Lysine and Arginine in the PCT of kidneys

A

Cystinuria

112
Q

Rx for cystinuria

A

Acetazolamide (to alkalinized the urine)

113
Q

Enzyme deficiency that leads to a defect in the cinversion of methylmalonyl CoA to succinyl CoA

A

Methylmalonyl CoA mutase

114
Q

Seizure, encephalopathy, stroke at age of 1 month to 1 year
Hypotonia, lethargy, failure to thrive, hepatosplenomegaly, monilial infections

Impaired metabolism of isoleucine, valine, threonine, methionine and odd chain FA

A

Methylmalonic acidemia

115
Q

Tx for methylmalonic acidemia includes protein restriction of _____ g/kg/d with supplementation of ___ and ____^

A

0.5-1.5

L carnitine, cobalamin

116
Q

Enzyme deficiency in MSUD

A

a ketoacid dehydrogenase complex

117
Q

Branched chain amino acids whose degradation are blocked in MSUD

A

Leucine, isoleucine, valine

118
Q

Cyclic compounds formed by linkage of four pyrrole rings through methyne (-HC) bridges

A

Porphyrins

119
Q

Enzymes catalase, peroxidase, guanylate cyclase all utilize this protein for their synthesis

120
Q

Rate-limiting step in heme synthesis

A

Glycine + succinyl CoA —> D aminolevulinic acid

Enzyme ALA synthase

121
Q

Rate-limiting enzyme for heme synthesis and co factor

A

ALA Synthase

Co factor: Pyridoxine

122
Q

In heme synthesis, condensation of 2 molecules of D ALA leads to _______ by enzyme ____^^

A

Porphobilinogen

Emzyme: ALA Dehydratase

123
Q
  1. Zinc-containing enzyme for the formation of porphobilinogen during heme synthesis
  2. Its inhibitor
A
  1. ALA dehydratase

2. Lead (heavy metal ions)

124
Q

Ferrochelatase + ______ —> Heme

A

Protoporphyrin IX

125
Q

Identify enzyme and product impaired in this defect of Heme synthesis
ALA dehydratase deficiency porphyria

A

ALA dehydratase

Porphobilinogen

126
Q

Identify enzyme and product impaired in this defect of Heme synthesis
Acute intermittent porphyria

A

PBG deaminase

127
Q

Identify enzyme and product impaired in this defect of Heme synthesis
Congenital erythropoietic porphyria

A

Uropophyrinigen III cosynthase

Uroporphyrinogen III

128
Q

Identify enzyme and product impaired in this defect of Heme synthesis
Porphyria cutanea tarda

A

Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase

Coproporphyrinogen III

129
Q

Identify enzyme and product impaired in this defect of Heme synthesis
Hereditary coproporphyria

A

Coproporphyrinogen oxidase

Protoporphyrinogen IX

130
Q

Identify enzyme and product impaired in this defect of Heme synthesis
Variegate porphyria

A

Protoporphyrinogen oxidase

Protoporphyrin IX

131
Q

Identify enzyme and product impaired in this defect of Heme synthesis
Erythropoietic protoporphyria

A

Ferrochelatase

Heme

132
Q

Subcellular site of heme synthesis

A

Cytosol: D ALA to coproporphyrinogen III

the rest: mitchondria

133
Q

2 enzymes in heme synthesis most sensitive to lead poisoning

A

ALA dehytrase and ferrochelatase

134
Q

Increased urinary ALA and free erythrocyte porphyrins
Microcytic anemia with basophilic stippling of RBCs
Headached, memory loss
Peripheral neuropathy, claw hand, wrist drop
Nausea, abdominal pain, diarrhea
Deposits in gums, epiphyses

A

Lead poisoning

135
Q

Most common porphyria

A

Porphyria cutanea tarda

136
Q

Cutaneous fragility

Blistering of hands, forearms, face

A

Porohyria cutanea tarda

137
Q

Enzyme deficiency in porphyria cutanea tarda

A

Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase

138
Q

Accumulation of PBG and D ALA in the urine
Neuropsychiatric symptoms
Urine darkens when exposed to light

A

Acute intermittent porphyria

139
Q

Enzyme deficiency in acute intermittent porphyria

A

Hydroxymethylbilane synthase (uroporphyrinogen I synthase)

140
Q

Tx for mild and severe attack of acute intermittent porphyria

A

Mild: high dose glucose
Severe: hematin

141
Q

After 120 days, RBCs are taken up and degraded by the RES, particularly in these 2 organs

A

Liver spleen

142
Q

Heme degradation releases this by-product

A

Carbon monoxide

143
Q

Bilirubin is transported in the blood by binding to _____

144
Q

In the liver, bilirubin binds to intracellular proteins, particularly to ___

145
Q

Enzyme for the formation of bilirubin diglucuronide

A

Bilirubin glucuronyltransferase

146
Q

Step in heme degradation that is most susceptible to liver disease

A

Secretion of bilirubin into bile

147
Q

In the gut, bilirubin —> _____ (colorless)

A

Urobilinogen

148
Q

Intestinal bacteria oxidize urobilinogen—> ______ (brown)

149
Q

Some urobilinogen is reabsorbed from the blood and enters the ________

A

Portal circulation

150
Q

Remaining urobilinogen is transported by the blood to the kidney, where it is converted to _______ (yellow)

151
Q

Enzyme deficient in crigler najjar, gilbert syndrome

A

Bilirubin glucuronyltransferase

152
Q

_________ reaction is used to measure bilirubin in serum

A

Van den Bergh Reaction

153
Q

In Van den Bergh reaction,
Assay with no methanol measures ____
Assay with methanol measures ______
Difference in two measures _______

A

Direct bilirubin
Total bilirubin
Indirect bilirubin

154
Q

Defect in bilirubin uptake/conjugation/secretion

Dubin Johnson Syndrome

155
Q

Defect in bilirubin uptake/conjugation/secretion

Neonatal jaundice

A

Conjugation

156
Q

Defect in bilirubin uptake/conjugation/secretion

Crigler Najjar

A

Conjugation

157
Q

Defect in bilirubin uptake/conjugation/secretion

Gilbert syndrome

A

Conjugation

158
Q

Direct/indirect hyperbilirubinemia

Biliary tree obstruction

159
Q

Direct/indirect hyperbilirubinemia

Dubin Johnson Syndrome

160
Q

Direct/indirect hyperbilirubinemia

Rotor syndrome

161
Q

Direct/indirect hyperbilirubinemia

Hemolytic anemia

162
Q

Direct/indirect hyperbilirubinemia

Neonatal physiologic jaundice

163
Q

Direct/indirect hyperbilirubinemia

Crigler Najjar

164
Q

Direct/indirect hyperbilirubinemia

Gilbert syndrome

165
Q

Direct/indirect hyperbilirubinemia

Toxic hyperbilirubinemia

166
Q

Insulin/Glucagon

Source is Beta cells of islets

167
Q

Insulin/Glucagon

Source is alpha cells of islets

168
Q

Insulin/Glucagon

Two polypeptide chains with 51 AA linked together by 2 disulfide bridges

169
Q

Insulin/Glucagon

Single polypeptide chain with 29 AA

170
Q

Insulin/Glucagon

Second messenger is cAMP

171
Q

Insulin/Glucagon

2nd messenger is tyrosine kinase

172
Q

Insulin/Glucagon

Stimulated by cholecystokinin and gastric inhibitory peptide

173
Q

Insulin/Glucagon

Stimulated by hypoglycemia

174
Q
Insulin/Glucagon
Increases 
Gluconeogenesis
Glycogenolysis
Uptake of AA
Beta oxidation
Ketigenesis
175
Q
Insulin/Glucagon
Increases 
Glucose uptake
Glycigenesis
Protein synthesis
Lipogenesis
176
Q

Insulin/Glucagon
Inhibits gluconeogenesis
Glycogenolysis
Beta oxidation

177
Q

Insulin/Glucagon

Inhibits glycogenesis

178
Q

3 hormones with similar effects as glucagon

A

Epinephrine

Cortisol GH

179
Q

During fed state, the brain uses _____ as exclusive source of fuel

180
Q

During fasting, the brain uses_____ and _____ as sources of fuel

A

Glucose, ketone

181
Q

TAG stores and FA are used by the brain for fuel

T/F

A

F. They cant cross BBB

182
Q

During fed state, the PPP is activated in the liver and adipose to provide ______

183
Q

Majore source of energy in adipose tissue during marathon

184
Q

Principal site of metabolism of BCAA

A

Skeletal muscle

185
Q

Identify disorder
Defective melanin synthesis from tyrosine, which may be from
Defective tyrosine transporters or
Absence of copper-requiring enzyme tyrosine

186
Q

Enzyme deficiency in albinism

A

Tyrosinase

187
Q

Absence of pigment from hair, eyes, skin

Increased risk for skin cancer

188
Q

Defect in methionine degradation keading to high plasma and urinary levels of homocysteine and methionine and low levels of cysteine

A

Homocystinuria

189
Q

Homocystinuria leads to increased plama and urinary levels of _____ and ______ and low levels of ______

A

Homocysteine, methionine

Cysteine

190
Q

Either of these 2 enzymes deficiency leads to homocysteinuria

A

Methionine synthase

Cystathionine B Synthase

191
Q

Coenzyme of methionine synthase

A

Methylcobalamin

192
Q

Coenzyme of cytathionine B synthase

A

Pyridoxal phosphate

193
Q

Most common deficiency in homocysteinuria

A

Cystathionine B synthase

194
Q
Ectopia lentis (downward displacement)
Faulty bone development and osteoporosis
Mental retardation
Tendency to form thrombi
Myocardial infarction
Stroke in children and young adults
A

Homocystinuria

195
Q

Vitamin supplementation for homocystinuria

A

Vitamin B6, B12, folate

196
Q

Diet in px with homocystinuria:
Low in _____
High in _______

A

Low in eggs, fish, meat

High in plat based protein : soya, nuts

197
Q

Cystine kidney stones —> staghorn calculi
Inherited defect of renal tubular amino acid transporter for Cystine, Ornithine, Lysine and Arginine in the PCT of kidneys

A

Cystinuria

198
Q

Rx for cystinuria

A

Acetazolamide (to alkalinized the urine)

199
Q

Enzyme deficiency that leads to a defect in the cinversion of methylmalonyl CoA to succinyl CoA

A

Methylmalonyl CoA mutase

200
Q

Seizure, encephalopathy, stroke at age of 1 month to 1 year
Hypotonia, lethargy, failure to thrive, hepatosplenomegaly, monilial infections

Impaired metabolism of isoleucine, valine, threonine, methionine and odd chain FA

A

Methylmalonic acidemia

201
Q

Tx for methylmalonic acidemia includes protein restriction of _____ g/kg/d with supplementation of ___ and ____^

A

0.5-1.5

L carnitine, cobalamin

202
Q

Enzyme deficiency in MSUD

A

a ketoacid dehydrogenase complex

203
Q

Branched chain amino acids whose degradation are blocked in MSUD

A

Leucine, isoleucine, valine

204
Q

Cyclic compounds formed by linkage of four pyrrole rings through methyne (-HC) bridges

A

Porphyrins

205
Q

Enzymes catalase, peroxidase, guanylate cyclase all utilize this protein for their synthesis

206
Q

Rate-limiting step in heme synthesis

A

Glycine + succinyl CoA —> D aminolevulinic acid

Enzyme ALA synthase

207
Q

Rate-limiting enzyme for heme synthesis and co factor

A

ALA Synthase

Co factor: Pyridoxine

208
Q

In heme synthesis, condensation of 2 molecules of D ALA leads to _______ by enzyme ____^^

A

Porphobilinogen

Emzyme: ALA Dehydratase

209
Q
  1. Zinc-containing enzyme for the formation of porphobilinogen during heme synthesis
  2. Its inhibitor
A
  1. ALA dehydratase

2. Lead (heavy metal ions)

210
Q

Ferrochelatase + ______ —> Heme

A

Protoporphyrin IX

211
Q

Identify enzyme and product impaired in this defect of Heme synthesis
ALA dehydratase deficiency porphyria

A

ALA dehydratase

Porphobilinogen

212
Q

Identify enzyme and product impaired in this defect of Heme synthesis
Acute intermittent porphyria

A

PBG deaminase

213
Q

Identify enzyme and product impaired in this defect of Heme synthesis
Congenital erythropoietic porphyria

A

Uropophyrinigen III cosynthase

Uroporphyrinogen III

214
Q

Identify enzyme and product impaired in this defect of Heme synthesis
Porphyria cutanea tarda

A

Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase

Coproporphyrinogen III

215
Q

Identify enzyme and product impaired in this defect of Heme synthesis
Hereditary coproporphyria

A

Coproporphyrinogen oxidase

Protoporphyrinogen IX

216
Q

Identify enzyme and product impaired in this defect of Heme synthesis
Variegate porphyria

A

Protoporphyrinogen oxidase

Protoporphyrin IX

217
Q

Identify enzyme and product impaired in this defect of Heme synthesis
Erythropoietic protoporphyria

A

Ferrochelatase

Heme

218
Q

Subcellular site of heme synthesis

A

Cytosol: D ALA to coproporphyrinogen III

the rest: mitchondria

219
Q

2 enzymes in heme synthesis most sensitive to lead poisoning

A

ALA dehytrase and ferrochelatase

220
Q

Increased urinary ALA and free erythrocyte porphyrins
Microcytic anemia with basophilic stippling of RBCs
Headached, memory loss
Peripheral neuropathy, claw hand, wrist drop
Nausea, abdominal pain, diarrhea
Deposits in gums, epiphyses

A

Lead poisoning

221
Q

Most common porphyria

A

Porphyria cutanea tarda

222
Q

Cutaneous fragility

Blistering of hands, forearms, face

A

Porohyria cutanea tarda

223
Q

Enzyme deficiency in porphyria cutanea tarda

A

Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase

224
Q

Accumulation of PBG and D ALA in the urine
Neuropsychiatric symptoms
Urine darkens when exposed to light

A

Acute intermittent porphyria

225
Q

Enzyme deficiency in acute intermittent porphyria

A

Hydroxymethylbilane synthase (uroporphyrinogen I synthase)

226
Q

Tx for mild and severe attack of acute intermittent porphyria

A

Mild: high dose glucose
Severe: hematin

227
Q

After 120 days, RBCs are taken up and degraded by the RES, particularly in these 2 organs

A

Liver spleen

228
Q

Heme degradation releases this by-product

A

Carbon monoxide

229
Q

Bilirubin is transported in the blood by binding to _____

230
Q

In the liver, bilirubin binds to intracellular proteins, particularly to ___

231
Q

Enzyme for the formation of bilirubin diglucuronide

A

Bilirubin glucuronyltransferase

232
Q

Step in heme degradation that is most susceptible to liver disease

A

Secretion of bilirubin into bile

233
Q

In the gut, bilirubin —> _____ (colorless)

A

Urobilinogen

234
Q

Intestinal bacteria oxidize urobilinogen—> ______ (brown)

235
Q

Some urobilinogen is reabsorbed from the blood and enters the ________

A

Portal circulation

236
Q

Remaining urobilinogen is transported by the blood to the kidney, where it is converted to _______ (yellow)

237
Q

Enzyme deficient in crigler najjar, gilbert syndrome

A

Bilirubin glucuronyltransferase

238
Q

_________ reaction is used to measure bilirubin in serum

A

Van den Bergh Reaction

239
Q

In Van den Bergh reaction,
Assay with no methanol measures ____
Assay with methanol measures ______
Difference in two measures _______

A

Direct bilirubin
Total bilirubin
Indirect bilirubin

240
Q

Defect in bilirubin uptake/conjugation/secretion

Dubin Johnson Syndrome

241
Q

Defect in bilirubin uptake/conjugation/secretion

Neonatal jaundice

A

Conjugation

242
Q

Defect in bilirubin uptake/conjugation/secretion

Crigler Najjar

A

Conjugation

243
Q

Defect in bilirubin uptake/conjugation/secretion

Gilbert syndrome

A

Conjugation

244
Q

Direct/indirect hyperbilirubinemia

Biliary tree obstruction

245
Q

Direct/indirect hyperbilirubinemia

Dubin Johnson Syndrome

246
Q

Direct/indirect hyperbilirubinemia

Rotor syndrome

247
Q

Direct/indirect hyperbilirubinemia

Hemolytic anemia

248
Q

Direct/indirect hyperbilirubinemia

Neonatal physiologic jaundice

249
Q

Direct/indirect hyperbilirubinemia

Crigler Najjar

250
Q

Direct/indirect hyperbilirubinemia

Gilbert syndrome

251
Q

Direct/indirect hyperbilirubinemia

Toxic hyperbilirubinemia

252
Q

Insulin/Glucagon

Source is Beta cells of islets

253
Q

Insulin/Glucagon

Source is alpha cells of islets

254
Q

Insulin/Glucagon

Two polypeptide chains with 51 AA linked together by 2 disulfide bridges

255
Q

Insulin/Glucagon

Single polypeptide chain with 29 AA

256
Q

Insulin/Glucagon

Second messenger is cAMP

257
Q

Insulin/Glucagon

2nd messenger is tyrosine kinase

258
Q

Insulin/Glucagon

Stimulated by cholecystokinin and gastric inhibitory peptide

259
Q

Insulin/Glucagon

Stimulated by hypoglycemia

260
Q
Insulin/Glucagon
Increases 
Gluconeogenesis
Glycogenolysis
Uptake of AA
Beta oxidation
Ketigenesis
261
Q
Insulin/Glucagon
Increases 
Glucose uptake
Glycigenesis
Protein synthesis
Lipogenesis
262
Q

Insulin/Glucagon
Inhibits gluconeogenesis
Glycogenolysis
Beta oxidation

263
Q

Insulin/Glucagon

Inhibits glycogenesis

264
Q

3 hormones with similar effects as glucagon

A

Epinephrine

Cortisol GH

265
Q

During fed state, the brain uses _____ as exclusive source of fuel

266
Q

During fasting, the brain uses_____ and _____ as sources of fuel

A

Glucose, ketone

267
Q

TAG stores and FA are used by the brain for fuel

T/F

A

F. They cant cross BBB

268
Q

During fed state, the PPP is activated in the liver and adipose to provide ______

269
Q

Majore source of energy in adipose tissue during marathon

270
Q

Principal site of metabolism of BCAA

A

Skeletal muscle