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Exams > Next Step #1 > Flashcards

Next Step #1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is micromolar?

A

1 x 10^-6 Molarity

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2
Q

Hypertonic

A

Higher concentration of solutes

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3
Q

Boiling point

A

When vapor pressure equals ambient pressure

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4
Q

Why does boiling point elevation occur?

A

More solute, less interface for the liquid to gas transition occur, decreases the vapor pressure and thus increases the temperature necessary to reach the boiling point.

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5
Q

Gamma rays are a type of _____ radiation

A

Ionizing

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6
Q

Radioactive decay is a ____ process

A

Irreversible

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7
Q

Does an alpha particle have a charge?

A

Yes, +2

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8
Q

What is one thing to keep in mind about cancer timing?

A

It may take a little while to develop.

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9
Q

Benign vs. malignant tumors

A

Benign: remain localized
Malignant: can invade other parts of the body in a process known as metastasis.

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10
Q

Angiogenesis

A

The development of blood vessels which can be used by cancer cells to feed them

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11
Q

Are chiral molecules superimposable on their mirror images?

A

No

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12
Q

Dextrorotater vs. levorotary

A 
o	Dextro (+): rotate plane polarized light in clockwise direction
o	Levorotary (-): rotate plane polarized light in counterclockwise direction
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13
Q

The more polar a compound, the _______ its solubility in an aqueous solution.

A

Increases

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14
Q

In a condenser, where does the water come in from?

A

Bottom

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15
Q

Imine vs. enamine

A

Imine: N=C
Enamine: C=C-NR2

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16
Q

The slope of the graph of displacement versus time represents _____

A

Velocity

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17
Q

The area under a curve of velocity and time represents ______.

A

Displacement

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18
Q

The attractive force of the positively-charged nucleus on the atom’s negatively-charged valence electrons is termed the _______

A

effective nuclear charge

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19
Q

What is the Newton’s Third law pair of weight caused by gravity of Earth?

A

Gravitational pull by the body on Earth. The gravity from Earth exerts a force on an object and that object also exerts a gravitational force on Earth.

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20
Q

What do noncompetitive inhibitors bind to?

A

Allosteric site either on the enzyme or ES complex.

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21
Q

When pH is less than the pka of a proton, will it be protonated or deprotonated?

A

Protonated

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22
Q

1 picogram = ____ grams

A

1 x10-12 grams

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23
Q

What are the properties of nitrogen gas?

A

Diatomic, inert, 80% of the air we breath.

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24
Q

• H2 with Pd reduces a ketone to an _____

A

Alkane

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25
Q

What can DIBAL do?

A

Reduce carboxylic acid to aldehyde and stop

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26
Q

What is unique about NaBH4?

A

It is a weak reducing agent and it cannot reduce carboxylic acids.

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27
Q

Steroids have a fused ____ ring structure

A

4 ring

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28
Q

T3 and T4 are derived from _____

A

Tyrosine

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29
Q

Compare the lasting effects of steroid hormones and peptide hormones?

A

Steroid hormones are longer-lasting, have a direct effect on gene transcription

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30
Q

Do lyases use water to cleave molecules?

A

No

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31
Q

What is the carbonyl IR peak? What is the alcohol OH peak?

A

Carbonyl: 1700-1750

Alcohol OH: 3200-3500

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32
Q

Only molecules that undergo a net change in the ________ during vibrational and rotational motion can absorb IR radiation.

A

dipole moment

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33
Q

Disulfide links only form between the side chains of _____ residues.

A

Cysteine

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34
Q

In the alpha helix, there are ____ residues per turn

A

3.6

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35
Q

Disulfide bonds contribute to ____ structure

A

Tertiary (and quarternary)

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36
Q

If you break disulfide bonds and the protein then splits onto two different places on the gel, what does this mean?

A

It means that the protein has quaternary structure

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37
Q

What is the standard hydrogen electrode half reaction?

A

2 H+ + 2e-  H2

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38
Q

The O2 electron acceptor at the end of the ETC has the _______ reduction potential

A

Highest

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39
Q

Does a positive or negative cell potential correspond to spontaneity?

A

Positive (negative delta G and >1 Keq)

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40
Q

When does the angle of incident light equal the angle of reflection?

A

Always

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41
Q

What is “angle of incidence” in reference to?

A

In reference to the normal to the medium

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42
Q

Total internal reflection is only possible when ______

A

Going from higher index of refraction to lower index of refraction.

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43
Q

What is the orbital hybridization of XeF4?

A

sp3d2

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44
Q

What happens in sp3 hybridization in NH3?

A

Combining the 2s orbital with the 3 2p orbitals to make 4 sp3 hybridized orbitals which are lower in energy.

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45
Q

Water that interacts with nonpolar molecules forms a ______ shield which _____ entropy

A

Solvation shield which decreases entropy.

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46
Q

Ka, the association constant of a reaction, is the ______ as Keq.

A

Same

47
Q

What is the heat of formation?

A

It is the change in enthalpy from the reactants to the products. The change in enthalpy to get from standard form to a product.

48
Q

The intermediate that will form fastest will be for the reaction with the _____ heat of formation.

A

Lowest, (most negative)

49
Q

The standard enthalpy of formation of any element in its standard state is ____

A

0

50
Q

What does an r value of -1, 0 and 1 mean in terms of correlation?

A

o 0: no relationship
o -1: negative correlation
o 1: positive correlation

51
Q

What is power and what type of studies have more power?

A

o Power: he ability of a study design to detect a real statistically significant effect
o Larger samples have more power.

52
Q

Compare Q and V of a capacitor when a battery is connected or not connected:

A

o Q: constant when battery is not connected

o V: constant when battery is connected.

53
Q

Does the body gain or lose heat by increasing metabolism?

A

Gains heat

54
Q

What are phagosomes?

A

Vesicles that contain particles that have been engulfed by phagocytosis

55
Q

Where is keratin found and what is different about keratin with regards to cysteine residues?

A

Keratin is in hair, skin, and nails. More cysteine residues means less flexible.

56
Q

Sensory neurons enter the spinal cord in ____ routes.

A

Dorsal

57
Q

Difference between exteroceptors and interoceptors

A

Exteroceptors: respond to stimuli from the outside world
Interoceptors: respond to stimuli generated inside the body

58
Q

Gaps in the myelin sheath are referred to as _____.

A

Nodes of Ranvier

59
Q

Moderating vs. mediating variables

A

Moderating variables attenuate or strengthen a given relationship, and mediating variables provide an important logical link between an independent variable and a dependent variable, or outcome.

60
Q

What is a common theme of cancer stem cells?

A

They are able to undergo self-renewal.

61
Q

What is polycistronic mRNA

A

Contains multiple genes in the same mRNA transcript

62
Q

The inflammatory response is classified as part of the _____ immune response

A

Innate

63
Q

What is erythropoietin and where is it released from?

A

Signals for creation of erythrocytes and is released from the kidney when it senses erythrocytes levels are low.

64
Q

Myristoylation is _____

A

Myristoylation is a lipidation modification where a myristoyl group, derived from myristic acid, is covalently attached by an amide bond to the alpha-amino group of an N-terminal glycine residue.

65
Q

Protein kinase A is stimulated by ______

A

cAMP

66
Q

Increasing plasma concentration of aldosterone is most like to be followed by _____

A

Increased sodium reabsorption in the distal tube (some in collecting duct too, and water follows, but this is the main one). Hydrogen and potassium ions are also excreted in this process.

67
Q

What 3 things happen when there is not enough fluid in the body?

A

Decreased blood volume, decreased blood pressure, and increased blood osmolarity

68
Q

What is the name of the peptide hormone that opposes aldosterone?

A

ANP: atrial natriuretic peptide. Decreases sodium uptake from distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct, decreases water reabsorption.

69
Q

What is the most useful way of sterilizing materials in the clinical and lab environments?

A

Autoclave: involves subjecting a surface to saturated steam under high pressure at a temperature well over the boiling point of water. When correctly done, autoclaving will inactivate all bacteria, spores, fungi, and viruses, although prions (infectious misshaped proteins) may remain present.

70
Q

Disinfection vs. sterilization

A

Disinfection: removing the microorganisms
Sterilization: killing the microorganisms

71
Q

Is cell culture maintained by mitosis or meiosis?

A

Mitosis

72
Q

Is meiosis cyclical and what is the result of meiosis (haploid or diploid cells)?

A

Not cyclical

o Haploid cells (fertilization makes diploid cells)

73
Q

What are the name of microtubules that extend from centrosomes to attach them to the cell membrane during mitosis/meiosis?

A

Asters

74
Q

____ are enzymes with different amino acid sequences that perform similar biological functions

A

Isoenzymes

75
Q

Is troponin present in all 3 muscle types?

A

No, it is only present in straited muscles (cardiac and skeletal muscle)

76
Q

What is one of the only ways to break peptide bonds?

A

Hydrolysis

77
Q

Do saturated or unsaturated fatty acids have a higher melting point?

A

Saturated (ex: butter)

78
Q

What does the graph of disruptive selection look like?

A

Maximums on the left and right and the median is selected against.

79
Q

What is the net reaction of glycolysis?

A

glucose + 2 NAD+ + 2 ADP + 2 Pi → 2 pyruvate + 2 NADH + 2 ATP + 2 H2O

80
Q

where is water lost during glycolysis?

A

enolase step

81
Q

What does cholesterol do to membrane fluidity at high temperatures?

A

Decreases it.

82
Q

What reactions can free radicals take place in?

A

Oxidizing

83
Q

Is fungi a prokaryote or eukaryote?

A

Eukaryote

84
Q

Do fungi or yeast or archaea have nuclei?

A

Out of all of these, archaea are the only ones that do not have nuclei (or membrane bound organelles).

85
Q

Compare analogous and homologous structures

A

Analogous structures are those structures that evolved independently to carry out the same function. Thus, the wing of a bee and the wing of a bird are analogous structures. Homologous structures are those that have a similar evolutionary history, arising from the same source, even if they now have different functions. The forelimbs of mammals (human arm, walrus flipper, bat wing) would all be homologous despite their different functions.

86
Q

Does marijuana have the qualities of a stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogen?

A

All 3

87
Q

A cognitive theorist would argue that ______is essential to sustaining most behaviors

A

Arousal

88
Q

______ asserts that people develop understandings and knowledge of the world through interactions with other people, and that the mediating force in this interaction is primarily language

A

Social constructionism

89
Q

What is reconstruction bias?

A

Reconstructive bias is a type of bias related to memory. Most research on memories suggests that our memories of the past are not as accurate as we think, especially when we are remembering times of high stress.

90
Q

What is social desirability bias?

A

Social desirability bias is a type of bias related to how people respond to research questions. The physicians may have known that the researcher was examining unethical behavior and responded a certain way

91
Q

What is attrition bias?

A

While the passage does not describe the methodology of the review, we can assume that the physicians were only surveyed once. Attrition bias occurs when participants drop out of a long-term experiment or study.

92
Q

What is selection bias?

A

Selection bias refers to a type of bias related to how people are chosen to participate. In this case, people who witnessed unethical behavior in medical school may have been more likely to respond to the survey.

93
Q

What is neustress?

A

Neustress happens when you are exposed to something stressful, but it doesn’t actively or directly affect you. For example, news about a natural disaster on the other side of the world may be very stressful, but your body doesn’t perceive that stress as good or bad for you so you aren’t affected

94
Q

_______ is the tendency that people have to judge things based not upon sound logic, but upon already held beliefs

A

Belief bias

95
Q

The extended release of what can lead to decreased immune system function?

A

Cortisol (for example during extended periods of stress)

96
Q

Conformity vs. compliance

A

Compliance is doing something when someone asks you to while conformity is more so conforming to group norms.

97
Q

________ attempts to quantify an individual’s access to resources, such as material goods, money, power, social networks, healthcare, and education.

A

Socioeconomic status

98
Q

Which reinforcement schedule is least prone to extinction?

A

Variable ratio

99
Q

What is the temporal retina?

A

The outside (not the nasal part)

100
Q

The stroop effect

A

The Stroop effect describes the phenomenon in which it is harder for an individual to reconcile different pieces of information relating to colors than to reconcile similar pieces of information
o The brain’s reaction time slows when it must deal with conflicting information.

101
Q

_____ is the manner in which the terms of the study are defined.

A

Construct validity

102
Q

______ refers to whether a variable is able to predict a certain outcome

A

Criterion validity

Measures how well one measure predicts an outcome for another measure.

103
Q

criterion validity vs. construct validity

A

Construct validity is the manner in which the terms of the study are defined. Criterion validity refers to whether a variable is able to predict a certain outcome

104
Q

________ means that living standards are increasing in absolute terms: you are better off than your parents and your children will be better off than you.

A

Absolute mobility. Absolute mobility compares your income to your parent’s income. If your parents make $5,000 dollars a year and you make $10,000 dollars a year, you have experienced absolute mobility. Absolute mobility is not an example of a demographic measure

how much living standards in a society increase

105
Q

_______ is an influence to accept information from others as evidence about reality, and can come into play when we are uncertain about information or what might be correct

A

Informational influence

106
Q

How are case studies different than qualitative research?

A

they tend to just focus on one person and the fine details of their individual experience.

107
Q

Formal vs. informal norms

A

Some norms are formal, meaning that they are written, explicit, and generally enforced with penalties; laws are classic examples of formal norms. In contrast, informal norms are generally understood but implicit, unwritten, and not associated with criminal or legal penalties for their violation.

108
Q

Folkway vs. more: which is more serious

A

There are greater repercussions for breaking a more

109
Q

What is strain theory?

A

the idea that when social pressure is placed on those who do not have the means to follow it and succeed, they may turn to crime and other deviant behavior.

110
Q

______ refers to a phenomenon in which an individual adopts the behaviors of others—typically without a direct request being made—on the assumption that others’ behavior must be correct under the circumstances at hand.

A

Social proof

111
Q

Compare the time of approach and avoidant conflicts: approach-approach, avoidant-avoidant, approach-avoidant, double approach-avoidant

A

o approach-approach: two options that are both appealing
o avoidant-avoidant: two options that are both unappealing
o approach-avoidant: one option that can be good or bad
o double approach-avoidant: consist of two options with both appealing and negative characteristics each

112
Q

Some facts about the Solomon asch conformity study

A

the confederates did not defend their answers they just gave them and that’s it
o different number of confederates might have conformed (so not all of them opposing the actual number)

113
Q

_____ is the the phenomenon that the subjective perception of a linear difference between two stimuli progressively diminishes when the average magnitude of the stimuli increases.

A

Magnitude effect

114
Q

An _____is a system in which a small number of individuals hold the majority of the power.

A

oligarchy

Exams (8 decks)

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