Kaplan Exam #1 Flashcards
1
Q
how are peptides formed?
A
amino group of one AA attacks the carboxyl group of another
2
Q
what helps to form protein primary, secondary, tertiary, and quarternary structure?
A
primary: peptide bonds
secondary: H-bonds
tertiary: R groups
quarternary: noncovalent bonds, acid/base
3
Q
what amino acid is not optically active?
A
glycine
4
Q
what is a nitrile group?
A
N triple bonded to C
5
Q
what makes an electrophile better?
A
attaching an EWG to it
6
Q
what is the difference between a Grignard reagant and hydrolysis?
A
Grignard reagant makes new C-C bonds
hydrolysis makes a carboxylic acid
7
Q
what is the first step when conducting a ring closure?
A
identify/number the carbons
8
Q
how does index of refraction relate to speed of light?
A
as index of refraction increases, speed of the light decreases
9
Q
explain all of the concepts of myopia
A
nearsightedness
can see near but not far
light projects before the retina
10
Q
material with the ____ index of refraction will allow light to travel through it at a faster speed
A
lower
11
Q
is a converging lens convex or concave lens?
A
convex
12
Q
to fix farsightedness, what type of glasses do you need?
A
converging lens, convex lens
13
Q
any real image formed by a converging lens is _____
A
inverted
14
Q
an image projected on the retina is _______
A
inverted and reduced
must be reduced because the retina is so small
15
Q
anomers differ only in the _____
A
absolute configuration of the anomeric carbon
16
Q
in alpha D-glucose, where does the anomeric OH point?
A
down
17
Q
in beta D-glucose, where does the anomeric OH point?
A
up
18
Q
a reducing sugar contains _____
A
a hemiacetal functional group
19
Q
what is a reducing sugar
A
it is any sugar that is capable of acting as a reducing agent
20
Q
pyranose vs. furanose ring
A
pyranose (6 members, 5 C and 1 O)
furanose (6 members, 4 C and 1 O)
21
Q
what is mass percent composition referring to?
A
it is only referring to the one compound of the product (maybe unless otherwise specified)
22
Q
what is a thiol group?
A
-SH
23
Q
when two cysteine molecules interact they form _____
A
cystine, disulfide bridge
24
Q
acyl halide
A
has a carbonyl, an R group, and a halogen
25
Quaternary structure exists when ____
multiple polypeptides interact to form a single protein with multiple subunits.
26
how are polysaccharides held together?
glycosidic bonds
27
atomic # + neutrons = _____
atomic mass
28
enthalpy is a ____ function
state
29
catalysts work by lowering the ______ but they don't mess with ____
activation energy
| enthalpy or free energy of a reaction
30
the slowest step of a reaction is the _____ step
rate determining step
31
when can we derive the rate law directly from the mechanism?
when it has been broken down into a series of elementary reactions and we know the slowest step
32
a second order reaction involves the interaction of how many molecules?
2
33
free energy/potential energy is represented by what?
deltaG
34
what does a spontaneous reaction tell us about Keq?
it is >1
35
from a free energy diagram, can we say anything about the potential energy of individual reactants?
no, only about all of the reactants together
36
oftentimes, what is the oxidation number of N?
-3
37
when a beam is balanced with no angular acceleration, the net ___ is 0
torque
38
acids that have multiple protons to donate are beneficial as buffers because?
they can act as buffers over several pH ranges
39
what part of a protein do hydrophobic amino acids prefer in water?
interior
40
what can enzymes do to the stereochemistry of a molecule when they hold the molecule in their active site?
retain it, invert it, racemize it
41
what are the intermolecular forces in valine mixture?
H-bond, dipole dipole and london dispersion
42
what are the intermolecular forces in valine mixture?
H-bond, dipole dipole and london dispersion
43
is silica polar or nonpolar?
polar
44
in thin layer chromatography with a polar stationary phase, will nonpolar or polar substance travel further?
nonpolar
45
what is average body temperature in celsius?
37 degrees C
46
1 picometer (pm) is how many meters
10^12 pm is 1 meter
47
how is an indicator chosen?
chosen as the one that changes color in the pH range around the equivalence point (or closest to it)
48
how is an indicator chosen?
chosen as the one that changes color in the pH range around the equivalence point (or closest to it)
49
would DNA or RNA be altered by purine definiciency?
both
50
when proteins are denatured, what type of bonds are mostly broken?
hydrogen bonds
51
is uracil a purine or pyrimidine
pyrimidine
52
is ribose or deoxyribose in UTP?
ribose
53
T/F: enantiomers have different physical and chemical properties
false
54
do bacteria work with D or L amino acids? What about eukaryotes?
both
| just (mostly) L
55
due to peptide bonds' resonance, what other characteristics does this give them?
double bond character and planar molecular geometry
56
In a titration curve, what do the plateaus represent?
they represent where hydrogens are lost
57
in sanger sequencing, compare the ratio of deoxyribonucleotides and dideoxyribonucleotides
more deoxy or the chain would terminate early
58
what is the number of L in one mole of gas at STP and what are STP?
22.4 L/mol
| STP: 1 atm and 273 K
59
carbonic acid vs. bicarbonate
carbonic acid: H2CO3
| bicarobonate: HCO3-
60
in animals with reduced metabolism, what occurs?
anaerobic metabolism dominates, there is an increase in lactate dehydrogenase activity
61
intricacies of positive and negative voltage potential
final point - initial point
62
electrons flow to where there is ____
higher potential
63
at the end point, the moles of acid ___ the moles of base in a titration
equals
At the equivalence point the moles of added base will be equal to the moles of original acid, this allows the determination of the number of moles of original acid.
64
nitro group
NO2
65
do the electron configurations differ for isotopes?
no, isotopes have changes in neutrons rather than electrons.
66
how does leptin influence metabolism?
decreases appetite, metabolic rate, and blood insulin levels.
67
leptin _____ insulin
inhibits
68
what are the metabolic tendencies in the starvation state?
increased plasma cortisol, inability to effectively undergo thermogenesis, unrestrained appetite, and resistance to insulin
69
where is PTH released from?
parathyroid gland
70
where is calcitonin produced?
thyroid
71
what is secreted in response to high calcium levels?
calcitonin
| and decrease in PTH due to negative feedback loop.
72
what does increased proteins in the interstitial fluid do to interstitial fluid pressure?
increases it due to increased osmotic pressure and flow of fluid out of the capillaries.
73
T state vs. R state hemoglobin curve
T state is to the right and R state is to the left
74
the T state of hemoglobin has a ______ affinity for it
lower
75
endosymbiotic hypothesis
mitochondria were once independent unicellular entities that formed a symbiotic relationship with eukaryotic cells that was mutually beneficial to both parties.
76
why are reactions faster at higher temperatures?
reactants are moving around with higher energy so when they collide, the collisions are higher energy collisions, more likely to overcome the activation energy and have the reaction occur.
77
Insulin levels are reduced at times of low blood glucose concentration in order to _____
to conserve glucose for use by the brain.
78
what are the least harmful mutations and why?
```
point mutations (specifically silent)
there is redundancy in the genetic code such that more than one codon (wobble in third base) can result in the same amino acid
```
79
can nondisjunction occur in mitochondrial replication?
no, circular DNA: no crossing over and no homologous chromosomes.
80
in aerobic metabolism, what must be regenerated to continue glycolysis?
NAD+
81
how many ATP do aerobic and anaerobic metabolism create?
36
| 2
82
a protein is in its native state when it is _____
properly folded and functional
83
when a solvation layer originally forms when proteins are added to water, entropy ____. But when the non-polar proteins cluster in the middle, the solvation layer ____, and entropy _____
decreases.
| solvation layer decreases so entropy increases
84
does water form a solvation layer around polar groups?
yes, but to a lesser extent than around nonpolar groups.
85
are the neural tube and notochord mesoderm or ectoderm?
neural tube: ectoderm
| notochord: mesoderm
86
what part of the gene codes for a repressor and where does the repressor bind? Ex: lac operon
the repressor is coded for by the regulator gene and the repressor binds to the operator region
87
recombination frequency can ______ actual physical distance between genes
underestimate
88
centrosome vs. centromere
centrosome: consists of 2 centrioles
centromere: location in the middle of sister chromatids where microtubules attach during mitosis (prophase)
89
what is the unit for recombination frequency?
centimorgan
90
mitochondrial DNA relies on _____ for replication
nuclear DNA products
91
for noncompetitive inhibitors, increasing the concentration of substrate ________ the reaction velocity
does nothing to it, does not increase it
92
isoosmotic
same concentration of particles
93
cofactor
when an enzyme needs another molecule to help with enzymatic activity but the molecule is not an enzyme itself
94
early on in embryogenesis, cleavage is _____
indeterminate
95
deuterosome vs. protosome
dueterosomes have a mouth and anus whole protosomes only have a mouth
96
what about membranes are different for erythrocytes and other cell types?
erythrocytes only have plasma membranes while other cells have membranes of organelles and plasma membranes.
97
what links glucose in glycogen
alpha 1, 4 glycosidic bond
| branches are alpha 1,6 glycosidic bonds
98
what is common in adults who were raised by caregivers who indicted insecure attachment
difficulty forming meaningful relationships
increased incidence of substance abuse
higher rates of anxiety and mood disorders
99
what is an insecure attachment style?
avoidant
ambivalent
disorganized
100
schacter-singer vs. lazarus theory of emotion
The difference is when cognitive appraisal and physiological arousal occur. In the S-S theory, the stimulus causes physiological arousal that is followed by cognitive appraisal of the arousal in the context of the environment. In the Lazarus theory, the stimulus is followed by cognitive appraisal that is then followed by emotion and physiological arousal
101
emotions result from stimulation of the dorsal thalamus is part of which theory of emotion?
Canon-bard
102
gross and barrett theory of emotion
More than two factors go into creating an emotion: subjective experience, expressive behavior, and peripheral physiological responses
103
what is the primary neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic NS?
acetylcholine
104
what are the neurotransmitters used in the sympathetic NS?
acetylcholine at the presynaptic neuron
adrenaline and noradrenaline at the postsynaptic neuron
(Ach by postganglionic neurons that innervate the sweat glands)
105
cognitive behavioral therapy focuses on _____
correcting patterns of conscious thought
106
what are the two different sides of group polarization?
risky shift and cautious shift
107
"the person making the judgment is doing so without reason, but because of prior expectation". What is this representative of?
self-fulfilling prophecy
108
People changing their attitude or behavior based on observations is related to _____ theory
social cognitive theory
109
when factors influence detection of signals
signal detection
110
magnitude estimation for weights
person guesses how much something weighs
111
matching with weights
participant is able to adjust one of the weights until he thinks they are the same weight
112
serotonin influences which 3 things?
sleep, mood, appetite
113
relate serotonin to sleep
makes you feel awake
114
relate serotonin to appetite
makes you feel full
115
what does Weber's law not really hold true for?
sound
116
what personality theory is based on the idea that behavior is determined by reinforcement and punishment?
behaviorist perspective
117
this disorder is marked by those afflicted going into a state that removes unpleasant memories
dissociative disorder
118
in cognitive dissonance, is a person more likely to change their attitude or their behavior?
attitude
119
fluid intelligence peaks in ____ adulthood and crystallized intelligence peaks in ____ adulthood
early
middle
(both eventually decline)
120
does fluid or crystallized intelligence peak first?
fluide
121
primary vs. secondary circular reaction
both: repetitive nature
primary: child finds soothing
secondary: involves and affects the environment
122
proactive vs. retroactive interference
proactive: old memories make it hard to form new ones
retroactive: new memories make it hard to remember old ones
123
curvilinear relationship
A curvilinear relationship is a type of relationship between two variables that has a pattern of correspondence or association between the two variables that change as the values of the variables change (increase or decrease). Whereas some relationships are straightforward to understand, explain, and detect statistically (i.e., linear relationships), curvilinear relationships are more complex because the nature of the relationship is different at different levels of the variables.
