Kaplan Exam #1 Flashcards

1
Q

how are peptides formed?

A

amino group of one AA attacks the carboxyl group of another

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2
Q

what helps to form protein primary, secondary, tertiary, and quarternary structure?

A

primary: peptide bonds
secondary: H-bonds
tertiary: R groups
quarternary: noncovalent bonds, acid/base

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3
Q

what amino acid is not optically active?

A

glycine

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4
Q

what is a nitrile group?

A

N triple bonded to C

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5
Q

what makes an electrophile better?

A

attaching an EWG to it

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6
Q

what is the difference between a Grignard reagant and hydrolysis?

A

Grignard reagant makes new C-C bonds

hydrolysis makes a carboxylic acid

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7
Q

what is the first step when conducting a ring closure?

A

identify/number the carbons

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8
Q

how does index of refraction relate to speed of light?

A

as index of refraction increases, speed of the light decreases

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9
Q

explain all of the concepts of myopia

A

nearsightedness
can see near but not far
light projects before the retina

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10
Q

material with the ____ index of refraction will allow light to travel through it at a faster speed

A

lower

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11
Q

is a converging lens convex or concave lens?

A

convex

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12
Q

to fix farsightedness, what type of glasses do you need?

A

converging lens, convex lens

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13
Q

any real image formed by a converging lens is _____

A

inverted

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14
Q

an image projected on the retina is _______

A

inverted and reduced

must be reduced because the retina is so small

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15
Q

anomers differ only in the _____

A

absolute configuration of the anomeric carbon

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16
Q

in alpha D-glucose, where does the anomeric OH point?

A

down

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17
Q

in beta D-glucose, where does the anomeric OH point?

A

up

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18
Q

a reducing sugar contains _____

A

a hemiacetal functional group

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19
Q

what is a reducing sugar

A

it is any sugar that is capable of acting as a reducing agent

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20
Q

pyranose vs. furanose ring

A

pyranose (6 members, 5 C and 1 O)

furanose (6 members, 4 C and 1 O)

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21
Q

what is mass percent composition referring to?

A

it is only referring to the one compound of the product (maybe unless otherwise specified)

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22
Q

what is a thiol group?

A

-SH

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23
Q

when two cysteine molecules interact they form _____

A

cystine, disulfide bridge

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24
Q

acyl halide

A

has a carbonyl, an R group, and a halogen

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25
Q

Quaternary structure exists when ____

A

multiple polypeptides interact to form a single protein with multiple subunits.

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26
Q

how are polysaccharides held together?

A

glycosidic bonds

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27
Q

atomic # + neutrons = _____

A

atomic mass

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28
Q

enthalpy is a ____ function

A

state

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29
Q

catalysts work by lowering the ______ but they don’t mess with ____

A

activation energy

enthalpy or free energy of a reaction

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30
Q

the slowest step of a reaction is the _____ step

A

rate determining step

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31
Q

when can we derive the rate law directly from the mechanism?

A

when it has been broken down into a series of elementary reactions and we know the slowest step

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32
Q

a second order reaction involves the interaction of how many molecules?

A

2

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33
Q

free energy/potential energy is represented by what?

A

deltaG

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34
Q

what does a spontaneous reaction tell us about Keq?

A

it is >1

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35
Q

from a free energy diagram, can we say anything about the potential energy of individual reactants?

A

no, only about all of the reactants together

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36
Q

oftentimes, what is the oxidation number of N?

A

-3

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37
Q

when a beam is balanced with no angular acceleration, the net ___ is 0

A

torque

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38
Q

acids that have multiple protons to donate are beneficial as buffers because?

A

they can act as buffers over several pH ranges

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39
Q

what part of a protein do hydrophobic amino acids prefer in water?

A

interior

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40
Q

what can enzymes do to the stereochemistry of a molecule when they hold the molecule in their active site?

A

retain it, invert it, racemize it

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41
Q

what are the intermolecular forces in valine mixture?

A

H-bond, dipole dipole and london dispersion

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42
Q

what are the intermolecular forces in valine mixture?

A

H-bond, dipole dipole and london dispersion

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43
Q

is silica polar or nonpolar?

A

polar

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44
Q

in thin layer chromatography with a polar stationary phase, will nonpolar or polar substance travel further?

A

nonpolar

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45
Q

what is average body temperature in celsius?

A

37 degrees C

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46
Q

1 picometer (pm) is how many meters

A

10^12 pm is 1 meter

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47
Q

how is an indicator chosen?

A

chosen as the one that changes color in the pH range around the equivalence point (or closest to it)

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48
Q

how is an indicator chosen?

A

chosen as the one that changes color in the pH range around the equivalence point (or closest to it)

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49
Q

would DNA or RNA be altered by purine definiciency?

A

both

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50
Q

when proteins are denatured, what type of bonds are mostly broken?

A

hydrogen bonds

51
Q

is uracil a purine or pyrimidine

A

pyrimidine

52
Q

is ribose or deoxyribose in UTP?

A

ribose

53
Q

T/F: enantiomers have different physical and chemical properties

A

false

54
Q

do bacteria work with D or L amino acids? What about eukaryotes?

A

both

just (mostly) L

55
Q

due to peptide bonds’ resonance, what other characteristics does this give them?

A

double bond character and planar molecular geometry

56
Q

In a titration curve, what do the plateaus represent?

A

they represent where hydrogens are lost

57
Q

in sanger sequencing, compare the ratio of deoxyribonucleotides and dideoxyribonucleotides

A

more deoxy or the chain would terminate early

58
Q

what is the number of L in one mole of gas at STP and what are STP?

A

22.4 L/mol

STP: 1 atm and 273 K

59
Q

carbonic acid vs. bicarbonate

A

carbonic acid: H2CO3

bicarobonate: HCO3-

60
Q

in animals with reduced metabolism, what occurs?

A

anaerobic metabolism dominates, there is an increase in lactate dehydrogenase activity

61
Q

intricacies of positive and negative voltage potential

A

final point - initial point

62
Q

electrons flow to where there is ____

A

higher potential

63
Q

at the end point, the moles of acid ___ the moles of base in a titration

A

equals

At the equivalence point the moles of added base will be equal to the moles of original acid, this allows the determination of the number of moles of original acid.

64
Q

nitro group

A

NO2

65
Q

do the electron configurations differ for isotopes?

A

no, isotopes have changes in neutrons rather than electrons.

66
Q

how does leptin influence metabolism?

A

decreases appetite, metabolic rate, and blood insulin levels.

67
Q

leptin _____ insulin

A

inhibits

68
Q

what are the metabolic tendencies in the starvation state?

A

increased plasma cortisol, inability to effectively undergo thermogenesis, unrestrained appetite, and resistance to insulin

69
Q

where is PTH released from?

A

parathyroid gland

70
Q

where is calcitonin produced?

A

thyroid

71
Q

what is secreted in response to high calcium levels?

A

calcitonin

and decrease in PTH due to negative feedback loop.

72
Q

what does increased proteins in the interstitial fluid do to interstitial fluid pressure?

A

increases it due to increased osmotic pressure and flow of fluid out of the capillaries.

73
Q

T state vs. R state hemoglobin curve

A

T state is to the right and R state is to the left

74
Q

the T state of hemoglobin has a ______ affinity for it

A

lower

75
Q

endosymbiotic hypothesis

A

mitochondria were once independent unicellular entities that formed a symbiotic relationship with eukaryotic cells that was mutually beneficial to both parties.

76
Q

why are reactions faster at higher temperatures?

A

reactants are moving around with higher energy so when they collide, the collisions are higher energy collisions, more likely to overcome the activation energy and have the reaction occur.

77
Q

Insulin levels are reduced at times of low blood glucose concentration in order to _____

A

to conserve glucose for use by the brain.

78
Q

what are the least harmful mutations and why?

A
point mutations (specifically silent)
there is redundancy in the genetic code such that more than one codon (wobble in third base) can result in the same amino acid
79
Q

can nondisjunction occur in mitochondrial replication?

A

no, circular DNA: no crossing over and no homologous chromosomes.

80
Q

in aerobic metabolism, what must be regenerated to continue glycolysis?

A

NAD+

81
Q

how many ATP do aerobic and anaerobic metabolism create?

A

36

2

82
Q

a protein is in its native state when it is _____

A

properly folded and functional

83
Q

when a solvation layer originally forms when proteins are added to water, entropy ____. But when the non-polar proteins cluster in the middle, the solvation layer ____, and entropy _____

A

decreases.

solvation layer decreases so entropy increases

84
Q

does water form a solvation layer around polar groups?

A

yes, but to a lesser extent than around nonpolar groups.

85
Q

are the neural tube and notochord mesoderm or ectoderm?

A

neural tube: ectoderm

notochord: mesoderm

86
Q

what part of the gene codes for a repressor and where does the repressor bind? Ex: lac operon

A

the repressor is coded for by the regulator gene and the repressor binds to the operator region

87
Q

recombination frequency can ______ actual physical distance between genes

A

underestimate

88
Q

centrosome vs. centromere

A

centrosome: consists of 2 centrioles
centromere: location in the middle of sister chromatids where microtubules attach during mitosis (prophase)

89
Q

what is the unit for recombination frequency?

A

centimorgan

90
Q

mitochondrial DNA relies on _____ for replication

A

nuclear DNA products

91
Q

for noncompetitive inhibitors, increasing the concentration of substrate ________ the reaction velocity

A

does nothing to it, does not increase it

92
Q

isoosmotic

A

same concentration of particles

93
Q

cofactor

A

when an enzyme needs another molecule to help with enzymatic activity but the molecule is not an enzyme itself

94
Q

early on in embryogenesis, cleavage is _____

A

indeterminate

95
Q

deuterosome vs. protosome

A

dueterosomes have a mouth and anus whole protosomes only have a mouth

96
Q

what about membranes are different for erythrocytes and other cell types?

A

erythrocytes only have plasma membranes while other cells have membranes of organelles and plasma membranes.

97
Q

what links glucose in glycogen

A

alpha 1, 4 glycosidic bond

branches are alpha 1,6 glycosidic bonds

98
Q

what is common in adults who were raised by caregivers who indicted insecure attachment

A

difficulty forming meaningful relationships
increased incidence of substance abuse
higher rates of anxiety and mood disorders

99
Q

what is an insecure attachment style?

A

avoidant
ambivalent
disorganized

100
Q

schacter-singer vs. lazarus theory of emotion

A

The difference is when cognitive appraisal and physiological arousal occur. In the S-S theory, the stimulus causes physiological arousal that is followed by cognitive appraisal of the arousal in the context of the environment. In the Lazarus theory, the stimulus is followed by cognitive appraisal that is then followed by emotion and physiological arousal

101
Q

emotions result from stimulation of the dorsal thalamus is part of which theory of emotion?

A

Canon-bard

102
Q

gross and barrett theory of emotion

A

More than two factors go into creating an emotion: subjective experience, expressive behavior, and peripheral physiological responses

103
Q

what is the primary neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic NS?

A

acetylcholine

104
Q

what are the neurotransmitters used in the sympathetic NS?

A

acetylcholine at the presynaptic neuron
adrenaline and noradrenaline at the postsynaptic neuron
(Ach by postganglionic neurons that innervate the sweat glands)

105
Q

cognitive behavioral therapy focuses on _____

A

correcting patterns of conscious thought

106
Q

what are the two different sides of group polarization?

A

risky shift and cautious shift

107
Q

“the person making the judgment is doing so without reason, but because of prior expectation”. What is this representative of?

A

self-fulfilling prophecy

108
Q

People changing their attitude or behavior based on observations is related to _____ theory

A

social cognitive theory

109
Q

when factors influence detection of signals

A

signal detection

110
Q

magnitude estimation for weights

A

person guesses how much something weighs

111
Q

matching with weights

A

participant is able to adjust one of the weights until he thinks they are the same weight

112
Q

serotonin influences which 3 things?

A

sleep, mood, appetite

113
Q

relate serotonin to sleep

A

makes you feel awake

114
Q

relate serotonin to appetite

A

makes you feel full

115
Q

what does Weber’s law not really hold true for?

A

sound

116
Q

what personality theory is based on the idea that behavior is determined by reinforcement and punishment?

A

behaviorist perspective

117
Q

this disorder is marked by those afflicted going into a state that removes unpleasant memories

A

dissociative disorder

118
Q

in cognitive dissonance, is a person more likely to change their attitude or their behavior?

A

attitude

119
Q

fluid intelligence peaks in ____ adulthood and crystallized intelligence peaks in ____ adulthood

A

early
middle
(both eventually decline)

120
Q

does fluid or crystallized intelligence peak first?

A

fluide

121
Q

primary vs. secondary circular reaction

A

both: repetitive nature
primary: child finds soothing
secondary: involves and affects the environment

122
Q

proactive vs. retroactive interference

A

proactive: old memories make it hard to form new ones
retroactive: new memories make it hard to remember old ones

123
Q

curvilinear relationship

A

A curvilinear relationship is a type of relationship between two variables that has a pattern of correspondence or association between the two variables that change as the values of the variables change (increase or decrease). Whereas some relationships are straightforward to understand, explain, and detect statistically (i.e., linear relationships), curvilinear relationships are more complex because the nature of the relationship is different at different levels of the variables.