Neurophysiology & Pathophysiology Flashcards

0
Q

Cerebral metabolic O2 consumption (CMRO2) is normally…..

A

3.5 mL/100 g/min. (~50mL/min)

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1
Q

The brain uses what percentage of total body O2 consumption?

A

20%

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2
Q

What part of the brain has the highest CMRO2?

A

Gray matter

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3
Q

CMRO2 usually parallels what?

A

Glucose consumption

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4
Q

What parts of the brain are most sensitive to hypoxia injury?

A

Hippocampus and cerebellum

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5
Q

The average CBF is what percentage of the cardiac output?

A

15-20%

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6
Q

What is the average value for CBF?

A

50 mL/100 g/min. (~750mL/min)

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7
Q

What is CPP?

A

Cerebral perfusion pressure.

CPP = MAP - ICP (or CVP)

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8
Q

What are the CPP values for normal pts, isoelectric EEG and irreversible brain damage?

A

Normal CPP = 80-100 mmHg
Isoelectric EEG = 25-40 mmHg
Brain damage = <25 mmHg

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9
Q

What is a normal ICP?

A

Less the 10 mmHg

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10
Q

In normal patients, CBF remains constant between MAP of …..?

A

50-150 mmHg

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11
Q

What happens to CBF when the MAP falls outside of the normal range (150 mmHg)?

A

It becomes more pressure dependent

150 usually represents edema

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12
Q

What effect does chronic arterial HTN have on the cerebral auto regulation curve?

A

Shifts is to the Right.

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13
Q

How is CBF related to PaCO2?

A

CBF is directly proportional to PaCO2 between 20-80 mmHg

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14
Q

For every 1 mmHg change in PaCO2, how is the CBF affected?

A

CBF increases 1-2 mL/100 g/min

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15
Q

Why does PaCO2 have such a profound influence in CBF?

A

CO2 can readily cross the blood brain barrier, but H+ ions do not

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16
Q

What effect does PaO2 have on CBF?

A

Only severe hypoxemia (PaO2 < 50 mmHg) significantly increase CBF

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17
Q

What is the blood brain barrier?

A

A lipid barrier that lets the lipid-soluble substances pass, but restricts ionized substances or those with large molecular weight

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18
Q

Passage through the blood brain barrier depends on what four characteristics?

A

Size
Charge
Lipid solubility
Degree of protein binding in the blood

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19
Q

What is the function of cerebrospinal fluid?

A

Protects CNS from trauma

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20
Q

What are the normal values for production rate and total volume of CSF?

A

Production rate: 0.3-0.4 mL/min (~500mL/day)

Total Volume: 150mL

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21
Q

Where is CSF produced?

A

CSF is formed by the choroid plexuses

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22
Q

Which drugs decrease CSF production?

A

Corticosteroids
Diuretics
Vasoconstrictors

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23
Q

The cranial vault is a rigid structure with a fixed total volume consisting of what three parts?

A

Brain (80%)
Blood (12%)
CSF (8%)

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24
Q

What is ICP?

A

Intracranial pressure is the supratentorial CSF pressure measured in lateral ventricles or over the cerebral cortex

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25
Q

What is the normal range for ICP?

A

5 to 10 mmHg

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26
Q

What are some compensatory mechanisms for decreasing ICP?

A
  1. Displacement of CSF (brain -> spinal cord)
  2. Increased CSF absorption
  3. Decreased CSF production
  4. Decrease in CBV
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27
Q

How is intracranial hypertension defined?

A

Sustained ICP > 15 mmHg

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28
Q

What are some possible causes of intracranial hypertension?

A
  • Expanding tissue or fluid mass
  • Depressed skull fracture
  • CSF absorption abnormality
  • Excessive CBF
  • Systemic disturbances resulting in brain edema
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29
Q

What are some of the signs and symptoms associated with intracranial hypertension?

A
Headache
N/V
Papilledema
Mental status changes
Visual changes
Cushing reflex (HTN & Bradycardia)
Fixed, dilated pupils
Seizures
Altered breathing pattern
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30
Q

How is intracranial hypertension treated?

A
  1. Treat underlying cause
  • Fluid restriction
  • Decrease CSF volume (drain or diuretics)
  • Decrease CBF (hyperventilation)
  • Decrease brain volume (decadron, mannitol)
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31
Q

What is intracranial compliance?

A

Change in ICP in response to change in intracranial volume

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32
Q

Arnold-Chiari malformation is associated with what type of brain herniation?

A

The cerebellar tonsils through the foramen magnum

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33
Q

What is the worst site for a brain herniation?

A

Cerebellar tonsils through the foramen magnum

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34
Q

Which inhalational agents produce the greatest and least effect on cerebral metabolic rate?

A
Isoflurane = greatest depression
Halothane = least effect
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35
Q

Which inhalational agents is best for a patient with intracranial hypertension?

A

Isoflurane

Has little to no effect on ICP

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36
Q

What phenomenon is possible with volatile anesthetics in the setting of focal ischemia?

A

Circulatory steal

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37
Q

What is the circulatory steal phenomenon?

A

Increasing blood flow in normal areas of the brain, but not in ischemic areas where arterioles are already maximally vasodilated.

end result = redistribution of blood flow away from ischemic -> normal areas

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38
Q

All intravenous agents either have little effect on or reduced CMR and CBF with the exception of which drug?

A

Ketamine

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39
Q

Ketamine is the only intravenous anesthetic that does what to the cerebral vasculature?

A

Dilates cerebral vasculature thus causing an increase in CBF (50-60%)

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40
Q

What are the most commonly used monitors for neurosurgical procedures?

A

EEG

Evoked potentials

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41
Q

EEG activation (As with light anesthesia and surgical stimulation) Shows what type of activity?

A

A shift to predominantly high-frequency and low-voltage activity

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42
Q

EEG activation is associated with what drugs and physiologic states?

A
Inhalational agents (Subanesthetic)
Barbiturates (small doses)
Benzodiazepines (small doses)
Etomidate (small doses)
N2O
Ketamine
Mild hypercapnia
Sensory stimulation
Early hypoxia
43
Q

EEG depression is associated with which drugs and physiologic states?

A
Inhalational agents (1-2 MAC)
Barbiturates
Etomidate
Propofol
Opioids
Hypocapnia
Marked hypercapnia
Hypothermia
Late hypoxia
44
Q

What are the four types of evoked potentials monitored?

A

Somatosensory (SSEP)
Motor (MEP)
Brainstem auditory (BAEP)
Visual (VEP)

45
Q

What is the pathophysiology of cerebral ischemia?

A

Impairment resulting from cerebral perfusion or metabolic substrate interruption or severe hypoxemia

46
Q

How long can the brain tolerate ischemia before irreversible neuronal injury occurs?

A

3 to 8 minutes

47
Q

What are the different types of ischemia?

A

Focal (Characterized by presence of surrounding nonischemic brain and possible collateral bloodflow to the ischemic region)

Global incomplete (Insufficient blood supply or oxygen delivery to the whole brain)

Global complete (Characterized by absent CBF)

48
Q

What is the ischemic penumbra?

A

Brain tissue surrounding a severely damaged area may suffer functional impairment but still remain viable

  • marginal perfusion
  • loss of autoregulation
49
Q

What is the most effective method for protecting the brain during focal and global ischemia?

A

Hypothermia

50
Q

Some anesthetic agents can prove useful in protection against what type of ischemia?

A

Focal ischemia

51
Q

What are the four main anesthetic considerations for maintaining optimal CPP?

A
  1. Normal BP
  2. Avoid increased ICP
  3. Maintain normocarbia
  4. Avoid hyperglycemia
52
Q

What are some potential causes of intracranial mass lesions?

A
Congenital
Neoplastic
Infectious
Vascular
Primary tumor sites
53
Q

Intracranial Mass lesions present according to what three factors?

A

Growth rate
Location
ICP

54
Q

The majority of intracranial mass lesions are located where?

A

Supratentorial (70%)

Infratentorial (30%)

55
Q

What are some of the signs and symptoms associated with intracranial mass lesions?

A

Headache
Seizures
Decline in cognitive/Neurological functions
Focal neurological deficits

56
Q

Name 3 types of supratentorial masses?

A

Meningiomas
Gliomas
metastatic lesions

57
Q

Supratentorial masses are associated with what signs and symptoms?

A

Seizures
Hemiplegia
Aphasia (loss of speech)

58
Q

Infratentorial masses are commonly what type?

A

Posterior fossa tumors

59
Q

What are the signs and symptoms commonly associated with infratentorial masses?

A

Cerebellar dysfunction (Ataxia, nystagmus, dysarthria)

Brainstem compression (Cranial nerve palsies, altered consciousness, abnormal respiration)

60
Q

What is an astrocytoma?

A

Primary intracranial tumor derived from astrocyte brain cells

  • Slow-growing lesion
  • Usually not metastatic, but tends to recur
61
Q

What is glioblastoma multiforme?

A

Glial cell dysfunction

  • Most aggressive
  • Often in cerebral hemisphere surrounded by edema
  • Non-metastatic
  • Poor prognosis
62
Q

Medulloblastoma is generally arise in the cerebellum of what patient population?

A

Pediatrics

63
Q

What are the characteristics of a meningioma?

A
  • Highly vascular
  • Slow-growing
  • Benign
  • Infiltrates skull
64
Q

What are the two types of pituitary adenomas?

A

Nonfunctioning (enlarge and compress gland)

Hypersecreting (secrete GH and prolactin)

65
Q

What are the signs and symptoms commonly associated with pituitary adenomas?

A

Headaches
Impaired vision
Cranial nerve palsy
Hypopituitarism

66
Q

What are the characteristics of an acoustic neuroma?

A
  • Benign neurofibroma of cranial nerve VIII

- Causes Unilateral deafness and ataxia

67
Q

What are the most common primary sites for metastatic tumors?

A

Lung and breast

68
Q

What is the most aggressive primary brain tumor?

A

Glioblastoma multiforme

69
Q

Where do intracranial aneurysms most often develop?

A

At the bifurcation of larger arteries commonly in the anterior circle of Willis

70
Q

Intracranial aneurysms are more common in what patient population?

A

Females

50-60 years old

71
Q

What is the main risk with intracranial aneurysms?

A

Rupture into a fixed space

72
Q

What are some risk factors for subarachnoid hemorrhage?

A
Smoking
HTN
Alcohol/Drug abuse
Oral contraceptives
Hypercholesterolemia
Familial
73
Q

What is the most common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage?

A

Ruptured aneurysm

74
Q

What is the classic presentation of subarachnoid hemorrhage?

A
Acute severe headache
Stiff neck
Photophobia
N/V
Transient loss of consciousness
75
Q

What are some potential complications of subarachnoid hemorrhage?

A
Re-rupture (kiss of death)
Reactive vasospasm
Intracranial HTN
Hydrocephalus
Hyponatremia
Seizures
76
Q

How are subarachnoid hemorrhages classified?

A

Hunt and Hess scale (I-V)

I = asymptomatic
II = moderate headache
III = confusion
IV = coma
V = moribund
77
Q

What is an AVM?

A

Arteriovenous malformation

  • Congenitally malformed capillary beds
  • High flow, low resistance
  • Circulatory steal and cerebral ischemia
78
Q

How is a stroke defined?

A

Second neurologic insult that results from restriction/cessation of blood flow

79
Q

How are strokes classified?

A

Ischemic/infarction (80-85%)

Hemorrhagic (15-20%)

80
Q

What are some possible causes of an ischemic stroke?

A
  • Thrombosis (atherosclerosis most common)
  • Embolism (cardiac source- A fib most common)
  • Vasoconstriction (Cerebral vasospasm following SAH)
81
Q

What is the pathophysiology of a hemorrhagic stroke?

A

Rupture of intracerebral vascular lesions

Ischemia is secondary consequence

82
Q

What is a subdural hematoma?

A

Blood collection between the Dura and cerebral cortex

83
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of a subdural hematoma?

A

Balance problems/gait changes
Mental status changes
Seizures

84
Q

What is hydrocephalus?

A

Imbalance between CSF production and reabsorption resulting in an increased ICP

85
Q

What are some causes of hydrocephalus?

A

CSF overproduction
Venous drainage obstruction
CSF flow obstruction

86
Q

What is pseudotumor Cerebri?

A

Increased ICP without a mass lesion

-Idiopathic intracranial hypertension

87
Q

How is pseudotumor Cerebri treated?

A

VP shunt

88
Q

What is the pathophysiology behind seizure disorders?

A
  • Abnormal synchronized electrical activity in the brain
  • Loss of inhibitory GABA activity
  • Enhanced excretory amino acid release
  • Enhanced narrow firing due to abnormal voltage mediated calcium channels
89
Q

Seizure disorders can be classified into what 2 main categories?

A

Partial (Focal)

Generalized

90
Q

What is a partial seizure disorder?

A

Disorder that affects either motor, sensory or autonomic symptoms depending on affected area of the brain
Simple = Consciousness preserved
Complex = Consciousness impaired, not lost

91
Q

Generalized seizure disorders can be broken down into what groups?

A
  1. Convulsive (tonic, clonic, tonic-clonic)
  2. non-convulsive (absence, myoclonic, atonic)
  3. Unclassified
92
Q

Signs and symptoms of seizure disorders fall into what 4 main categories?

A
  1. Motor (Muscle spasms)
  2. Sensory (Paresthesias)
  3. Autonomic (Pallor, sweating, vomiting)
  4. Psychiatric (Memory distortions)
93
Q

What are some of the anesthetic management concerns for patients with seizure disorders?

A
  • Avoid ketamine, etomidate and N2O

- non-depolarizer resistance with chronic therapy

94
Q

What do you do if a seizure occurs?

A
  1. Maintain open airway and adequate oxygenation

2. Give IV propofol, thiopental, midazolam, diazepam or phenytoin

95
Q

What is epilepsy?

A

Recurrent paroxysm of cerebral function

-Sudden, brief attacks of altered consciousness, motor activity, sensory phenomena, or inappropriate behavior

96
Q

What is status epilepticus?

A

Continuous or intermittent seizure activity lasting more than 20 minutes during which the patient does not regain consciousness

97
Q

What is the hemodynamic response to status epilepticus?

A
  1. Tachycardia and hypertension
  2. Bradycardia and hypotension
  3. Respiratory failure and cardiac arrest
98
Q

What are the three types of cerebral palsy?

A
  1. Spastic (70-80%)
    - Increased muscle tone
  2. Athetoid/dyskinetic (10-20%)
    - Constant, uncontrolled movement of limbs, head and eyes
  3. Ataxic (5-10%)
    - Balance and depth perception problems
99
Q

What is the etiology of cerebral palsy?

A

Hypoxia/ischemia at birth

Kernicterus (High bilirubin levels)

100
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Parkinson’s disease?

A
  • Loss of dopamine producing neurons in the substantia nigra that causes dopamine deficiency
  • Increased GABA nuclei activity
  • Thalamic inhibition suppresses motor system in cortex resulting in hallmark symptoms
101
Q

What is the purpose of the deep brain stimulator (DBS)?

A

Promotes dopamine release

102
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Parkinson’s?

A
Resting tremor
Trembling
Rigidity
Bradykinesia
Postural instability/impaired balance and coordination
103
Q

What are some anesthetic management concerns for a patient with Parkinson’s?

A
  • No metoclopramide or droperidol (Because of anti-dopaminergic activity)
  • Limit premeds
  • Treat hypotension w/ phenylephrine (Labile circulation)
  • Anti-cholinergics and antihistamines are effective against acute symptoms
104
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Alzheimer’s disease?

A
  • Marked cortical atrophy with ventricular enlargement
  • Severe loss of hippocampal and cortical neurons (Short-term memory and reasoning)
  • Morphological and biochemical neuron changes
105
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Alzheimer’s?

A
Slow decline in intellectual function
Memory loss
Language deterioration
Poor judgment
Confusion
Restlessness
106
Q

What are some anesthetic management concerns for a patient with Alzheimer’s?

A
  • Likely to be disoriented/uncooperative
  • Altered responses to drugs
  • Limit premeds
  • Likely to be confused after extubation