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AP Summer > Exam 4: Key Terms > Flashcards

Exam 4: Key Terms Flashcards

1
Q

What is the incidence of gastroschisis in United States?

A

1:15,000

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2
Q

If the patient is presenting for surgery on an omphalocele or Gastroschisis and is hypovolemic what type of intubation must be done?

A

Awake

RSI after IV atropine and O2

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3
Q

At what pressure is and ETT leak acceptable for a patient with an omphalocele or gastroschisis?

A

30-40 cmH2O

Higher than normal because of increased intra-abdominal pressures

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4
Q

What are some important considerations during induction for a patient with TEF?

A

Head up position to minimize aspiration
NG in esophagus to suction continuously
Awake intubation if hemodynamics unstable
RSI if stable

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5
Q

What neonatal surgical emergency requires an awake intubation and avoiding use of a mask?

A

Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
- Patient only has one good lung and you fear a pneumothorax on the good side

** Dr Pae said this was not a surgical emergency cause you are no longer correcting lung problem. I know this is a key term but this is what he said this year not sure who taught it last year

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6
Q

What are some important considerations during induction for a patient with a nasal encephalocele?

A

Positioning important

Awake intubation

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7
Q

What is true of the patient’s ventilatory status during induction for a cystic hygroma?

A

Maintain spontaneous ventilation

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8
Q

What are some potential benefits for pediatric premedication?

A 
Calms
Better acceptance of mask induction
Less anxiety from parental separation
Calms parents
Diminishes postop behavior changes
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9
Q

What are the main electrolyte imbalances seen with pyloric stenosis?

A

Hypokalemia

Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis

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10
Q

What happens to sodium levels during pyloric stenosis?

A

Relatively unchanged

-Body will defend volume before pH and thus saves sodium to retain water

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11
Q

What is true of the relationship between post op apnea risk and post conceptual age (PCA)?

A

Inversely proportinal

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12
Q

Which preoperative lab values are important to consider when worried about the risk of postoperative apnea?

A

Hct (and K+)

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13
Q

Which routine labs are taken on healthy children preoperatively?

A

None

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14
Q

Which labs are almost always taken for a tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy?

A

Coags preoperatively

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15
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of pyloric stenosis?

A 
Recurrent vomiting
Malnutrition/dehydration
Palpable "Olive" in the epigastrum
Visible peristalsis
Bradypnea
Jaundice (5-10%)
Acidic urine
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16
Q

What are the two main types of apnea?

A

Central: No airflow at nares and no muscular activity (no effort)
Obstructive: Muscular effort without nasal airflow (trying, but can’t)

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17
Q

What will cause a flattening of the CO2 response curve?

A

Prematurity
Younger postnatal age
Pre-terms with apnea vs without
Hypoxia

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18
Q

What is the incidence of apnea of prematurity in infants less than 30 weeks gestation?

A

80%

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19
Q

What are the contributing factors for AOP?

A

CNS disease
Systemic illness
Thermal/metabolic disturbances
Airway anomalies

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20
Q

What effects do halogenated anesthetics have on muscle tone and FRC?

A

Decreased muscle tone of airway, Chestwall and diaphragm

Reduced FRC

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21
Q

What effects do halogenated agents have on the CO2 response curve and ventilatory response to hypoxia?

A

Dose-dependent decrease in slope and right shift of CO2 response curve
Depressed ventilatory response to hypoxia

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22
Q

What are the elective surgery recommendations based on post conceptual age?

A

Delay elective surgery beyond 46 weeks PCA

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23
Q

Pyloric stenosis is considered what type of emergency?

A

Medical, not surgical

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24
Q

What must be normalized before performing surgery on pyloric stenosis?

A 
Adequate rehydration
Normal electrolytes (Cl >90; HCO3 <30)
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25
Q

How does alveolar ventilation of children compared to that of adults?

A

2x

6cc/kg for Peds

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26
Q

How does the O2 dissociation curve of neonate s compare to adults?

A

Left shifted

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27
Q

Why do pediatric respiratory muscles fatigue more easily than adults?

A

Fewer Type 1 fibers

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28
Q

When should elective surgery be canceled in a patient with URI?

A

Purulent rhinitis
Fever (>38.3)
Elevated WBC with bands
Infiltrate by CXR

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29
Q

What percent of US children have asthma?

A

5-10%

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30
Q

How does asthma affect ASA status?

A

Asthma = automatic II
Asthma + daily meds = ASA III
Asthma + steroids = ASA IV

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31
Q

What are the characteristics of Bronchopulmonary displasia?

A 
Increased airway resistance
Poor long compliance
VQ mismatch
Hypoxemia/O2 desaturation
Increased work of breathing
Chronic wheezing
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32
Q

For the preterm infant, how is the risk of postoperative apnea related to PCA?

A

Inversely proportional

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33
Q

What are the recommendations for surgery as related to PCA?

A

Surgery if >52 weeks PCA

Monitor in hospital if <52 weeks PCA

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34
Q

How is PCA calculated?

A

Age since birth - weeks premature

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35
Q

What are the recommendations for children with murmurs and preoperative evaluation?

A

Healthy child w/ Grade I-II / VI SEM & no symptoms = no work up
Grade III + or symptomatic = preoperative ECHO

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36
Q

What is the recommended preoperative Hct level for patients with sickle cell?

A

Transfuse to Hct of 30% with PRBCs

Not all may require

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37
Q

What are the fasting guidelines (in hours) for solids/milk for 36 mos of age?

A

< 6 mos = 4 hrs
6-36 mos = 6 hrs
> 36 mos = 8 hrs

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38
Q

What are the fasting guidelines for clear liquids for infants < 6 mos, 6-36 mos, > 36 mos of age?

A

< 6 mos = 2 hrs
6-36 mos = 3 hrs
> 36 mos = 3 hrs

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39
Q

What are the preoperative anxiety predictors?

A 
>12 months of age
Parental anxiety
Temperament
Social adaptability
Lack of premed
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40
Q

What is the pediatric preop dose of midazolam?

A

0.5-0.7 mg/kg oral

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41
Q

What is the pediatric dose of fentanyl?

A

10-15 mcg/kg

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42
Q

What is the oral pediatric dose of ketamine?

A

6-9 mg/kg

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43
Q

What percentage of all pediatric surgery in the US is ambulatory?

A

75%

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44
Q

How of patients selected for ambulatory surgery?

A

General medical condition
Nature and extent of surgery
Degree of postoperative care required

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45
Q

Why is sevoflurane the most popular inhalational technique?

A

Least irritating to airway

Desflurane = more laryngospasm and emergence excitement

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46
Q

What are the doses for pediatric acetaminophen?

A 
PO = 20 mg/kg
PR = 40 mg/kg
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47
Q

What’s the pediatric dose for IV toradol?

A

0.5 mg/kg

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48
Q

What is the rule for who can receive a caudal block?

A

Children < 7 & < 30 kg

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49
Q

What are the minimum discharge criteria for children?

A 
Stable VS (w/in 20% baseline)
No respiratory distress
Age appropriate ambulation
No N/V
Intact pharyngeal reflexes 
Age appropriate LOC
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50
Q

What procedures are associated with PONV?

A

T & A, ENT, Ears, Eyes, laparoscopic

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51
Q

Which drugs have been implicated in anesthetic neurotoxicity?

A

Ones the work on GABA and NMDA receptors

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52
Q

Is there a correlation between # surgeries and learning disabilities?

A

> 3 surgeries before age 2 = increased incidence of learning disabilities

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53
Q

What are the important anesthetic considerations relating to pyloric stenosis?

A

Aspiration risk
Dehydration
Metabolic derangements

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54
Q

List some of the main differences between omphalocele and gastroschisis

A

OMPHALOCELE: 1:6000; 2:1 (M:F); 30% mortality; midline to umbilicus; larger; associated with other congenital abnormalities; sac protects bowel from amniotic fluid

GSTROSCHISIS: 1:15000; 1:1 (M:F); 15% mortality; Right of umbilicus; smaller; not associated with other abnormalities; exposed to amniotic fluid

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55
Q

What electrolyte disturbances are common with omphalocele and gastroschisis?

A

Hypoglycemia and hypocalcemia

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56
Q

Where should the IV be placed for an omphalocele or gastroschisis?

A

Upper extremity

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57
Q

What is true of intra-abdominal pressure in omphalocele and gastroschisis?

A

Is increased and must be monitored

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58
Q

What are some important things to remember for intraop management of omphalocele and gastroschisis?

A

Warm OR (80*)
Check glucose, Ca, ABG
SaO2 94-97 (term); SaO2 90-94 (preterm)
Hct > 30%

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59
Q

What are the risks associated with primary closure of an omphalocele or gastroschisis?

A

Increased intra-abdominal pressure
Respiratory, renal, circulatory, GI dysfunction
Cyanotic legs, hypotension, poor venous return

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60
Q

What are the risks associated with secondary closure of an omphalocele or gastroschisis?

A

Infection!

Less compromise to other organs

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61
Q

What is the most common cause of neonatal GI obstruction?

A

Hirschprung’s disease

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62
Q

What are the treatment options for Hirschprung’s?

A

“Leveling” colostomy

Definitive = abdominoperineal resection with colon pull-through (when child reaches 10 kg)

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63
Q

90% of TEFs are what?

A

Esophageal atresia with distal fistula

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64
Q

What are the associated abnormalities with TEF?

A 
Vertebral
Anal
Congenital heart disease
TEF
EA
Renal or Radius anomalies
Limb abnormalities
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65
Q

How does TEF usually present?

A

Polyhydramnios
Excessive oral secretions
Cyanosis with feedings
EA with air in stomach = TEF

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66
Q

What are the two main postoperative risks associated with TEF?

A

Aspiration and respiratory infections

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67
Q

What is necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC)?

A

Ischemic condition of GI tract of multifactorial etiology

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68
Q

What percentage of NEC patients are premature?

A

> 90%

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69
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of NEC?

A 
Abdominal distension/discoloration
Vomiting
Bloody stools
Temperature instability
Shock (due to sepsis and 3rd space losses)
DIC/Thrombocytopenia
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70
Q

What are the important metabolic preoperative considerations for NEC patients?

A

Hypoglycemia
Hypocalcemia
Severe acidosis (secondary to ischemia)

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71
Q

How is bicarbonate replacement managed?

A

HCO3 deficit = BD x wt x 0.3

Give half of calculated deficit SLOWLY

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72
Q

What is important to remember when considering a NEC patient’s fluid status?

A

Will need aggressive fluid resuscitation (150cc/kg)

However, this may cause IVH

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73
Q

What are some postoperative considerations for a NEC patient?

A

Remain intubated (PPV)
Persistent 3rd space loss
Increased intra-abdominal pressure
Max. Muscle relaxation

25% mortality due to sepsis, gangrenous bowel, resp. failure, IVH, PDA, refractory met. acidosis

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74
Q

What is congenital diaphragmatic hernia?

A

At 4-9 weeks gestation the pleuroperitoneal membrane separates the two cavities. INCOMPLETE CLOSURE of membrane allows bowel herniate into chest when gut returns from yolk sac to the abdomen at 9 weeks gestation

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75
Q

How does CDH impact development?

A

Has severe impact on lung development (particularly on one side)
-aka pulmonary hypoplasia

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76
Q

Where do most CDHs occur?

A

80% Foramen of Bochdalek (posterolateral)

L:R 5:1

77
Q

What is often the cause of death with CDH?

A

Progressive hypoxemia, resp. failure, pulmonary HTN

78
Q

The compression of abdominal contents in the chest causes what pathophysiological changes?

A 
50% reduction in alveoli
Bronchial arrest @ 11-13wks
Mediastinal shift
Hypoplastic pulm. artery
Pulmonary HTN
79
Q

100% of CDH patients have what GI anomaly?

A

Malrotation of bowel

80
Q

What is the first line of treatment for CDH?

A

NOT surgical emergency

-medically stabilized
OR
-ECMO

81
Q

What are the important criteria to remember during induction of a child with CDH?

A

Precordial on side opposite of defect
Awake intubation
NO mask ventilation

-want to avoid PTX on one good side

82
Q

What must be maintained postop for a CDH patient in terms of respiratory status?

A

Respiratory alkalosis and PPV (determined by lung dz and intra-ab. pressure)
Minimal suctioning

83
Q

What are some potential complications associated with CDH?

A

Contralateral PTX - do not attempt to expand lungs
Hypothermia
Metabolic acidosis
Persistent pulmonary HTN

84
Q

What is the prognosis for CDH?

A

90% mortality (resp. distress in 1st hour)
80% mortality (contralateral PTX)
50% mortality (resp. distress 1st 6 hours)

85
Q

What are the indications for ECMO?

A

Reversible resp. failure

Meconium aspiration, CDH, drowning, infection, asthma

86
Q

What are the entry criteria for ECMO?

A

> 34 wk gestation
2 kg
Reversible lung dz
80% predicted mortality

87
Q

What are the exclusion criteria for ECMO?

A

> grade II IVH

Other life threatening anomalies

88
Q

What is myelodysplasia?

A

Abnormal fusion of neural groove in first month gestation leaving some portion of brain or cord exposed

89
Q

Where are myelodysplasias most often found?

A

75% lumbosacral

90
Q

What is the mortality rate associated with myelodysplasias and what is generally the cause of death?

A

17.6%

Morbidity: risk of infection secondary to exposed elements

91
Q

What type of myelodysplasia requires an awake intubation?

A

Nasal encephalocele

92
Q

What is a cystic hygroma?

A

Large lymphatic malformation

10-15% extend to mediastinum

93
Q

What is important to remember about cystic hygromas?

A

May involve tongue, great vessels, brachioplexus, facial, vagus, phrenic, & hypoglossal nerves

  • Airway compromise (+/- difficult intubation)
  • Infection
  • Bleeding
94
Q

What is true of induction for cystic hygroma patients?

A

IV atropine before laryngoscopy

Maintain spontaneous ventilation

95
Q

For almost all neonatal surgical emergencies what must be true of the operating room?

A

Keep it warm

96
Q

What are some drugs that negatively affect lower esophageal sphincter (LES) tone?

A 
Inhalational anesthetics
Opioids
Anticholinergics
Propofol
Beta blockers
Glucagon
Thiopental
97
Q

What are some drugs that increase lower esophageal sphincter (LES) tone?

A 
Anti-cholinesterase
Cholinergics
Acetylcholine 
Metoclopramide
Serotonin
Metoprolol
98
Q

What two factors put the patient at high risk for aspiration pneumonitis?

A

Volume > 25 mL

pH < 2.5

99
Q

What are some complications associated with diverticulitis?

A

Bleeding, abscess, perforation, peritonitis, fistula, obstruction

100
Q

The GI tract handles how much fluid and secretions per day? How much of that is not absorbed?

A

9L/day

100 mL not absorbed

101
Q

What is the normal pH of gastric fluid?

A

1-3.5

102
Q

What effects do sympathetic and parasympathetic stimulation have on GI motility?

A

Parasympathetic stimulation = Increases motility

Sympathetic stimulation = Decreases motility

103
Q

Which structure is responsible for preventing aspiration of gastric contents into the lungs and the swallowing of air?

A

(UES) Upper esophageal sphincter

104
Q

What effect do most anesthetic agents have on UES? What is the exception?

A

Decrease

Ketamine increases

105
Q

What is the resting pressure for the lower esophageal sphincter (LES)? At what pressure does it become problematic?

A 
Resting = 15-30mmHg
Problem = 10 mmHg
106
Q

Define barrier pressure

A

Difference between gastric pressure and LES pressure

107
Q

What is the name of the condition in which regular reflux of stomach acid irritates the esophagus, which leads to histological changes of the esophageal lining?

A

Barrett’s Esophagus

108
Q

Which condition requires an RSI because the LES does not relax properly?

A

Achalasia

109
Q

What are esophageal varices? What is generally the cause?

A

Esophageal varices = Dilated veins in the distal esophagus (@ risk for serious bleed)

Cause = portal hypertension

110
Q

What is the treatment for portal hypertension?

A

Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS)

111
Q

What GI medical emergency leads to sepsis and has the best outcome with early diagnosis (w/in 12 hrs)?

A

Upper GI perforation

112
Q

What stomach disorder is commonly seen in conjunction with poorly controlled diabetes?

A

Gastroparesis = Delayed gastric emptying

113
Q

Gastritis is commonly associated with what bacterial infection?

A

Heliobactor pylori

114
Q

What are the five sections of the stomach?

A 
Cardia
Fundus
Body
Antrum
Pylorus
115
Q

What is the function of the stomach?

A

Responsible for food storage and initial digestion

NOT Nutrient absorption

116
Q

What is responsible for the primary innervation of the stomach?

A

Vagus nerve

117
Q

What is the treatment for GERD and hiatal hernia?

A

Nissen fundoplication

118
Q

Intra-abdominal pressure in excess of what decreases venous return?

A

> 15 mmHg

119
Q

What causes shoulder pain following laparoscopic surgery?

A

Referred pain from stimulation to the phrenic nerve

120
Q

Where does most digestion and absorption occur?

A

Small intestine

121
Q

How much time does the body produce per day?

A

1-2L/day

122
Q

Which autoimmune disorder destroys the villi in the small intestine and cause a reaction to eating gluten?

A

Celiac disease

123
Q

What are the two main inflammatory bowel diseases?

A

Crohn’s disease

Ulcerative colitis

124
Q

How much bile is stored in the gallbladder?

A

50 mL

125
Q

What are some causes of pancreatitis?

A

Alcohol abuse, blockage, trauma, autoimmune, hyperparathyroid, cystic fibrosis

Propofol can cause at high doses

126
Q

What is the most common cause of emergency abdominal surgery?

A

Appendicitis

127
Q

What is ERCP?

A

Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography

-View the entrance of the common bile duct

128
Q

Where are water and electrolytes absorbed?

A

Large intestine

129
Q

How do gastric secretions compare to colonic secretions?

A 
Gastric = very acidic
Colon = alkaline
130
Q

What is the most common manifestation of carcinoid syndrome?

A

60% Carcinoid heart disease

-Right-sided involvement (tricuspid regurgitation and pulmonary valve involvement)

131
Q

What is octreotide?

A

Somatostatin infusion

132
Q

What are the four life-threatening causes of agitation during a MAC case?

A

Hypoxemia
Hypoventilation
Local toxicity
Cerebral hypoperfusion

133
Q

Why might glycopyrrolate be given in conjunction with ketamine?

A

Glycopyrrolate controls the excessive secretions caused by ketamine

134
Q

Why might glucagon be given for a GI case?

A

Glucagon relaxes the sphincter of Oddi

135
Q

What does methylnaltrexone do?

A

Reverses bowel immobility from narcotics (used in ICU)

136
Q

Be able to trace the flow of food from the time it enters the mouth to leaving the body

A

Mouth-esophagus-stomach-duodenum-jejunum-ileum-cecum-ascending colon-transverse colon-descending colon-sigmoid colon-rectum

137
Q

The appendix lies in closest proximity to what GI structure?

A

Cecum

138
Q

Where does the pancreas reside?

A

Immediately below the stomach and next to the duodenum

139
Q

What is the name for the connection between the common bile duct and pancreatic duct? Where does it lie?

A

Sphincter of Oddi

Connects to duodenum

140
Q

The common bile duct is made up of what two smaller ducts?

A

Hepatic duct

Cystic duct

141
Q

For gastric bypass surgery, what portion of the GI tract is bypassed?

A

The jejunum connects directly to the esophagus bypassing the stomach and duodenum

142
Q

What is part of the GI anatomy is manipulated during a nissen fundopliation?

A

The fundus of the stomach is wrapped around the lower esophagus

143
Q

What is the Zenker’s diverticulum?

A

Diverticulum of the mucosas of the pharynx just above the cricopharyngeal muscle (above UES)

144
Q

What effects do sympathetic and parasympathetic stimulation have on GI motility?

A

Parasympathetic stimulation = Increases motility

Sympathetic stimulation = Decreases motility

145
Q

Which structure is responsible for preventing aspiration of gastric contents into the lungs and the swallowing of air?

A

(UES) Upper esophageal sphincter

146
Q

What effect do most anesthetic agents have on UES? What is the exception?

A

Decrease

Ketamine increases

147
Q

What is the resting pressure for the lower esophageal sphincter (LES)? At what pressure does it become problematic?

A 
Resting = 15-30mmHg
Problem = 10 mmHg
148
Q

Define barrier pressure

A

Difference between gastric pressure and LES pressure

149
Q

What is the name of the condition in which regular reflux of stomach acid irritates the esophagus, which leads to histological changes of the esophageal lining?

A

Barrett’s Esophagus

150
Q

Which condition requires an RSI because the LES does not relax properly?

A

Achalasia

151
Q

What are esophageal varices? What is generally the cause?

A

Esophageal varices = Dilated veins in the distal esophagus (@ risk for serious bleed)

Cause = portal hypertension

152
Q

What is the treatment for portal hypertension?

A

Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS)

153
Q

What GI medical emergency leads to sepsis and has the best outcome with early diagnosis (w/in 12 hrs)?

A

Upper GI perforation

154
Q

What stomach disorder is commonly seen in conjunction with poorly controlled diabetes?

A

Gastroparesis = Delayed gastric emptying

155
Q

Gastritis is commonly associated with what bacterial infection?

A

Heliobactor pylori

156
Q

What are the five sections of the stomach?

A 
Cardia
Fundus
Body
Antrum
Pylorus
157
Q

What is the function of the stomach?

A

Responsible for food storage and initial digestion

NOT Nutrient absorption

158
Q

What is responsible for the primary innervation of the stomach?

A

Vagus nerve

159
Q

What is the treatment for GERD and hiatal hernia?

A

Nissen fundoplication

160
Q

Intra-abdominal pressure in excess of what decreases venous return?

A

> 15 mmHg

161
Q

What causes shoulder pain following laparoscopic surgery?

A

Referred pain from stimulation to the phrenic nerve

162
Q

Where does most digestion and absorption occur?

A

Small intestine

163
Q

How much time does the body produce per day?

A

1-2L/day

164
Q

Which autoimmune disorder destroys the villi in the small intestine and cause a reaction to eating gluten?

A

Celiac disease

165
Q

What are the two main inflammatory bowel diseases?

A

Crohn’s disease

Ulcerative colitis

166
Q

How much bile is stored in the gallbladder?

A

50 mL

167
Q

What are some causes of pancreatitis?

A

Alcohol abuse, blockage, trauma, autoimmune, hyperparathyroid, cystic fibrosis

Propofol can cause at high doses

168
Q

What is the most common cause of emergency abdominal surgery?

A

Appendicitis

169
Q

What is ERCP?

A

Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography

-View the entrance of the common bile duct

170
Q

Where are water and electrolytes absorbed?

A

Large intestine

171
Q

How do gastric secretions compare to colonic secretions?

A 
Gastric = very acidic
Colon = alkaline
172
Q

What is the most common manifestation of carcinoid syndrome?

A

60% Carcinoid heart disease

-Right-sided involvement (tricuspid regurgitation and pulmonary valve involvement)

173
Q

What is octreotide?

A

Somatostatin infusion

174
Q

What are the four life-threatening causes of agitation during a MAC case?

A

Hypoxemia
Hypoventilation
Local toxicity
Cerebral hypoperfusion

175
Q

Why might glycopyrrolate be given in conjunction with ketamine?

A

Glycopyrrolate controls the excessive secretions caused by ketamine

176
Q

Why might glucagon be given for a GI case?

A

Glucagon relaxes the sphincter of Oddi

177
Q

What does methylnaltrexone do?

A

Reverses bowel immobility from narcotics (used in ICU)

178
Q

Be able to trace the flow of food from the time it enters the mouth to leaving the body

A

Mouth-esophagus-stomach-duodenum-jejunum-ileum-cecum-ascending colon-transverse colon-descending colon-sigmoid colon-rectum

179
Q

The appendix lies in closest proximity to what GI structure?

A

Cecum

180
Q

Where does the pancreas reside?

A

Immediately below the stomach and next to the duodenum

181
Q

What is the name for the connection between the common bile duct and pancreatic duct? Where does it lie?

A

Sphincter of Oddi

Connects to duodenum

182
Q

The common bile duct is made up of what two smaller ducts?

A

Hepatic duct

Cystic duct

183
Q

For gastric bypass surgery, what portion of the GI tract is bypassed?

A

The jejunum connects directly to the esophagus bypassing the stomach and duodenum

184
Q

What is part of the GI anatomy is manipulated during a nissen fundopliation?

A

The fundus of the stomach is wrapped around the lower esophagus

185
Q

What is the Zenker’s diverticulum?

A

Diverticulum of the mucosas of the pharynx just above the cricopharyngeal muscle (above UES)

186
Q

What procedure (generally performed under MAC) is used to view the upper GI tract? Lower GI tract?

A 
Upper = (EGD) Esophagogastroduodenoscopy
Lower = Colonoscopy
187
Q

What per engage of a term newborn’s total body weight consists of water?

A

75%

188
Q

What procedure (generally performed under MAC) is used to view the upper GI tract? Lower GI tract?

A 
Upper = (EGD) Esophagogastroduodenoscopy
Lower = Colonoscopy

AP Summer (24 decks)

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