Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

Canine Brain

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Canine Brain

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Canine Brain

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which cranial nerves are associated with the oral cavity and pharynx?

A

Trigeminal nerve (CN V), glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX), vagus nerve (CN X)

These nerves are connected via the solitary fasciculus (aka solitary tract or tractus solitarius or fasciculus solitarius is a compact fiber bundle that extends longitudinally through the posterolateral region of the medulla oblongata).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where is the swallowing center located?

A

In the lateral reticular formation

Upper motor neuron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What muscles in regard to the tongue does the Trigeminal nerve (CN V) innervate?

A

Mylohyoideus and digastricus muscles

These muscles control the elevation of the base of the tongue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which cranial nerve innervates the voluntary muscles of the oral cavity?

A

Facial nerve (CN VII)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does the Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) innervate?

A

The Pharynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which structures does the Vagus nerve (CN X) innervate?

A

Pharynx, Larynx (via recurrent laryngeal nerve), Esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does the Hypoglossal nerve (Cranial Nerve XII) innervate?

A

The Tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the nature of the respiratory center mentioned in regardess to swallowing center?

A

Inhibitory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What type of swelling is cytotoxic edema?

A

Intracellular swelling in presence of normal blood-brain barrier

Cytotoxic edema is a type of brain swelling that occurs when cells in the brain take in excessive water, causing them to expand and swell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What causes cytotoxic edema?

A

Failure of cell membrane ion pumps leading to excessive entry of sodium and water

Cytotoxic edema is a type of brain swelling that occurs when cells in the brain take in excessive water, causing them to expand and swell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What conditions are associated with cytotoxic edema?

A
  • Ischemia and hypoxia (contusions, vascular disease, repeated seizures)
  • Metabolic disorders
  • Intoxication

Cytotoxic edema is a type of brain swelling that occurs when cells in the brain take in excessive water, causing them to expand and swell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which cell type is most affected by cytotoxic edema?

A

Astrocytes

Cytotoxic edema is a type of brain swelling that occurs when cells in the brain take in excessive water, causing them to expand and swell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What type of brain matter is vasogenic edema largely confined to?

A

white matter

Vasogenic edema primarily affects the white matter of the brain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What causes vasogenic edema?

A

increased vascular permeability

This condition leads to the accumulation of extracellular fluid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Name the four causes of vasogenic edema.

A
  • Contusion
  • Inflammatory disease
  • Vascular disease
  • Compressive diseases like neoplasia

Each of these conditions can contribute to the development of vasogenic edema.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does contusion of the spinal cord or brain cause?

A

Primary mechanical damage to the CNS and initiates a chain of biochemical events

This leads to neuronal and glial cell necrosis and apoptosis (secondary injury) and an inflammatory response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is secondary injury in neuronal injury?

A

Biochemical events following primary injury leading neuronal and glial cell necrosis and apoptosis.

Involves an inflammatory response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

List the changes that occur during secondary injury.

A
  • Intracellular ion increase (Na, Cl, Ca) -> Cytotoxic edema
  • Decreased astrocyte uptake of glutamate -> Increased levels of glutamate causing excitotoxicity

These changes lead to cell death.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is cytotoxic edema?

A

Swelling of cells due to increased intracellular ions

This is a consequence of secondary injury.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What causes excitotoxicity in neuronal injury?

A

Increased levels of glutamate due to decreased astrocyte uptake

This results in excitatory cell death.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

True or False: Primary injury leads directly to inflammatory response.

A

False

Primary injury initiates biochemical events that lead to secondary injury and inflammation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Fill in the blank: The increase of intracellular ions during secondary injury includes _______.

A

[Na, Cl, Ca]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the flow pathway of CSF from the lateral ventricles to the spinal cord?

A

Lateral ventricles → interventricular foramina → third ventricles → mesencephalic aqueduct → fourth ventricle → subarachnoid space via lateral apertures OR caudally to enter the central canal of the spinal cord

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is primarily produced by the choroid plexus in teh ventricles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Where is CSF located in the central nervous system?

A

In the subarachnoid space between the arachnoid and the pia mater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the main components of CSF?

A

Ultrafiltrate of plasma
Low protein
Low cellularity
Glucose (lower than peripheral glucose)
Electrolytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

True or False: CSF has a high protein content.

A

False

low protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the significance of CSF being lower in cellularity compared to peripheral blood?

A

Indicates a lower immune cell presence in CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the role of the lateral apertures of the fourth ventricle?

A

Allows CSF to enter the subarachnoid space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What structure connects the third and fourth ventricles?

A

Mesencephalic aqueduct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What happens to CSF once it reaches the fourth ventricle?

A

It can enter the subarachnoid space or the central canal of the spinal cord

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is primarily produced by the choroid plexus in the ventricles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the main functional divisions of the brain?

A

Forebrain, Brainstem, Cerebellum

These divisions categorize the brain based on functionality.

35
Q

What is the other name for the Forebrain?

A

Prosencephalon

The Forebrain is also referred to as the Prosencephalon.

36
Q

What structures are included in the Telencephalon?

A

Cerebrum
Frontal lobe
Parietal lobe
Occipital lobe
Temporal lobe
Olfactory bulb

The Telencephalon encompasses major regions of the brain.

37
Q

What is the function of the Corpus callosum?

A

Interneurons that connect the two hemispheres - coordinate movement

It facilitates communication between the left and right hemispheres of the brain.

38
Q

What are corticocortical fibers?

A

Also known as association fibers, are white matter tracts that connect different areas within the same cerebral hemisphere, facilitating communication and integration of information between various cortical regions.

These fibers play a role in integrating information across various brain regions.

39
Q

What does the Internal capsule connect?

A

A bundle of nerve fibers, connects the cerebral cortex with the brainstem, spinal cord, and other subcortical structures, acting as a major pathway for both motor and sensory information.

It is a crucial pathway for information traveling to and from the cerebral cortex.

40
Q

What structures are included in the Diencephalon?

A

Hypothalamus, Thalamus

The Diencephalon is responsible for relay and control of various autonomic functions.

41
Q

What is the other name for the Midbrain/ rostral brainstem?

A

Mesencephalon

The Midbrain is also known as the Mesencephalon and is part of the brainstem.

42
Q

What is the Rhombencephalon also known as?

A

Hindbrain

The Rhombencephalon includes structures that are critical for basic life functions.

43
Q

What is the Metencephalon?

A

Part of the Rhombencephalon that includes the Pons (ventral brainstem) and Cerebellum

It plays a significant role in motor control and coordination.

44
Q

What is the Myelencephalon?

A

Part of the Rhombencephalon that includes the Medulla oblongata (caudal brainstem)

It is responsible for regulating vital functions such as breathing and heart rate.

45
Q

What connects medulla oblongata to cerebellum?

A

Inferior peduncle

47
Q

Vagus nerve % of parasympathetic to body?

48
Q

Immune/Phagocytic cell of the CNS?

A

Microglia

Are resident macrophages that act as the first and main form of active immune defense in the brain and spinal cord.

49
Q

Microglia release what?

A

Microglial cells release:
* IL-1
* TNF-a
* H2O2
* NO
* Proteinases

50
Q

The Monro-Kellie doctrine, a fundamental principle in neurophysiology, states that the sum of the volumes of ____ , ____ , and ____ is constant within the rigid skull, meaning an increase in one component necessitates a decrease in the others to maintain a stable intracranial pressure.

A
  • brain tissue
  • cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
  • intracranial blood
51
Q

The Monro-Kellie doctrine, a fundamental principle in neurophysiology, states that the sum of the volumes of brain tissue, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), and intracranial blood is constant within the rigid skull, meaning an increase in one component necessitates a ____ in the others to maintain a stable intracranial pressure.

52
Q

Which cells make up BBB?

A
  • endothelial cells (tight junctions between cells)
  • astrocyte
  • a basal lamina
  • pericytes
  • perivascular microglia
53
Q

What does the femoral nerve innervate?

A
  • stifle extension (cranial thigh muscles)
  • saphenous n. (medial limb sensation)
  • hip flexion (rectus femoris)
54
Q

What signs are noted with injury to the Sciatic nerve innervate?

A
  • Plantigrade (tibial nerve dysfunction)
  • Sensation of the paw on the dorsal surface (fibular nerve dysfunction)

however, the limb can support weight if thefemoralnerve is intact because the stifle joint can be extended for weight support.

55
Q

Patellar reflex test for what major nerve of the hind limb?

A

Femoral Nerve (L4-L6)

Most reliable reflex

56
Q

If the patellar tendon reflex is hyporeflexive does it mean UMN or LMN?

A

LMN

If hyperreflexive = UMN

57
Q

Withdrawal of the forequater evaluated which vertebral nerves?

A

C6-T2
* Dorsal Thoracic
* Axillary
* Musculocutaneous
* Median
* Ulnar
* Radial

Flexion Shoulder, Elbow, Carpus, digits

58
Q

With drawal of the hinWithdrawal of the hindlimbs evaluated which vertebral nerves?dlimbs

A

L6-S1 - Sciatic n.
- A patient can walk w/ sciatic paralysis but is plantigrade (Tibial n. dysfunction), and paw is misplaced on the dr surface (fibular n. dysfunction)

Can support wt if the Femoral n. is intact (stifle extension)

59
Q

Cutaneous Trunci

A
  • C8 and T1 → Synapse on LMN of both lateral thoracic n.
  • Begins at ilium

Reflex preserved for 1-2 vertebral bodies caudal to the level of the spinal cord lesion - nerves travel cranially before entering the vertebral column

60
Q

Which cranial nerves exit from cribriform plate and optic foramen.?

61
Q

What are the exit points for cranial nerves III and IV?

A

Orbital fissure

These nerves exit from the midbrain (rostral brainstem).

62
Q

Which cranial nerve exits through the orbital fissure?

A

VI

This nerve is associated with the mid and caudal brainstem.

63
Q

List the exit points for cranial nerve V.

A
  • Ophthalmic → orbital fissure
  • Maxillary → round foramen
  • Mandibular → oval foramen

This nerve has three branches with different exit points.

64
Q

Where does cranial nerve VII exit?

A

Internal acoustic meatus and stylomastoid foramen

This nerve is involved with facial functions.

65
Q

Which cranial nerve remains within the temporal bone after exiting?

A

VIII

This nerve exits through the internal acoustic meatus.

66
Q

What is the exit point for cranial nerves IX, X, and XI?

A

Tympano-occipital fissure

These nerves exit from the mid and caudal brainstem.

67
Q

What is the exit point for cranial nerve XII?

A

Hypoglossal canal

This nerve is involved in tongue movement.

68
Q

What is the dens or odontoid process, it lies within the vertebral foramen of the atlas and is held by ligaments.

69
Q

What is the function of the transverse ligament?

A

It prevents dorsal movement into the vertebral canal but allows rotational movement.

Transverse ligament - Yellow

70
Q

Which bone is the dens connected to by the apical ligament?

A

The basioccipital bone.

Apical ligament - green

71
Q

What do the bilateral alar ligaments connect?

A

They connect the dens to the occipital condyles.

Bilateral alar ligaments - purple

72
Q

What does the dorsal atlantoaxial ligament join?

A

It joins the dorsal arch of the atlas and the craniodorsal spine of the axis.

Dorsal atlantoaxial ligament - orange

73
Q

Based on studies, which ligaments provide the most important stabilization against ventrodorsal shearing?

A

The alar ligaments.

Bilateral alar ligaments - purple

74
Q

What is cervical spondylomyelopathy commonly known as?

Cervical Compression

A

Wobbler syndrome

It is a condition affecting dogs, particularly their cervical spine.

75
Q

What are the two main forms of cervical spondylomyelopathy (CSM)?

A
  1. Osseous-associated CSM (OA-CSM)
  2. Disc-associated CSM (DA-CSM)

These forms differ based on their underlying causes and the age of the affected dogs.

76
Q

Which breed type is more commonly affected by osseous-associated CSM (OA-CSM)?

A

Young giant breeds

OA-CSM is particularly prevalent in large dog breeds during their early development.

77
Q

Which breed type is more prevalent for disc-associated CSM (DA-CSM)?

A

Older large breeds

DA-CSM typically affects larger dogs as they age.

78
Q

Cervical spondylomyelopathy osseous cause?

A

Cause: Spinal cord compression due to bony structures, particularly the articular processes, surrounding the spinal cord.

79
Q

Cervical spondylomyelopathy disc associatedcause?

A

Cause: Spinal cord and nerve root compression due to intervertebral disc protrusion.

80
Q

Ligament noted during a V-slot approach?

A

Dorsal longitudinal ligament

81
Q

Functional Classification of Peripherial Neurons?

A

Afferent Sensory Somatic
* Somatic
* Visceral
* Proprioceptive

Efferent Motor
* Somatic
* Visceral

82
Q

Name the Autonomic Plexuses of the Abdominal Region.

A
  • Cellaco mesentric
  • Hepatic
  • Splenic
  • Left gastric
  • Phrenic-abdominal
  • Adrenal
  • Renal
  • Cranial mesentric
  • Aortic
  • Testicular
  • Utero-ovarian
  • Caudal mesentric
83
Q

Vagus nerve innervate what organs?

A

Vagus provide 75% of Parasympathetic
* Heart & Lungs
* Recurrent laryngeal Nerve (larynx, esophagus, trachea)
* Abdominal viscera

Originates from the medulla oblongata (brainstem) and exits the skull through the jugular foramen

84
Q

Where does the Vagus originates from and exit the skull?

A

Vagus originates from the medulla oblongata (brainstem) and exits the skull through the jugular foramen